Match the following statements with either Adrenal Medulla (Nervous System), Adrenal Cortex (Endocrine System) or Both.

Please help answer all of them if possible!!

Match The Following Statements With Either Adrenal Medulla (Nervous System), Adrenal Cortex (Endocrine

Answers

Answer 1

Adrenal cortex - hormones secreted are cortisol and aldosterone,  stimulated by ACTH from anterior pituitary to release hormones.

What are the functions of cortisol?

Your adrenal glands create the glucocorticoid hormone cortisol, which is then released into the body.

Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily functions. These messages instruct your body on what to do when.

A particular class of steroid hormone is glucocorticoids. They regulate the metabolism of your muscles, fat, liver, and bones while reducing inflammation in all of your bodily tissues. The sleep-wake cycle is also impacted by glucocorticoids.

Explanation.

Adrenal medulla- hormones stimulate fight or flight responses, tissue in  middle of adrenal gland, hormones are epinephrine and norepinephrine, hormones respond to stress.

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Related Questions

Which of the following connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx.
a. Malleus
b. Incus
c. Stapes
d. Tympanic Membrane
e. Auditory tube

Answers

e) auditory tube joins the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The pharyngotympanic or eustachian tubes are other names for the auditory tube. This structure joins the middle ear to the lateral nasopharynx wall.

While swallowing, yawning, or when the air pressure varies, this tube works to balance the pressure between the two cavities.

The vestibulocochlear organs are found in the inner ear, which is regarded as the hearing centre of the ear. The membranous labyrinth and the bone labyrinth are the two main inner ear structures. The cochlea, vestibule, and three semi-circular canals are formed by the bony labyrinth, which is a network of cavities within the temporal bone. Perilymph fills these structures.

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What is it called when a foreign gene is inserted into an organism?

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When a foreign gene is inserted into an organism, it is referred to as genetic engineering.

Genetic engineering is the method of modifying the genetic material of an organism, either by direct gene transfer or by selective breeding, to obtain desirable traits or to get a better understanding of the organism's genetics. It entails inserting, deleting, or changing genes in an organism's genetic code.The foreign gene is introduced into the organism by a vector. A vector is a carrier that carries genetic material from one organism to another. Plasmids, bacteriophages, and viral vectors are some of the most common vectors used in genetic engineering.

The foreign gene, for example, is isolated from its original organism and then inserted into a vector, which then carries it into the host organism.The new genetic material is then incorporated into the host organism's DNA. If it is carried out in a gamete, it will be inherited by the organism's progeny, resulting in genetic modification or genetic engineering of the species. The introduced gene might come from a different species, a natural variant of the organism, or a totally artificial construct, such as a gene designed to treat a genetic illness. The technique has a variety of uses, including biotechnology, agriculture, and medicine.

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In which part of a cell would a receptor that binds to one of these Signalling molecules be found?

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A receptor that binds to one of these signaling molecules would be found in the plasma membrane of a cell.

The receptor molecule is the membrane-bound protein that binds to signaling molecules. The receptor is usually a transmembrane protein that spans the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

Signalling molecules, also known as ligands, are molecules that bind to specific receptors on the surface of a target cell, resulting in a biochemical reaction in the cell.

In this way, signaling molecules play a vital role in cell communication and the regulation of physiological processes.

The binding of a signaling molecule to a receptor on the surface of a target cell causes a biochemical reaction within the cell. This reaction could be to trigger the release of a second messenger, activate or deactivate an enzyme, or cause a structural change in the receptor.

Signaling molecules are synthesized by one cell and then released into the extracellular fluid, where they bind to specific receptors on the surface of target cells, initiating a signaling cascade.

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please choose the statement which best describes the goal(s) of antimicrobial susceptibility testing. multiple choice a. antimicrobial susceptibility testing can accomplish all of these goals b. to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent c. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause allergic reactions d. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause toxicity e. to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to

Answers

The goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is: option (B) states that "to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent".

This is because antimicrobial susceptibility testing tests the ability of an antimicrobial drug to inhibit or kill a particular type of bacteria or microorganism. It helps determine which drug will work the best to treat an infection.

This is important because it can help doctors choose the most effective drug for the particular infection. It also helps determine the least likely drug to cause allergic reactions, toxicity, or other adverse effects in the patient.

Ultimately, the goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to, so that the most effective treatment can be used.

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in regard to concentration, how do water molecules move through the membrane?

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Water molecules move through a membrane via a process known as osmosis.

Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. This means that water molecules move from an area with fewer molecules of water, to an area with more molecules of water. This is driven by the process of diffusion, where molecules naturally move from an area of higher energy to an area of lower energy. In osmosis, the energy of the water molecules is being used to overcome the energy of the membrane. This energy is used to break apart the membrane, allowing the water molecules to move through. As the water molecules move through the membrane, they continue to diffuse until they reach an area with an equal concentration of molecules. This process helps to maintain a balance of water molecules between the two sides of the membrane.

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The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called _____ neurons. sensory contractile inhibitory → motorassociation

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The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons. Neurons are specialized cells that communicate with one another and transfer information from one region of the brain to another.

In the nervous system, these cells are the building blocks. Neurons are responsible for transmitting electrical and chemical signals in the body, and they make up the nervous system. When it comes to transmitting signals, neurons are divided into three categories. They are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.Motor neurons:Motor neurons are a type of neuron that helps in the transmission of signals from the brain or spinal cord to muscles or other organs. They are responsible for sending messages from the central nervous system (CNS) to the body's effector organs (muscles and glands).

The neuron that stimulates muscle contraction is known as a motor neuron. Motor neurons are involved in generating voluntary or involuntary movement of muscles. The central nervous system's motor neurons are involved in activities such as movement and posture control, while the peripheral nervous system's motor neurons control muscle contractions. In conclusion, the neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons.

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Proteins need to be denatured using an anionic detergent such as SDS before gel electrophoresis because: Select all that apply. (0.5pts) Multiple answers: Multiple answers are accepted for this question Select one or more answers and submit. For keyboard navigation... SHOW MORE a most proteins have a uniform positive charge b the overall charge of a protein depends on the amino acid composition of the protein and can vary greatly c most proteins have complex three dimensional structures that can impact their movement through the gel most proteins have a uniform neutral charge

Answers

Proteins need to be denatured using an anionic detergent such as SDS before gel electrophoresis because:

a) most proteins have a uniform positive charge,

b) the overall charge of a protein depends on the amino acid composition of the protein and can vary greatly, and

c) most proteins have complex three dimensional structures that can impact their movement through the gel.

Denaturing proteins with an anionic detergent like SDS neutralizes the charge of the proteins, allowing them to move evenly through the gel in a consistent pattern during the electrophoresis process.

Without the anionic detergent, the proteins would not move evenly and the results of the gel electrophoresis would not be accurate.

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how are the antennae chelipeds, other walking legs, and swimmerets related?

Answers

They're all just limbs. The long antennae are utilised to physically sense a place, such the crevice's contours.

The tiny antennules are used to detect motion in the water, which may also be a sign of food, a fling, or danger, as well as to aid the creature in smelling for food, mates, or harmful predators. The antennae in crayfish come in two pairs. The brief pair is referred to as an antennule. Food and water are tasted through antennae. The crayfish's long antennae are employed for their touch sense, which aids in helping them locate food and detect vibrations from nearby predators.

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which of the following occur in bands that are often near the boundaries between ocean and continents

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The constant action of waves, tides, and wind can erode the coastline and create cliffs, rocky shores, and beaches. This erosion is more intense in areas where the ocean meets the land, and it can affect both natural and man-made structures.

What are the tides?

Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun on the Earth's oceans. The gravitational force of the Moon is the primary cause of tides, while the gravitational force of the Sun also plays a role. The strength of the gravitational pull depends on the distance between the Moon and the Earth, which varies as the Moon orbits the Earth. As a result, tides are not constant, but rather change throughout the day and over the course of a month.

Tides are important for a number of reasons. They create important habitats for marine life, shape coastlines, and play a role in navigation and shipping. Tidal power, which involves harnessing the energy of the tides to generate electricity, is also being explored as a potential source of renewable energy.

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which component is not directly involved with transcription? group of answer choices trna mrna dna rutp

Answers

Answer: The component that is not directly involved with transcription is RUTP. RNA Uracil Triphosphate (RUTP) is a cofactor used in the synthesis of proteins but is not directly involved in the process of transcription.

Explanation: Transcription is the process in which genetic information encoded in DNA is used to create messenger RNA (mRNA). This process is an important step in the production of proteins, which are essential for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms.

The steps involved in the transcription process are as follows:

Initiation: RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA and starts transcribing the DNA molecule.

Elongation: RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA strand.

Termination: RNA polymerase stops synthesizing RNA when it reaches a terminator sequence, which marks the end of the gene.

The components involved in transcription are as follows:

mRNA (messenger RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome.

TRNA (transfer RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome, where they are assembled into a protein.

RNA polymerase: This is the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.

Ribosomes: These are the cellular structures where protein synthesis occurs.

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid): DNA stores the genetic code that is used to synthesize RNA, which, in turn, is used to synthesize proteins.

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which of the following statements provides the best explanation of the processes illustrated in figure 1 ? responses introns are removed from the pre-rrna , and the mature rrna molecules are joined and then translated to produce the protein portion of the ribosome. introns are removed from the pre- r r n a , and the mature r r n a molecules are joined and then translated to produce the protein portion of the ribosome. introns are removed from the pre-rrna , and each mature rrna molecule is translated to produce the proteins that make up the ribosomal subunits. introns are removed from the pre- r r n a , and each mature r r n a molecule is translated to produce the proteins that make up the ribosomal subunits. sections of the pre-rrna are removed, and the mature rrna molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits. sections of the pre- r r n a are removed, and the mature r r n a molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits. sections of the pre-rrna are removed, and the mature rrna molecules are available to bring different amino acids to the ribosome.]

Answers

The best explanation of the processes illustrated in Figure 1 is that the introns are removed from the pre-rRNA, and the mature rRNA molecules are joined and then translated to produce the protein portion of the ribosome.

In other words, sections of the pre-rRNA are removed and the mature rRNA molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits, which then get translated to create the proteins that make up the ribosomal subunits.

The introns are also known as intervening sequences since they are not observed in mature RNA. rRNA or the ribosomal RNA plays an important structural as well as catalytic role during the process of translation.

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What is first-strand synthesis of cDNA?

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First-strand synthesis of cDNA refers to the process of generating the first strand of cDNA from an RNA template.

This process typically involves reverse transcription, where an enzyme called reverse transcriptase synthesizes a complementary DNA strand to the RNA template.

1. RNA isolation: The RNA template is first isolated from the sample of interest. This may involve purifying the RNA from a biological sample using techniques like column chromatography or gel electrophoresis.

2. Reverse transcription: The isolated RNA is then used as a template for the synthesis of the first cDNA strand. Reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that can synthesize a complementary DNA strand from an RNA template, is used to catalyze this process.

3. Second-strand synthesis: Once the first cDNA strand is synthesized, a second complementary strand is generated through polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or other methods.

Overall, first-strand synthesis of cDNA is an essential process for studying gene expression and manipulating DNA sequences in the lab.

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is the genetic code is said to be because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid?

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Yes. The genetic codes have degenerates and multiple codes can specify a single amino acid.

The genetic codes

Yes, the genetic code is said to be degenerate or redundant because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid.

There are 20 different amino acids commonly found in proteins, but there are 64 possible codons in the genetic code, which means that most amino acids are specified by more than one codon.

This redundancy provides a degree of error tolerance to the genetic code, as a mutation in a single nucleotide may not necessarily result in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein.

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A teenager swears at the dinner table, and as a result, her parents take away her iPad for one week. The teenager is now much less likely to swear at the dinner table, illustrating:
A) positive punishment.
B) positive reinforcement.
C) negative punishment.
D) negative reinforcement.

Answers

The teenager is now much less likely to swear at the dinner table, illustrating negative punishment. Therefore, the correct option will be C.

What is Negative Punishment?

Negative punishment is a behavior-reducing process. It entails the removal of a desirable stimulus or a reduction in the availability of it, resulting in a reduction in behavior's likelihood to occur. Negative punishment is demonstrated when a specific action leads to the withdrawal of a stimulus, making it less likely for that action to occur in the future.

The best example of negative punishment is where the parents of the teenage girl took away her iPad for a week after she swore at the dinner table.

Thus, the correct option will be C.

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A girl walks from her home to a friend’s home 3 blocks north. She then walks 2 blocks east to the post office. 1 block north to the library, and one block east to the park. From the park, she walks 2 blocks west to the movie theater. After the movie, she walks 4 blocks south to the pet store. What is the girls displacement from her starting point to the pet store? Where is the location of the pet store in relation to her home? Calculate the distance she walked in blocks.

Answers

The girl's displacement from her starting point to the pet store is √26 blocks, approximately 5.1 blocks and the distance she walked in blocks is 11 blocks

What is the displacement of the girl from her starting position?

To find the girl's displacement from her starting point to the pet store, we need to find the net distance and direction from her starting point to the pet store.

Starting from her home, she walked 3 blocks north, then 2 blocks east, then 1 block north, then 1 block east, and finally 4 blocks south. The net displacement can be found using the Pythagorean theorem:

Net displacement = √(3² + 1² + 4²)

Net displacement = √26

Net displacement = 5.1 blocks.

The girl's displacement from her starting point to the pet store is √26 blocks, approximately 5.1 blocks.

The location of the pet store in relation to her home can be described as 2 blocks south and 1 block east.

To calculate the distance she walked in blocks, we can add up the distances of all the legs of her journey:

Distance = 3 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 4

Distance = 11 blocks

The girl walked a total of 11 blocks.

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watson and crick proposed the double helix structure model for dna in 1953. which of the following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed?

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Watson and Crick proposed the double helix structure model for DNA in 1953. The following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed is Meselson and Stahl's evidence that DNA replicated semi-conservatively.

Watson and Crick used various facts to determine the molecular model they proposed, including the following: Chargaff's Rule, this rule shows that the amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine in DNA is constant. It also demonstrates that adenine and thymine are complementary base pairs, while guanine and cytosine are complementary base pairs.

X-ray crystallography, the X-ray diffraction pattern of the DNA molecule, discovered by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins, aided Watson and Crick in constructing the double helix structure model of DNA. The double helix structure model of DNA,  Watson and Crick constructed the double helix structure model of DNA based on the complementary base pairing of adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine. The complementary base pairs' weak hydrogen bonds form between the two strands of the helix, stabilizing the double helix structure.

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which level of organization is the most complex in terms of size and composition?

Answers

Answer: organismal level

Explanation:

The most complex level of organization is the organismal level, where all eleven organ systems function in the human organism, the whole living person.

Weigh the efficacy of using prokaryotes over eukaryotes for certain industrial purposes and energy production.

Answers

The eukaryotic cells' internal areas become more functionally concentrated as a result of the integration of organelles. Hence, eukaryotic cells are significantly more efficient than prokaryotic cells at producing energy and getting rid of waste.

What is a eukaryotic cell?Eukaryota is a varied domain of organisms whose cells have a nucleus. Eukaryotes are the group's members. Eukaryotes include every type of animal, plant, fungus, and numerous unicellular organisms. One of the three domains of life is known as the Eukarya, which is a class of organisms. Monera (prokaryotes), Animalia (Metazoa), Plantae, Fungi, and Protista are recognised as four eukaryotic kingdoms in the most well-known classification scheme, the "Whittaker" five kingdom structure.The nucleus is the distinctive trait that distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells lack a genuine nucleus, and eukaryotic cells are the only ones to have membrane-bound organelles.Large and complex creatures are created by eukaryotic cells, which have nuclei encased in nuclear membranes.

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lipids in foods and in the body are mostly in the form of

Answers

Answer:

Triglycerides

Explanation:

Triglycerides are the main form of lipids in the body and in foods

the student repeats the experiment with a different substrate and measures no enzyme activity. why would this happen?

Answers

If the student repeats the experiment with a different substrate and measures no enzyme activity then this would happen because the enzyme cannot bind to the new substrate.

What is enzyme specificity in terms of enzymatic activity?

The expression enzyme specificity in terms of enzymatic activity means that one enzyme only can bind to a group of related substrates while it does not bind to other molecules.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that enzyme specificity in terms of enzymatic activity is capable of explaining the role of enzymes in the cell.

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many forests and grasslands depend on periodic wildfires to maintain their ecosystems. fires create new habitat with increased resources and reduced competition. this best demonstrates what ecosystem service?

Answers

Many forests and grasslands depend on periodic wildfires to maintain their ecosystems, this best demonstrates the ecosystem service of "natural disturbance."

Natural disturbance is a vital ecosystem service that maintains natural biodiversity, ensures ecosystem productivity, and enhances ecosystem services. Many ecosystems, including forests, grasslands, and wetlands, rely on natural disturbances to maintain their diversity and productivity.Periodic wildfires are a natural and essential disturbance that helps to maintain healthy ecosystems.

Wildfires produce new habitat, increase resources, and reduce competition, leading to a diversified, dynamic ecosystem that can withstand further environmental changes or stresses. The carbon cycle, nutrient cycling, and hydrological cycle are other important ecosystem services provided by natural disturbances, which play a critical role in regulating the environment and maintaining ecosystem stability.

Consequently, natural disturbances, such as wildfires, floods, storms, and droughts, are essential for maintaining the health and resilience of natural ecosystems. Therefore, the best way to ensure ecosystem sustainability is to maintain a balance between human activities and natural disturbances.

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Pain that start at colicky and than localized to RUQ with anorexia and nausea may be sign of which of the following gastrointestinal disease? DiverticulitisGERDcholecystisAppendictis

Answers

Pain that starts colicky and then localizes to the right upper quadrant with anorexia and nausea may be a sign of cholecystitis.

The gastrointestinal disease that may cause pain that starts colicky and then localizes to the right upper quadrant with anorexia and nausea is cholecystitis. Cholecystitis is a disease that affects the gallbladder. The gallbladder is a tiny organ beneath the liver that stores the bile that is needed to digest fatty meals.

When the gallbladder becomes infected or inflamed, this is known as cholecystitis. The symptoms of cholecystitis can include Constant pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen that can radiate to the shoulder blades, especially after eating fatty meals. Nausea, Vomiting, Fever, Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes (jaundice).

Cholecystitis can be either acute or chronic. In acute cholecystitis, the symptoms appear suddenly and are severe. The symptoms of chronic cholecystitis are less severe and occur more frequently over a more extended period. The treatment for cholecystitis is usually surgery to remove the gallbladder, known as a cholecystectomy.

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What are the strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Answers

There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

Strain gravisStrain intermediusStrain mitisStrain Belfanti

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pathogenic gram-positive bacterium that causes diphtheria in humans. It is rod-shaped, non-motile, non-sporing, and non-capsulated. There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, each characterized by the type of toxin produced:

Strain gravis: Produces the most potent diphtheria toxin and is responsible for the most severe cases of diphtheria.Strain intermedius: Produces an intermediate amount of toxin and can cause moderate to severe diphtheria.Strain mitis: Produces the least amount of toxin and generally causes milder cases of diphtheria.Strain belfanti: A rare strain that has been isolated from a single case of diphtheria and produces a unique toxin that differs from those produced by the other strains.

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2.
PART B: Which TWO sentences from the article best support the answers to Part A?
"Fingerprints probably represent the best-known example of a feature
useful in biometrics." (Paragraph 5)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern ...
potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)
"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the
skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as
brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)
"Health officials tap into this file, using the fingerprint scanner, to
accurately identify which children still need vaccinating..." (Paragraph 40)
"Using biometrics to keep kids healthy, log onto electronic devices and
catch criminals are important applications." (Paragraph 42)
"We eventually want to use facial recognition in robots that can identify
who you are." (Paragraph 44)

Answers

Answer:

The best two sentences that support the answers to Part A are:

"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it indicates that any unique feature of the body can be used for biometric identification, including features like the pattern of veins in the hand.

"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it explains that people who have worked with rough materials for many years may have worn down their fingerprints, making it more difficult to use fingerprints for biometric identification.

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Suppose the systolic blood pressure (in mm) of adult males has an approximately normal distribution with mean μμ =125 and standard deviation σσ =14. Create an empirical rule graph with the following: A title and label for the horizontal axis including units. Vertical lines for the mean and first 3 standard deviations in each direction with numerical labels on the horizontal axis Labels for the areas of the 8 regions separated by the vertical lines as well. Note: This may be hand drawn or computer generated. See the models for desired formats. Now use your graph to answer the following questions. b. About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between what amounts? ______ and _____ c. What percentage of men will have a systolic blood pressure outside the range 111 mm to 153 mm?

Answers

Option a) Empirical rule graph b) About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 83 mm and 167 mm. c) 0.3  percentage of men will have a systolic blood pressure outside the range 111 mm to 153 mm.

A graph to represent the systolic blood pressure of adult males with a mean of 125 mm and standard deviation of 14 mm will have a horizontal axis labelled with "Systolic Blood Pressure (mm)" and the vertical lines for the mean, the first 3 standard deviations below the mean, and the first 3 standard deviations above the mean labelled with numerical values. The 8 regions between the vertical lines will be labeled accordingly: μ-3σ, μ-2σ, μ-σ, μ, μ+σ, μ+2σ, μ+3σ, and μ+4σ.

Systolic blood pressure of adult males is approximately normally distributed with mean μ = 125 and standard deviation σ = 14.

We can find the data points for the horizontal axis by using the empirical rule. The empirical rule states that for a normal distribution:

About 68% of the data is within 1 standard deviation of the mean μ. ( μ ± σ)

About 95% of the data is within 2 standard deviations of the mean μ. ( μ ± 2σ)

About 99.7% of the data is within 3 standard deviations of the mean μ. ( μ ± 3σ)

Using these data points, we can create the following empirical rule graph:

Horizontal axis label: Systolic Blood Pressure (mm)

Vertical lines (labeled with standard deviations and the mean):

μ - 3σ = 83,

μ - 2σ = 97,

μ - σ = 111,

μ = 125,

μ + σ = 139,

μ + 2σ = 153,

μ + 3σ = 167

Label for areas of the 8 regions:

Region 1: 68% of data;

Region 2: 95% of data;

Region 3: 99.7% of data;

Region 4: 0.15% of data;

Region 5: 2.5% of data;

Region 6: 16% of data;

Region 7: 2.5% of data;

Region 8: 0.15% of data

b) About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 83 mm and 167 mm. This is because 99.7% of data lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean μ.

c) We can use the empirical rule graph for finding the percentage of men that will have systolic blood pressure outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm. This range includes the data in Region 5, Region 6, and Region 7.

Thus, the percentage of men that will have systolic blood pressure outside this range is given by:

Percentage = Region 4 + Region 8

                   = 0.15% + 0.15% = 0.3%

Thus, about 0.3% of men will have systolic blood pressure outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm.

About 99.7% of men will have blood pressure between 60 mm and 190 mm. The percentage of men outside the range of 111 mm to 153 mm will be about 0.3%.

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A person with type O blood has _______.a. neither A nor B agglutinogensb. O antigensc. O agglutininsd. neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins

Answers

Type O blood does not contain either A or B agglutinogens. Antigens are another name for agglutinogens.

What agglutinins are present in blood types O?

Plasma from people with Type O blood contains agglutinins (antibodies) a and b. Any type A blood cells that might enter the circulatory system are assisted by antibody A in being destroyed by the body. Any type B blood cells that might enter the circulation system are helped by antibody b to be destroyed by the body.

Is Type O capable of producing B agglutinin?

As a result, in humans, type O has neither antigen nor agglutinin, type A has both antigens (A and B), type B has both antigens (B and A), and type AB has neither antigen nor agglutinin. also see blood typing.

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suppose all poaching could be stopped and no more elephants would be slaughtered for Tusk ivory. what would future populations of African forest elephants look like? would any elephants be Born tuskless? explain.

Answers

Comparing historical videos to contemporary footage revealed an increase from 19% to 51% in the percentage of female elephants lacking tusks, despite the population declining.

TuskThirty percent of females born after the war lack tusks.A pair of information chromosomes—XX for females and XY for males—determines the sex of mammals. The Princeton biologists hypothesized that the tuskless feature was connected to the X since tusks are almost universally present in male elephants. If the genes responsible for developing tusks are fatal when found on a male's single X chromosome, a female with two Xs may be saved provided they inherit one healthy copy of the gene. Such theory is supported by the tuskless trait's genetic inheritance pattern.

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T/F: cell division in both bacterial and eukaryotic cells produces genetically cells.

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True. Prokaryotes reproduce via binary fission, which is a rather simple process. Each copy of a single chromosome attaches to a different location on the cell membrane when it multiplies.

Following this, the cell membrane begins to invade, ultimately dividing into two genetically identical bacteria. Similar methods are used to replicate mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, although the process is more challenging overall.

Mitosis, which involves dividing into two genetically identical cells, is the process by which eukaryotic cells replicate themselves. Mitosis is the process by which new cells are produced during the embryonic development and after birth, as well as by which cells that have died or shed are replaced. In humans, some cells can keep dividing even after death. These "stem cells" multiply through mitosis to produce daughter cells.

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indentify if the following is: an independant clause, a dependent clause, or a phrase. smashing into the care

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""Smashing into the car" is a phrase. It does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a sentence.

What is a sentence ?.

It typically includes a subject, which is the person, place, thing, or idea the sentence is about, and a predicate, which is the action or description that is being performed or stated about the subject. A sentence can be simple, containing just one independent clause, or it can be complex, containing multiple clauses joined together. Sentences can be used to make statements, ask questions, give commands, or express strong emotions.

What is a Smashing ?

As a verb, "smashing" means to break or crush something violently into small pieces.

As an adjective, "smashing" means excellent, impressive, or attractive.

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which animal was responsible for a 99% drop in the opossum populations in the everglades by 2012?(1 point) responses fox fox wading bird wading bird whooping crane whooping crane python

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The invasive Burmese python was responsible for about 99% drop in the opossum populations in the Everglades by 2012. Native to Southeast Asia, this large snake population was released into the Everglades by human populations, and it has since then wreaked havoc on the local wildlife of the ecosystem. Thus, the correct option will be python.

What is the opossums population?

Opossums are the small to medium-sized marsupials which are found primarily in the North and South American regions. They are known for their distinct appearances, as well as their ability to play dead, which has led to the use of the term "playing possum" to describe someone pretending to be dead.

The python in the Everglades: The Burmese python is a species of python that is native to Southeast Asia. It was brought to Florida in the 1980s as a pet but has since become an invasive species in the Everglades. The pythons pose a serious threat to the ecosystem in the region. They are capable of killing and eating a variety of animals, including small mammals like opossums, which led to a 99% decline in their populations by 2012.

Therefore, the correct option will be python.

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