Considering that Keandrea's supervisor supports the idea and wants to know the details quickly, she should use the organizational style known as a direct pattern.
What is the direct pattern?The direct pattern is a structure that follows the standard format of opening, main content, and closing. It's called the direct pattern because it delivers the main content right away. This style is ideal for good news or straightforward situations. It is most commonly used in letters, report, memos, and emails.
In the case presented, it is recommended that Keandrea uses the direct pattern because it can explain to the supervisor the details and main ideas quickly and effectively, so that the supervisor can learn the details in a short time.
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for this question, you should draw the as/ad diagram on your own paper, and use your diagram to find the answer. what happens to gdp deflator and real gdp if there is a rise in the price of oil? g
If there is a rise in the price of oil, the GDP deflator will increase as the prices of goods and services increase and the purchasing power of a given money amount decreases. This will result in an increase in the nominal GDP, but a decrease in real GDP as the increase in prices will outweigh the increase in output. As a result, the real GDP will decrease.
What is real GDP?
The effect of a rise in oil prices on the GDP deflator and the real GDP. The GDP deflator is used to calculate the inflation rate by comparing real GDP and nominal GDP.
Real GDP is a measure of the economy's actual output in terms of purchasing power, whereas nominal GDP is a measure of the economy's output at current prices. Oil is a critical element in any economy because it is used in nearly every aspect of production.
The GDP deflator will rise as the price of oil increases. It is because the rise in oil prices causes a rise in the cost of production, which results in a rise in the price level.
A rise in the price level results in an increase in nominal GDP. Real GDP, on the other hand, does not shift since it represents the actual output produced by an economy, not the price level.
A rise in the price of oil causes a decline in real GDP if it is significant enough to disrupt production. Higher oil prices will raise the cost of production, lowering the level of aggregate supply in the short run. As a result, real GDP declines.
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____ will work extreme hours and expect their subordinates to do the same.
a) The Natural
b) The Politician
c) The Micromanager
d) The Workaholic
The Workaholic will work extreme hours and expect their subordinates to do the same. Option D is the correct answer.
The term "workaholic" typically refers to an individual who is excessively dedicated to their work and spends long hours at the office or working from home. They often prioritize work over other aspects of their life, such as family, friends, and hobbies.
As a result, workaholics may expect their subordinates to adopt a similar work ethic and put in long hours, even if it's not necessary or healthy. They may also struggle to delegate tasks or trust others to complete work to their standards, leading to micromanagement tendencies.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
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A high degree of match between the capacity to provide the program or service and the demand for the program or service minimizes _________________ and the need for a wait list.
A high degree of match between the capacity to provide the program or service and the demand for the program or service minimizes "overbooking" and the need for a wait list.
What is the importance of capacity in service operations? In service operations, capacity is one of the most critical elements. An organization's capacity represents its ability to create output, such as goods or services, within a specified time frame. Service capacity is the number of customers that can be served at a time by a service system. If the organization has too much or too little capacity, the outcomes may be devastating to the organization's operations. Therefore, it is essential to provide a program or service with a high degree of match between the capacity to provide it and the demand for it, as this will minimize overbooking and the need for a waitlist. Overbooking occurs when an organization exceeds its capacity and accepts more customers than it can accommodate, resulting in dissatisfied customers who must wait to be served or who are not served at all. Conversely, if an organization has too little capacity, it may not be able to satisfy customer demand, resulting in lost sales or business opportunities. Therefore, appropriate service capacity management is critical for an organization's success.
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The price of lumber, a commodity, rises drastically due to the effect of heavy winter weather in the American Northwest, where much of the world\'s lumber is grown.
from that scenario, will there be an increase or decrease in short-run aggregate supply, or if there will be no change?
In the given scenario, the rise in price of lumber due to heavy winter weather in the American Northwest, where much of the world's lumber is grown, will lead to a decrease in short-run aggregate supply.
What is short-run aggregate supply? Aggregate supply is the total supply of goods and services in the economy that will be produced at a given price level over a period of time. The short-run aggregate supply (SAS) is the total output produced by all companies in the economy within the short-term. It is the sum of all goods and services produced in an economy within a limited period, such as a year.The short-run aggregate supply curve (SAS) is a graphical representation of the amount of real output that will be produced in the economy during a specific period of time, such as a year, depending on the price level. It's derived by plotting the amount of output that firms are willing and able to produce at various price levels.Due to heavy winter weather in the American Northwest, the cost of lumber, which is a commodity, has increased. The rise in price of lumber in the given scenario will lead to a decrease in short-run aggregate supply since production costs are increasing. As a result, the price of goods and services will rise, lowering the supply of goods and services produced in the short run. In the short run, the quantity of output produced in the economy is influenced by the cost of labor, natural resources, capital stock, and the cost of borrowed funds. Because the cost of lumber has risen in the given scenario, the cost of raw materials has increased, resulting in higher production costs. As a result, there will be a decrease in the short-run aggregate supply.
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because of a change in the required rate of return from 11 percent to 13 percent, the bond price of a zero-coupon bond will fall from $1,000 to $860. thus, the bond price elasticity for this bond is
Because of a change in the required rate of return from 11 percent to 13 percent, the bond price of a zero-coupon bond will fall from $1,000 to $860. Therefore, the bond price elasticity for this bond is -1.16.
How to find the bond price elasticity?The formula for calculating bond price elasticity is:
P = ((P₁ - P₀) / ((P₁ + P₀) / 2)) / ((Y₁ - Y₀) / ((Y₁ + Y₀) / 2))
Where:
P₀ = Initial price of the bond
P₁ = New price of the bond
Y₀ = Initial yield to maturity of the bond
Y₁ = New yield to maturity of the bond
Given:
P₀ = $1,000
P₁ = $860
Y₀ = 11%
Y₁ = 13%
Substituting the given values into the formula we will get the bond price elasticity for this bond is -1.16
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why is it so important for your credit report to be completely accurate?
It is important for your credit report to be completely accurate because it affects your ability to obtain credit, loans, or even a job in the future. Inaccuracies on your credit report can result in higher interest rates, being denied credit, and even legal issues.
A credit report is a detailed report that shows an individual's credit history. It contains information about how much credit they have been given, how much they have used, and how much they have paid back.
Credit reports are utilized by lenders, credit card companies, and other financial institutions to determine the risk associated with lending an individual money or credit. These reports help companies determine if an individual is a reliable borrower, and it also helps them determine the terms and conditions of lending money or credit.
If there are errors on a credit report, a lender may think the individual is a riskier borrower than they actually are, which could result in higher interest rates, being denied credit, and even legal issues. Therefore, it is essential that credit reports be accurate.
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Absorption costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a ______ cost.a. promotion
b. profit
c. price
d. product
Absorption costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a option (d) product
Absorption costing is a method of accounting for the cost of producing a product that includes all direct costs (such as direct materials and direct labor) and indirect costs (such as manufacturing overhead) associated with the production of that product.. In absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead costs are considered to be a product cost because they are part of the cost of producing a unit of product.
This means that fixed manufacturing overhead costs are absorbed into the cost of each unit of product, along with variable manufacturing costs such as direct materials and direct labor.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) product.
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What to look for when hiring a creative director?
When hiring a creative director, it is important to look for certain qualities and qualifications such as a strong portfolio, leadership skills, effective communication, adaptability, problem-solving abilities, industry knowledge, strong collaboration skills, attention to detail, and time management skills.
When hiring a creative director, you should look for the following qualities:
1. Strong portfolio: Review their past work to ensure they have a solid background in design, branding, and creative direction.
2. Leadership skills: A creative director must be able to effectively lead and manage a team of designers, writers, and other creative professionals.
3. Effective communication: They should be able to clearly articulate their ideas and vision to both their team and clients.
4. Adaptability: A good creative director can adapt to changing trends and be open to new ideas and technologies.
5. Problem-solving abilities: They should be able to identify challenges and develop creative solutions to overcome them.
6. Industry knowledge: A strong understanding of the industry they will be working in is essential for creating effective campaigns and designs.
7. Strong collaboration skills: The creative director should be able to work well with others, including clients and team members, to achieve the best results.
8. Attention to detail: High-quality work requires a keen eye for detail and consistency in design elements.
9. Time management skills: The ability to prioritize tasks and meet deadlines is crucial for the successful completion of projects.
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if a person spends $10 a week on coffee (assume $500 a year), what would be the future value of that amount over 6 years if the funds were deposited in an account earning 3 percent?
Answer:
The future value (FV) is the total value of the investment at the end of the period. The future value is calculated by combining the initial investment with the interest earned over the period.
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the future value is:
FV = PV × (1 + r)n
Where FV is the future value; PV is the present value; r is the interest rate; n is the number of compounding periods
Since the person spends $10 on coffee per week or $500 per year, the present value is $500. Also, the interest rate is 3%, and the number of compounding periods is 6 years. Therefore, we can calculate the future value as:
FV [tex]= PV × (1 + r)^n[/tex]
[tex]= $500 × (1 + 0.03)6[/tex]
[tex]= $500 × 1.191[/tex]
[tex]= $595.50[/tex]
Therefore, the future value of $500 deposited in an account earning 3 percent after 6 years is $595.50.
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Trung and Dylan are business partners. Their company, Grow iO, develops pesticide-resistant seeds. They initially started the business with their savings. However, now the company plans to expand its operations, and the required amount of capital cannot be raised through savings or by reinvesting profits. Thus, the partners have decided to sell stock in their business to family members, friends, and employees. Which of the following sources of capital have Trung and Dylan planned to use for the expansion of their business?
Multiple Choice
A. debt financing
B. bootstrapping
C. equity financing
D. mortgaging
E. factoring
Trung and Dylan have planned to use Equity financing for the expansion of their business. The correct answer is C. equity financing.
It can be venture capital (VC) or angel investor in order to raise funds for business expansion. Equity financing, unlike debt financing, does not require a regular payment of interest or principal, making it a better option for businesses with uncertain future cash flows.
In the scenario given, the partners have decided to sell stock in their business to family members, friends, and employees. This process is known as equity financing. So, the correct answer is C. equity financing.
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all accounts that appear in the balance sheet, including retained earnings, are permanent accounts, and we carry forward their balances from period to period. group startstrue or falsetrue, unselectedfalse, selected
True. All accounts that appear in the balance sheet, including retained earnings, are permanent accounts, and we carry forward their balances from period to period.
A balance sheet is a financial statement that summarizes a company's assets, liabilities, and equity. The balance sheet is a snapshot of the company's financial position at a single point in time, detailing what the company owns (assets), what it owes (liabilities), and the value of shareholder equity.
Balance sheet accounts are classified into two categories: permanent accounts and temporary accounts. The accounts that appear in the balance sheet are permanent accounts, while the accounts that appear in the income statement and statement of cash flows are temporary accounts.
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You purchase a drone while on vacation in a country outside the U.S. The drone is registered in the foreign country where you purchased it. Upon returning home:
A) You have 14 days to register the drone in the U.S.
B) You must first de-register the drone in the foreign country and then register it in the U.S.
C) You can leave the drone registered in the foreign country but must register it in the U.S.
The correct answer is B) You must first de-register the drone in the foreign country and then register it in the U.S. According to the Federal Aviation Administration, any drone purchased in a foreign country must be de-registered from the foreign country and registered in the U.S. within 14 days of returning home. This is to ensure that the drone is compliant with the aviation laws and regulations in the U.S.
A drone is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV), also known as an unmanned aerial system (UAS), a remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS), or a drone for short. It is a type of aircraft that does not have a human pilot aboard, instead using a remote control to fly or navigate. A drone's use varies for commercial, scientific, military, and recreational purposes.
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Which of the following is least likely to be the result of economic disruptive patterns caused by a prolonged period of government budget deficits?
A. high inflation
B. substantial inflows of foreign financial capital
C. increasing exchange rates
D. strains on a country's financial system
"Substantial inflows of foreign financial capital" is least likely to be the result of economic disruptive patterns caused by a prolonged period of government budget deficits. Option B is the correct answer.
Prolonged periods of government budget deficits may result in a rise in inflation, an increase in exchange rates, and strains on a country's financial system due to the high government borrowing. However, such situations are unlikely to attract substantial inflows of foreign financial capital because the investment risks become higher as the government's fiscal position deteriorates.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
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To eliminate an AD shortfall of $120 billion when the economy has an MPC of 0.75, the government should decrease taxes by:a. $400 billionb. $120 billionc. $30 billiond. $40 billione. none of the above
To eliminate an AD shortfall of $120 billion when the economy has an MPC of 0.75, the government should decrease taxes by $30 billion. (option c)
To eliminate an AD (Aggregate Demand) shortfall of $120 billion when the economy has an MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) of 0.75, the government should decrease taxes by:
Change in aggregate demand = 1 / (1 - MPC) x Change in autonomous spending
where MPC = 0.75 and Change in aggregate demand = AD shortfall = $120 billion
Therefore, the equation becomes:
$120 billion = 1 / (1 - 0.75) x Change in autonomous spending
$120 billion = 4 x Change in autonomous spending
Change in autonomous spending = $30 billion
Since the government wants to decrease taxes to eliminate the AD shortfall, the decrease in taxes should be equal to the change in autonomous spending, which is $30 billion. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) $30 billion.
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a. What is gross domestic product (GDP)? Calculate each component’s share of GDP.b. Suppose government spending increases to 150, but the other components of GDP do not change. What is government spending’s share of GDP now? What is the new nongovernment share?c. Suppose that the level of potential GDP (Y*) is 1,000 and is unaffected by the increase in government spending described previously. Without doing any calculations, explain in general terms what happens to C/Y*, X/Y*, and I/Y* after the government spending increase in (b).d. Describe the mechanism by which each of these changes happens.
Question a: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the sum total of all economic activity within a country over a certain period of time. It is equal to the sum of Consumption (C), Investment (I), Government Spending (G), and Net Exports (X). C/Y* = C/Y, I/Y* = I/Y, X/Y* = X/Y
Question b: After the increase in government spending to 150, the government spending’s share of GDP is now 15% and the nongovernment share is 85%.
Question c: The increase in government spending causes C/Y*, I/Y*, and X/Y* to decrease since the government spending increases while C, I, and X do not change.
Question d: The mechanism by which C/Y*, I/Y*, and X/Y* decrease is through an increase in the denominator, GDP. Since only the numerator (C, I, and X) remains the same, the fraction of each component relative to GDP decreases.
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Hypothesis testing is a method of using data relevant to a claim to test the likelihood that the claim is accurate. Which of the following is an ethical use of hypothesis testing in a business situation?
As an ethical business owner, you want to find out if the claims you are making about the product you market are accurate. You conduct one or more hypothesis tests to check.
You did not do something to evaluate product condition
The ethical use of hypothesis testing in a business situation is to find out if the claims being made about the product are accurate. Hypothesis testing is a way of determining whether or not a hypothesis is accurate.
Hypothesis testing is an important tool for businesses, as it allows them to test their ideas and theories about the market and the products they sell. This can help businesses to make better decisions about how to market and sell their products, as well as identify potential areas for improvement. It involves a set of statistical methods used to determine whether or not an effect or relationship is real, based on data.
In conclusion, an ethical use of hypothesis testing in a business situation is to test the accuracy of claims made about the product.
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If the project manager changes an activity on the critical path to start at a later date, then the whole project will end at a later date. a. True b. False.
When the project manager changes an activity on the critical path to start at a later date, then the whole project will end at a later date. This statement is true.
A critical path is defined as the series of connected activities that determine the project’s completion date. The critical path is the longest duration path through the network, and it determines the shortest time to complete the project. It is essential to understand the critical path to complete the project on time.A delay in the critical path will cause the project completion date to slip. The critical path will be changed if there is a delay in any activity, causing the whole project to end at a later date. The critical path will change to the new series of connected activities, which will determine the new project completion date.The critical path method (CPM) is used to manage the project schedule. It is a planning tool used to calculate the project's duration and its critical path. The CPM is used to calculate the project duration and the expected completion date. The CPM is essential for project management and control.The critical path method is a useful tool for managing and controlling project schedules. The CPM is used to determine the duration of the project, the critical path, and the expected completion date. A delay in the critical path can cause the project to end at a later date, and a change in the critical path will determine the new project completion date.
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serious and costly business scandals led to the passage of a federal statute known as the sarbanes-oxley act. one specific profession targeted by the act is: blank .
Serious and costly business scandals led to the passage of a federal statute known as the sarbanes-oxley act. One specific profession targeted by the act is the auditing profession.
What is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, also known as the Public Company Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act of 2002, is a federal statute passed in response to a number of serious and costly corporate scandals in the United States, most notably the Enron scandal. It is one of the most far-reaching securities legislation enacted since the U.S. Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. It was passed with the intention of reforming corporate governance and accountability, as well as boosting transparency in financial reporting and business practices.
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act aims to safeguard the interests of investors by requiring higher levels of transparency and accountability among corporations that have publicly traded shares. It was targeted primarily at auditing firms, which were accused of not properly auditing the financial statements of their clients. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act has improved corporate governance by requiring public companies to adopt various procedures and checks to prevent corporate fraud, and it has also established more stringent internal controls over financial reporting.
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In the context of cash flow analysis, _____ are a useful measure as a means to evaluate performance when there is a separation between managers and owners.
In the context of cash flow analysis, Return on investment (ROI) is a useful measure as a means to evaluate performance when there is a separation between managers and owners.
ROI (Return on investment) is a financial metric that assesses the efficiency of an investment or compares the efficiency of several investments.
ROI can be used to compare the costs and benefits of any investment, including money, time, and resources.
ROI is a financial performance measure that calculates the percentage return on an investment relative to its cost. ROI takes into account both the gain from an investment and the cost of the investment.
It is a popular metric for evaluating performance in the context of cash flow analysis when there is a separation between managers and owners.
The formula for calculating ROI is simple:
ROI = Net Profit / Cost of Investment
This indicates that ROI is equal to the net profit of an investment divided by the cost of the investment. This ratio is normally expressed as a percentage or a ratio.
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step 1: establish the need for marketing research a. this tells the researcher exactly how to obtain information necessary to allow the manager to choose between decision alternatives.
Step 1 tells the researcher exactly how to obtain information necessary to allow the manager to choose between decision alternatives.
Step 1: Establish the need for marketing research. Establishing the need for marketing research is the first step in the marketing research process.
The following are the sub-steps involved in the establishment of the need for marketing research:
Define the problem:The first step in establishing the need for marketing research is to define the problem, which means identifying the gap between what is expected and what is happening right now.
Identify the information needed:The next step is to identify the information that is required to address the research problem.
Determine the sources of data:The third step is to determine the sources of data that will be required to address the research problem.
Design research method:The fourth step is to design the research method that will be used to collect the data.
Step 1 tells the researcher exactly how to obtain information necessary to allow the manager to choose between decision alternatives.
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To record a bill payment that is made immediately with a credit card when the product or service is received, use the following onscreen form:
a. Pay Bill
b. Check
c. Bill
d. Expense
A Bill of Lading documents a service that the business has received and is obligated to pay the vendor later. An expense form keeps track of costs that were paid at the time a product was produced.
What is the name of the source document used in a transaction demanding quick payment?A debit note is a document that either a seller uses to remind a buyer of ongoing debt responsibilities or a buyer creates when returning items they borrowed. There may be information concerning an immediate payment on the debit note.
What does it mean in accounting to record a transaction in a debit credit form?Double-entry bookkeeping is a system of documenting transactions in which an entry is made as a debit or credit to at least two accounts for each business transaction.
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Phineas is comparing the innovation characteristics of his company’s water filters with those that are already being marketed in the local market. He believes there is lot of potential for his filters as they are functionally more advanced, have a longer life, and can also be marketed at a more competitive price than those of other sellers in the local market. The innovation characteristic of Phineas’s product that will help in wide acceptance of his product in the local market is its
a. trialability
b. complexity
c. observability
d. compatibility
e. relative advantage
The innovation characteristic of Phineas’s product that will help in wide acceptance of his product in the local market is its option e. relative advantage.
Relative advantage is one of the innovation characteristics that represents the degree to which a new product is perceived as better than the existing product by customers and due to competitive price, customers are more attracted to it. When the new product has a significant relative advantage over the existing products in the market, it is more likely to be accepted by the customers.
Trialability is another innovation characteristic that represents the degree to which an innovation can be experimented on a limited basis. It is believed that innovations that are easily and inexpensively tried will be adopted faster.
Observability is another innovation characteristic that represents the degree to which the result of an innovation is visible to others. It is believed that when an innovation is highly visible, the likelihood of adoption increases.
Complexity is another innovation characteristic that represents the degree to which an innovation is easy to understand and use.
Compatibility is another innovation characteristic that represents the degree to which an innovation is consistent with the needs, values, and experiences of potential adopters. It is believed that innovations that are consistent with the values and experiences of the potential adopters will be more likely to be adopted.
Hence, relative advantage (option e.) is the innovation characteristic which will help Phineas in wide acceptance of his product.
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a prestigious investment bank designed a new security that pays a quarterly dividend of $2.50 in perpetuity. the first dividend occurs one quarter from today. what is the price of the security if the apr is 3.7 percent compounded quarterly?
If the APR is 3.7 percent compounded quarterly, the price of the security is $270.27.
The price of a perpetuity is the sum of an infinite geometric series, which can be calculated using the following formula:
P = D / r
Where:
P = price of the security
D = the periodic dividend payment
r = the periodic interest rate
In this case, the periodic dividend payment is $2.50 per quarter, and the periodic interest rate is 3.7% per year, compounded quarterly. To convert the annual interest rate to a quarterly rate, we divide by 4:
r = 3.7% / 4 = 0.925%
Substituting the given values into the formula for the price of a perpetuity:
P = $2.50 / 0.00925
P = $270.27
Therefore, the price of the security is $270.27.
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stripped bonds are bonds whose cash flows have been transformed into a security representing the principal payment only and a security representing interest payments only. a. true b. false
The statement "Stripped bonds are bonds whose cash flows have been transformed into a security representing the principal payment only and a security representing interest payments only" is True.
Stripped bonds, also known as stripped coupon bonds or zero-coupon bonds, are bonds that have had their coupon payments (the interest payment) separated from the principal repayment.
Stripped bonds have several advantages over other types of fixed-income securities.
One of the most significant benefits is that they are more liquid than regular bonds, which can be difficult to trade due to their large size and complexity.
They also offer a higher degree of flexibility, allowing investors to tailor their investment portfolios to meet their specific needs.
Stripped bonds provide a more predictable income stream than other types of fixed-income securities, making them ideal for risk-averse investors.
Therefore, the statement is true.
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how would return on equity be different if a company were to issue $100,000 of 10% bonds instead of $100,000 in stock? assume income before interest and taxes is estimated to be $100,000, income taxes are 21% and stockholders' equity is initially $200,000. return on equity would be
If the company were to issue $100,000 of 10% bonds instead of $100,000 in stock, the return on equity would be 34.5%.
Return on equity (ROE) is a financial ratio that measures the profitability of a company by calculating the amount of net income returned as a percentage of shareholder's equity. ROE is calculated as:
ROE = Net Income / Shareholder's Equity
Assuming income before interest and taxes is estimated to be $100,000, income taxes are 21%, and stockholders' equity is initially $200,000, the net income after taxes would be:
Net Income = Income Before Taxes x (1 - Tax Rate)
Net Income = $100,000 x (1 - 0.21)
Net Income = $79,000
If the company were to issue $100,000 of 10% bonds instead of $100,000 in stock, the interest expense would be:
Interest Expense = Bond Amount x Interest Rate
Interest Expense = $100,000 x 0.10
Interest Expense = $10,000
This interest expense would be deducted from the net income before calculating the ROE. Therefore, the net income available to shareholders would be:
Net Income Available to Shareholders = Net Income - Interest Expense
Net Income Available to Shareholders = $79,000 - $10,000
Net Income Available to Shareholders = $69,000
Assuming the company issues $100,000 in bonds, the shareholder's equity would remain at $200,000, since there is no change in the amount of equity.
Using the formula for ROE, we can calculate the ROE with the bond issue as:
ROE = Net Income Available to Shareholders / Shareholder's Equity
ROE = $69,000 / $200,000
ROE = 0.345 or 34.5%
Therefore, the ROE would be 34.5% if the company were to issue $100,000 of 10% bonds instead of $100,000 in stock. This is lower than the ROE that would be obtained if the company were to issue stock, as the interest expense associated with the bonds reduces the net income available to shareholders.
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Consider the following three scenarios: 1. ABC Lawncare performed lawn maintenance services for Drake Inc. on June 1st, and received payment of $500 for those services. II. On June 1st, Melly Corp received payment for 100 pounds of raw material to be delivered to Drake Inc. in 6 months. III. Lodo, LLC collected cash on June 1st for services rendered on May 1st. Revenue cannot be recognized on June 1st for: O II, III only O I, II only III only O I, II, and III
The revenue cannot be recognized on June 1st for I, II, and III. This is because for revenue to be recognized, the performance of services or delivery of goods must be completed.
Revenue recognition is the revenue generated during the normal activities of a business. Income itself represents one element of the basic accounting equation: capital.
In scenario 1, ABC Lawncare performed the service and was paid, so revenue can be recognized. In scenario 2, the raw material has not been delivered yet, so revenue cannot be recognized yet. In scenario 3, the services were rendered on May 1st, but payment was not collected until June 1st, so revenue cannot be recognized until June 1st.
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which of the following are challenges potentially presented by alliances or joint ventures? (a) partners may have different goals and priorities; (b) one partner may absorb all the knowhow of the other and subsequently become a competitor; (c) they tend to break down when one of the partners attempts to expand into an emerging market.
The right answer is option C because this is what usually happens when one of the partners tries to expand into a developing market.
What drawbacks exist with joint ventures?A joint venture is a popular way to combine the resources of two firms that are otherwise unrelated in order to fulfill a project or objective while minimizing costs and distributing the associated risk.
Joint ventures between businesses are typically transient alliances.
Unless a distinct legal body is established specifically for the joint venture, the contract that creates joint ventures exposes each company to the liability that comes with a partnership.
Despite the fact that joint-venture partners share control, work processes and resource allocation are not necessarily distributed equally .
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a single-business diversification strategy and a dominant-business diversification strategy are both examples of what level of diversification? a. moderate to high level b. very high level c. low level d. very low level
A single-business diversification strategy and a dominant-business diversification strategy are both examples of a low level of diversification. Alternative b is correct.
Low-level diversification refers to a strategy in which a company operates within a single industry or market, and generates most of its revenue from a single product or service line.
A single-business diversification strategy involves expanding into related products or services within the same industry, while a dominant-business diversification strategy involves expanding into products or services that are related to the core business, but still represent a small proportion of overall revenue.
In conclusion, alternative b. low level is correct.
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suppose that typically you pay $10 for an uber ride to work. today, you take the same trip, but find that the price has risen to $12. which of the following options could result in the price change above? (select all that apply) a. there is an increase in the number of uber drivers available. b. a local convention has increased traffic in the area, resulting in a longer travel time for your trip. c. gas prices have significantly risen in the past day. d. the price of taxi cab rides has fallen.
The only option that could result in the price change is c. Gas prices have significantly risen in the past day.
Gas prices are affected by the production cost, crude oil prices, local taxes, and supply and demand in the market. Gas prices can be volatile and often fluctuate. When gas prices increase, it can result in the rise in the price of a ride share, taxi, or bus ride. The price change could be either temporary or permanent.
When gas prices rise, companies that provide ride-sharing services such as Uber and Lyft increase the fares to offset the high fuel costs, which would affect their bottom line. Options A, B, and D are irrelevant and cannot result in the price change above.
Option A: There is an increase in the number of Uber drivers available. The number of drivers on the road does not affect the price of a ride, and it has no effect on supply and demand. It is the price mechanism that affects supply and demand.
Option B: A local convention has increased traffic in the area, resulting in a longer travel time for your trip. An increase in traffic does not affect the price of a ride. The fares are based on the distance covered and not the travel time.
Option D: The price of taxicab rides has fallen. A decrease in the price of taxicab rides does not affect the price of an Uber ride. The two are different ride-hailing services that operate differently.
So, the only option guiding the forces of increase in the price of taxi fares is option c.
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a series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving from general to specific are known as _____ questions. multiple choice: A)rapport-building B) funnel C) probing D) closed E) solution-oriented
A series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving from general to specific are known as solution-oriented questions.
What are solution-oriented questions? Solution-oriented questions is a method for examining issues and generating alternatives. It's a process of asking questions that are meant to identify potential solutions or improvements to a current issue. Solution-oriented questioning leads to answers that can lead to the development of an action plan that addresses the issue.
These types of questions concentrate on current and future results, with the goal of developing solutions rather than dwelling on problems. Solution-oriented questioning emphasizes collaboration, positive thinking, and the use of strengths to achieve goals.
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