Answer:
The primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle are:
-Type 2 diabetes
-Obesity
-A stroke
-Hypertension
-Cancer
-Osteoporosis
-Heart problems
Explanation:
A poor diet and sedentary lifestyle impact our health. The lack of nutrients and the excess of chemicals, fat, or carbohydrates in our diets causes chronic diseases, that is to say, diseases that are not produced by a virus or bacteria. A person with an unhealthy diet and a lack of physical activity to help the body process and expel the toxins in our body have a higher probability of having one or more chronic diseases such as obesity, hypertension, diabetes type 2, cancer, osteoporosis, or strokes.
Al is a senior citizen who has been experiencing more and more loss of his peripheral vision. His primary care physician recently diagnosed him with glaucoma and has sent him to see a specialist. What treatment would the specialist MOST LIKELY prescribed to receive the effects of glaucoma?
a. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors that increase fluid production in the eyes to hydrate the conjunctiva
b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
c. topical antibiotics administered directly to the eyes, killing the bacteria that caused the infection
d. topical anti-inflammatory drugs that can penetrate into the eye and reduce swelling of the eye's components
Answer:
I think b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
Explanation:
For example timolol
True or false: It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of pneumonia were due to complications stemming from CGD.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
thats the correct answer
It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of were due to complications stemming from CGD is True.
Are neutrophils part of the adaptive immune system?Neutrophils are capable of modulating adaptive immune reaction through interactions with T, B cells and possibly APCs.
Thus, the correct option is true.
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For a patient who is being treated for multiple sclerosis, immunosuppressants may be prescribed for the purpose of
a. suppressing information damage to neurons.
b. stimulating neurotransmitter levels at the nerve-muscle junction.
c. preventing MAO from breaking down dopamine.
d. acting on receptors in the brain stem to stimulate impulses.
Answer:
I think stimulating neurotransmitter levels at the nerve-muscle junction
Explanation:
Because it is caused by major nerve damage
write any two safety measures of eyes
Answer:
1.We should always wash our eyes with clean water.
2.We should wear spects when we go to place like dumping site,construction site,e.t.c.
What best describes the I in the FITT formula recommended by ACSM for cardiorespiratory fitness for healthy, active individuals
Answer: INTENSITY
Explanation: FITT formula is used for health-related fitness and was designed by The American College of Sport Medicine (ACSM).
FITT is established to put together an efficient workout plan for aspiring to be healthy and healthy individuals.
I stands for Intensity in the FITT principle. Intensity describes the level of difficulty of an exercise. Low intensity level can be adopted at the early stage of an exercise programme and gradually increased to difficult level, in other to avoid burnout.
It is measured based on numbers. The number of sets completed, amount of weight lifted or number of repetitions accomplished, while finding your target heart rate zone and Max heart rate (MHR).
Please describe what you look forward to most in your upcoming activities within the DCE.
DCE (Dynamic Contrasts Enhanced): This evaluation test is completed by health sciences students, and more specifically, nursing students.
What is DCE (Dynamic Contrasts Enhanced?Basic Steps for Evaluating the Various Patients or Subjects: In order to make the unknown entities more obvious and visible for identifying a person's position, each student gathers data pertaining to the health status of a patient or any other individual under consideration.
Gathering information on patients' history of influenza virus infection. We will learn more about the patient's medical history as it relates to that particular ailment.
Next, determine the patient's immune system's state of activation and current condition.
Therefore, DCE is the evaluation test is completed by health sciences students.
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what is hygiene in medical term
Answer:
Hygiene: The science of preventive medicine and the preservation of health. Also commonly used as a euphemism for cleanliness and proper sanitation.
Explanation:
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Learning Activity Details
American Red Cross
Training Services
00
Red Boc
After the resuscitation event, the BLS team conducted a debriefing
session to ensure continuous CPR quality improvement. Which
observation or data point suggests a need for improvement?
Select the correct answer to this question.
Joanne used closed-loop communication to confirm she received and understood
Valerie's direction
The feedback device indicated that Kirron's compression depth was between 2.1
and 2.3 inches deep.
Valerie observed signs of compressor fatigue and directed the team to switch
positions.
The chest compression fraction (CCF) was 58%.
Answer:
The correct answer is - The chest compression fraction (CCF) was 58%.
Explanation:
A client is experiencing an allergy to a penicillin antibiotic. What immunoglobulin (Ig) will most directly relate to this immune response
Answer:
The correct answer is - IgE.
Explanation:
The penicillin allergy immune response is most of the time is due to the IgE mediated and only a few times its igG mediated. IgE mediated penicillin immune response occurs within one hour while others are show delayed reactions.
IgE mediated response shows specific symptoms such as shortness of breath, red or pink color itchy patches with angioedema, and anaphylaxis.
This area reabsorbs sugar, sodium ions, chloride ions, and water; portion of the nephron between bowman's capsule and the loop of henle.
Answer:
Loop Henle
Explanation:
Loop Henle absorbs following in the PCT -
a) urea
b) water
c) potassium
d) sodium
e) chloride
f) glucose
g) amino acids
h) lactate
i) phosphate
j) bicarbonate
Hence, option D, Loop of Henle is correct
3) A 4-year-old girl who refused to have her blood collected was locked in 3 points a room by a health care worker and was forced to have her blood collected. This is an example of:
Explain the Gibbs Donnan equilibrium
30 points!!!
Match each part of the eye with the correct label.
-lens
-fovea
-iris
-vitreous gel
-macula
-optic nerve
-retina
-cornea
-pupil
Answer:
1- vitreous gel, 2- optic nerve, 3- macula, 4- fovea, 5- retina, 6- lens, 7- pupil, 8- cornea, 9- iris
Explanation:
-
que hay que hacer para la fiebre
que hay que hacer para la fiebre?
Suficiente descanso.Use ropa ligera y cómoda.Permanezca en una habitación con aire fresco.Beba mucha agua para evitar la deshidratación.Comprimir con agua tibia.Administración de fármacos, como fármacos antifebriles.Bacterial infections can be treated with penicillin or sulfonamide. true or false
Answer:
it's true
... hope it's helpful
Answer:
True
Explanation:
These drugs are effective for any gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Goodluck
Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle.
Which type of drug could help reduce Keara's symptoms?
a. An analgesic drug could reduce the bloating.
b. An antihistamine could treat the cramping.
c. A hormone agonist could treat the cramping.
d. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating.
Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating is a week before her menstrual cycle.
What is menstrual cycle?Menstruation is the eradication of the endometrium, that has the thickened lining of the uterus from the body via the vagina. The menstrual fluid has been comprises cells from the lining of the uterus, blood, and mucus.
Follicular phase as the follicular phase has been begins on the menstruation's first day and it will terminates with the evolution. It has the mediated by the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, which has been discharges FSH.
Ovulation is known as the release of the developed egg from the ovary surface. This has been generally takes the place mid-cycle, around two weeks or so the prior to the beginning of the menstruation.
Luteal phase at main time of the ovulation, the egg erupts from its follicle, however it has been ruptured in the follicle remains on the ovary surface. In the next two weeks, the follicle gets convert into the composition called corpus luteum.
Therefore, Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating is a week before her menstrual cycle.
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How would a patient take Chlomiphene, and what would the drug do?
a. She would take it orally, and it would stimulate ovulation.
b. She would have an injection, and it would stimulate ovulation.
c. She would take it orally, and it would trigger the uterus to contract.
d. She would have an injection, and it would trigger the ulterus to contract.
Answer:
a. She would take it orally, and it would stimulate ovulation
Jamal was restless early in the morning. He has a million thoughts going through his mind. Which part of bipolar disorder is he experiencing, and what should he take?
a. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antidepressants.
b. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antianxiety.
c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants.
d. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antianxiety drugs.
Answer:
I think c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants
Right Ovarian pregnancy, without intrauterine pregnancy ICD-10- CM code?
ICD-10-CM Code for Right ovarian pregnancy without intrauterine pregnancy O00. 201.
ICD-10-CM stands for the Tenth Revision of the International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification. It is a technique for categorizing illnesses and other health conditions. Right ovarian pregnancy without intrauterine pregnancy is denoted by the code O00.21.
Right ovarian pregnancy is the most common type of ovarian pregnancy where the fertilized egg implants in the ovary.
Although right ovarian pregnancy symptoms can vary, they frequently include right lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding. Surgery to remove the impacted ovary is the main form of treatment for right ovarian pregnancy.
Therefore, Right ovarian pregnancy without intrauterine pregnancy has the ICD-10-CM code O00. 201.
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Which layer of the skin would anesthetic drugs MOST LIKELY affect?
a. the epidermis
b. the dermis
c. the hypodermis
d. the endodermis
Answer:
b. the dermis
Explanation:
Topical anaesthesia effects the dermal pain
receptors and nerve endings in the epidermis
and dermis layers of the skin.
which of the following is not true of the continuous quality improvement process?
What is the main difference between acne vulgaris and acne rosacea?
a. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while vulgaris is not caused by an infection.
b. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antiviral medication, while acne vulgaris is not caused by an infection.
c. Acne vulgaris is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while acne rosacea is not caused by an infection.
d. Acne vulgarus is a result of an infection and can be treated with antiviral medication, while acne rosacea is not caused by an infection.
Answer:
a. Acne rosacea is a result of an infection and can be treated with antibiotics, while vulgaris is not caused by an infection
2. Calcule los gramos de azúcar que deben disolverse en 825 g de
agua para preparar una solución de azúcar al 20% p/p
Todo el proceso
Respuesta:
206,25 g
Explicación:
Porcentaje de masa, m = 20%
Solución = soluto + solvente
Masa de soluto = m
Disolvente = masa de agua = 825 g
Masa de la solución = m + 825
(Masa de soluto / masa de solvente) = porcentaje de masa
(m / (m + 825)) = 20%
(m / (m + 825)) = 0,2
m = 0,2 (m + 825)
m = 0,2 m + 165
m - 0,2 m = 165
0,8 m = 165
m = 165 / 0,8
m = 206,25 g
What condition refers to non-growing bacteria in the blood?
It is generally agreed that consumption of caffeine is not good for prenatal development. If Mary wants to avoid caffeine, which should she choose to drink?
Answer:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices
Explanation:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
What is Decaffinated coffees?
Coffee that has been decaffeinated is similar to ordinary coffee but contains less caffeine. Since caffeine can never be totally eliminated, decaf coffee still has a very little quantity of caffeine (around 3% compared to regular coffee), as was already explained.
For instance, a cup of regular coffee contains approximately 95 milligrams of caffeine, whereas a cup of decaf coffee contains only about 2 mg.
When carbon dioxide is forced through coffee beans, it can separate various chemical compounds, such as caffeine from coffee.
Therefore, Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
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What is the most effective way to communicate medication instructions to someone who cannot hear well?
point toward written instructions while explaining
speak loudly while explaining instructions
talk in person, rather than on the phone, to communicate
use body language to act out the instructions
Answer:
Face the hearing-impaired person directly, on the same level and in good light whenever possible.
Do not talk from another room.
Speak clearly, slowly, distinctly, but naturally, without shouting or exaggerating mouth movements.
Say the person's name before beginning a conversation.
Which parasite is transmitted through the predator-prey route?
OA
Toxocara canis
OB.
Ancylostoma caninum
O C.
lice
OD.
Echnicoccus
O E.
Trichomonas
Answer:
Toxocara canis
Explanation:
Predator prey route is the transmission method used by different protozoa. They enter the body of the prey when they eat an infected prey. They are infused in the blood of the predator and then resides there forming an infection. They overcome transmission barriers and enters the body of host.
How can diabetes insipidus be treated?
a. Drugs that block ADH receptors can be administered to help increase urination and ensure liquid processing.
b. Drugs such as corticosteroids can reduce unnecessary inflammation caused by damage to adrenal glands.
c. Hormone reduction therapy can cause the body to reabsorb hormones that are produced in excess due to tumors.
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination.
Answer:
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination
Explanation:
Central diabetes insipidus.
Typically, this form is treated with a synthetic hormone called desmopressin (DDAVP, Nocdurna). This medication replaces the missing anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and decreases urination. You can take desmopressin in a tablet, as a nasal spray or by injection
what ion is both reabsorbed and secreted by the nephron
Answer:
Sodium is one. Another is chlorine, water, protein, Glucose, Potassium. these could all be possible answers
Explanation:
Which BEST describes the association between taking benzisoxazole for schizophrenia and amoxapine for depression?
a. Both benzisoxazole and amoxapine increase serotonin levels.
b. Both benzisoxazole and amoxapine decrease serotonin levels.
c. Benzisoxazole increases serotonin levels, while amoxapine decreases serotoonin levels.
d. Benzisoxazole decreases serotonin levels, while amoxapine increases serotonin levels.
Answer:
c. Benzisoxazole increases serotonin levels, while amoxapine decreases serotoonin levels
