General transcription initiation factors in eukaryotes bind to the promoter region of the gene. The general transcription initiation factors (GTFs) in eukaryotes bind to the promoter region of the gene during transcription initiation.
The TATA box-binding protein (TBP) is one of the most well-known GTFs. It is one of the first components of the pre-initiation complex to bind to the TATA box in the promoter of the gene.
TBP is followed by a group of TBP-associated factors (TAFs) that aid in the recruitment of RNA polymerase II and other proteins necessary for transcription initiation. There are several other GTFs that are involved in the transcription initiation process in eukaryotes.
These include TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIID, TFIIE, and TFIIF. All of these GTFs have a unique role in facilitating the assembly and stabilization of the transcription initiation complex. Together, they ensure that the correct gene is transcribed at the appropriate time and in the appropriate cell type.
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if you mate a dog with a bbee genotype to a dog with a bbee genotype, what percent of each phenotype would you expect over the course of many litters?
If you mate a dog with a bbee genotype to a dog with a bbee genotype, you can expect 25% of each phenotype over the course of many litters.
What is a phenotype?A phenotype is an observable characteristic that arises from an individual's genotype. For example, the color of an individual's eyes, fur, or feathers is a phenotype, as is their ability to taste certain foods or produce specific enzymes. The phenotype is determined by the genotype, or the genetic makeup, of an individual.
How are phenotypes determined?A single gene or a group of genes determines an organism's phenotype. The expression of a gene is referred to as its genotype, while the physical, observable characteristics that arise as a result of that expression are referred to as the phenotype.
A Punnett square is a tool used to calculate the possible results of a genetic cross between two parents with known genotypes. A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of each phenotype or genotype for their offspring when given the parents' genotypes.
In the question, the two parent dogs have a Bbee genotype, which implies they both possess one dominant B allele and one recessive b allele, as well as two copies of the recessive e allele. A Punnett square can be used to determine the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring. When crossing the two parent dogs in the Punnett square, the following results are obtained:
bbEeBbEeBbEebbeeBbEeBbeeBbEeBbEebbeeBbeeBbEebbeeBbeeBeeBbeeBebe
The following phenotypes are expected to occur in the offspring:
brown with eyes that are not white: 1/4 or 25%
brown with eyes that are white: 1/4 or 25%
black with eyes that are not white: 1/4 or 25%
black with eyes that are white: 1/4 or 25%
Thus, in the course of many litters, you can expect a 25% occurrence of each phenotype.
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how do different types of photopigments differ from one another?
Different types of photopigments differ from one another based on the specific wavelengths of light they absorb and the color vision they enable.
Photopigments are proteins found in the cone cells of the retina, responsible for detecting light and color vision.
There are three types of cone cells in the retina, each containing a different type of photopigment that responds to different wavelengths of light: blue, green, and red. These photopigments are called opsin and they bind with a chromophore called retinal to form the complete photopigment.
Each type of opsin has a slightly different amino acid sequence, which determines the wavelengths of light it absorbs most effectively, and hence the color vision it enables. For example, the blue opsin absorbs shorter wavelengths of light, while the red opsin absorbs longer wavelengths. When different combinations of photopigments are stimulated by light, the brain can interpret the information to perceive a range of colors. Overall, the differences in the amino acid sequences of the opsin photopigments determine their spectral sensitivity and enable us to perceive different colors.
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In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?a. antigenb. interferonc. antibodyd. complement
In clonal selection of B cells, antigen is the substance responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned. Therefore the correct option is option A.
Clonal selection is a mechanism by which the immune system identifies and destroys pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi that cause diseases. It occurs when a specific antigen binds to and activates only those T lymphocytes that are specific for it.
This selective activation results in the proliferation of the activated T lymphocytes, resulting in the production of a large population of antigen-specific T lymphocytes. Antigens are foreign molecules that elicit an immune response when they enter the body.
They are typically proteins or carbohydrates that are present on the surface of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. When an antigen enters the body, it is picked up by specialized immune cells called dendritic cells.
In conclusion, the antigen is the substance responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned in clonal selection of B cells.
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humans have 22 pairs of chromosomes that are classified as
Answer:
Autosomes
Explanation:
Chromosomes are any of several threadlike bodies, consisting of chromatin, that carry the genes in a linear order: the human species has 23 pairs, designated 1 to 22 in order of decreasing size and X and Y for the female and male sex chromosomes respectively. Autosomes are any chromosome other than a sex chromosome.
the fact that imprinting is most certain to occur if the opportunity for imprinting is presented to the organism at a very specific age indicates the existence of responses.T/F
The statement "the fact that imprinting is most certain to occur if the opportunity for imprinting is presented to the organism at a very specific age indicates the existence of responses" is true.
What is imprinting?Imprinting is a learning process that happens early in life in animals, whereby an animal learns to identify its caregiver or family. This process may last anywhere from a few hours to a few days, but once it is done, it cannot be undone or modified.
The precise timing of imprinting is determined by the animal's developmental phase. The period in which an animal is most likely to be imprinted is called the sensitive period. It normally happens during the first few hours or days of life. The exact time frame is species-specific.
Imprinting is irreversible, so if imprinting occurs during a different stage than it should have, the animal may end up with inappropriate or maladaptive behaviour. Imprinting can only occur during a certain age range due to an epigenetic mechanism that regulates the expression of genes critical for the process.
The fact that imprinting is most likely to occur when the opportunity for imprinting is presented to the organism at a particular age, as mentioned earlier, indicates the existence of responses. This implies that there is a developmental phase, which is genetically coded in the animal's genes, during which they are particularly sensitive to environmental stimuli.
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Chlorophyll reflects (does not absorb) which color of visible light? Select one:
a. red
b. yellow
c. orange
d. green
e. blue
Match the following statements with either Adrenal Medulla (Nervous System), Adrenal Cortex (Endocrine System) or Both.
Answer:
Explanation:
don't know
in rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur(b). Consider the punnett square.Both of the parents in the Punnett square are:blackbrownhomozygous dominanthomozygous recessive
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). The Punnett square is shown below, and both parents are b. homozygous dominant.
A Punnett square is a chart that scientists utilize to predict the likelihood of an offspring inheriting a particular trait. It is a visual representation of Mendelian genetics' fundamental principles. A Punnett square can be used to estimate the chances of an offspring inheriting particular characteristics by organizing the alleles from both parents.
An individual has two copies of the same allele in their DNA sequence, and the alleles are the same. Homozygous dominant alleles are a pair of genes that specify the same characteristics and that are both dominant alleles. As a result, the offspring will inherit black fur in a 100 percent likelihood. The alleles for black fur from both parents are present in the offspring's genome, so the black fur trait will be expressed as a result.
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Where does the energy come from to add a uracil to the 3' end of a transcript? the cell's supply of ATP the hydrolysis of all three phosphate groups from the incoming UTP molecule the hydrolysis of pyrophosphate from the incoming UTP molecule the hydrolysis of a terminal phosphate from the incoming UTP molecule the energy released by allowing the uracil to complementary base pair with an adjacent thymine Which one of the following RNA types is MOST abundant in mammalian cells? snRNA mRNA rRNA tRHA miRNA Which one of the following statements about RNA is CORRECT? RNA uses the same pyrimidine bases as DNA. RNA has the same 5-carbon sugars as DNA. RNA uses the same purine bases as DNA. RNA is a more stable molecule than DNA. All of these choices are correct.
The entering UTP molecule breaks down the pyrophosphate.
Where can one find uracil?The nitrogenous base uracil is one of the four found in the RNA molecule. Except for the substitution of thymine for uracil, all of these nitrogenous bases are also present in deoxyribonucleic acid, including the pyrimidine-derived uracil and cytosine, as well as the purine-derived adenine and guanine (DNA).
Why does DNA substitute thymine for uracil?DNA uses thymine rather than uracil because it offers a stronger protection against photochemical change and makes the genetic information more robust. To store all the info required for life to function, this is required.
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Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments? A) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature B) the shelled, amniotic egg C) two pairs of appendages D) bony scales E) a four-chambered heart
The ability to maintain a constant body temperature was the key factor for the success of vertebrates in relatively dry environments.
The ability to maintain a constant body temperature was the most important factor for vertebrate success in relatively dry environments. This ability allowed vertebrates to withstand harsher temperatures and survive longer in the dry environment. It allowed them to conserve more energy by regulating their body temperature. The shelled, amniotic egg was a key adaptation for surviving in relatively dry environments. The amniotic egg allowed the embryo to develop in a fluid-filled environment and was able to retain moisture longer. This protected the embryo from drying out, which allowed the vertebrates to live longer.
Two pairs of appendages also helped vertebrates survive in the dry environment. The limbs allowed the vertebrates to move around in the dry environment and access food and water. They also allowed them to search for shelter and escape predators. Bony scales were also essential for the survival of vertebrates in a dry environment. The scales were a protective layer that kept the vertebrates warm and insulated. It also provided a barrier against harmful elements and diseases.
A four-chambered heart was also important for the success of vertebrates in relatively dry environments. The four-chambered heart allowed the vertebrates to regulate their blood flow, which improved their overall health and allowed them to live longer in the dry environment.
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How does the formula for cellular respiration compare with the formula for photosynthesis?
An elementary reaction is known to be bimolecular. What does this mean? A) Two molecules of products are made B) The order of the reaction is 2 C) Two molecules must collide at the same time D) Both A and B E) Both B and C
An elementary reaction is known to be bimolecular. This means that two molecules must collide at the same time. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
Bimolecular reactions are chemical reactions that occur between two reactant molecules. According to reaction kinetics, bimolecular reaction rate laws have second-order kinetics. The reaction rate is proportional to the product of the concentrations of two reactants, so the concentration of two reactants in the collision is necessary. Thus, the reaction is bimolecular. The general formula of the reaction is A + B -> AB. The rate equation of the bimolecular reaction is rate = k [A] [B] or rate = k [A]^2.The order of a reaction is determined by the order of the slowest elementary step. The order of the reaction is 2 when a bimolecular reaction occurs through an elementary step. Thus, option B is incorrect. An elementary reaction only includes a single step. The species present in the reactants and products of an elementary reaction are known as molecules, ions, or atoms. In an elementary reaction, the number of products that form corresponds exactly to the number of reactants that are lost. Thus, option A is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct option is C) Two molecules must collide at the same time.
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considering a pig, how does the location of the umbilical cord compare to the spine?
The spine in the pig is that the pig’s first thoracic vertebrae is high, broad, and inclined cranially and the umbilical cord leads to the mouth in a fetal pig. The function of this cord is to transport nutrients from the mother to the fetus.
The umbilical cord in the pig is different than the cord in the humans, the umbilical cord in the pig is that In the cord of the pig the wall of the umbilical arteries only contains circularly disposed smooth-muscle cells, more compact centrally; the vein in one of the two specimens contains also scattered, longitudinally placed cells beneath the intima.
when we do the anatomy of the pig, we can see that the two umbilical vessels can be seen in the umbilical cord, and the flattened urinary bladder lies between them.
If the pig is male, it will have a small urogenital opening immediately behind the umbilical cord. If the pig is female, the urogenital opening will be just behind the anus under the pig’s tail.
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During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell? Select one:
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. interphase
e. metaphase
The phase of mitosis during which chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell is metaphase. Therefore the correct option is option E.
Mitosis is a cell division process that occurs in most eukaryotic cells. In this process, a parent cell produces two identical daughter cells. Mitosis has five stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and interphase.
Chromosomes are visible and condense during mitosis, as a result of the coiling of DNA around proteins called histones.Mitosis can be divided into four distinct stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During metaphase, the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell, which is known as the metaphase plate.
The centromeres of the chromosomes are located on the metaphase plate. Chromosomes can then be separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell during anaphase.
The spindle fibers of the cell, which are microtubules that connect the centrosomes to the chromosomes, are responsible for the separation and movement of the chromosomes. Therefore the correct option is option E.
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which of these must happen for corn seeds to develop on the ear?
For corn seeds to develop on the ear, the following events must happen: Pollination, Fertilization, Cell Division, Nutrient Supply, and Maturation.
Pollination: The pollen from the tassel (male flower) must land on the silk (female flower) of the ear.
Fertilization: The sperm from the pollen must fuse with the egg cell inside the ovule located at the base of the silk. This fertilization produces a zygote which will develop into an embryo.
Cell Division: The zygote begins to divide and forms the embryo, which will eventually develop into the corn kernel.
Nutrient Supply: The kernel is supplied with nutrients from the endosperm, which is a tissue that surrounds the embryo.
Maturation: The kernel continues to grow and mature until it is ready for harvest.
Therefore, all of these events must happen for corn seeds to develop on the ear.
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a catabolic pathway that breaks down organic molecules and uses an electron transport chain for the production of atp is called ____
The catabolic pathway that breaks down organic molecules and uses an electron transport chain for the production of ATP is called Cellular respiration.
Cellular respiration is a process by which energy is obtained by breaking down organic compounds such as carbohydrates and fats. This energy is stored in the form of ATP (Adenosine triphosphate), which is used by the cell to perform various functions.There are three main stages involved in cellular respiration:Glycolysis: This is the first stage of cellular respiration, and it occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. In this stage, glucose is broken down into pyruvate, and a small amount of ATP is produced. Krebs cycle: This stage occurs in the mitochondria of the cell, and it involves the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. During this stage, more ATP is produced, along with CO2 and H2O. Electron transport chain: This is the final stage of cellular respiration, and it occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. During this stage, electrons are transported through a series of proteins, and ATP is produced as a result.So, the catabolic pathway that breaks down organic molecules and uses an electron transport chain for the production of ATP is called Cellular respiration.Learn more about the electron transport chain: https://brainly.com/question/18686654
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Which statement is true about disruptive natural selection?
Responses
It results in an averaging of traits.
It results in an averaging of traits.
It favors one trait over all others.
It favors one trait over all others.
It results in an even distribution of traits.
It results in an even distribution of traits.
It favors extremes in traits.
The statement "It favors extremes in traits" is true about disruptive natural selection.
What is Disruptive natural selection?Disruptive natural selection occurs when extreme traits are favored over intermediate traits, leading to a bimodal distribution of traits in a population. This means that individuals with extreme traits at both ends of the distribution have a higher fitness compared to individuals with intermediate traits. As a result, the population becomes less homogeneous and more specialized in the extreme traits that are favored by natural selection.
What kind of natural selection is disruptive?Oysters of different colors—dark and light—are one instance of disruptive selection. Oysters with dark or light colours can blend in more effectively. Dark oysters can hide behind the shadow of the rocks, whereas light oysters can blend in with the rocks.
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antibodies ______ . a. produce granzymes that puncture bacterial cell membranes b. tag pathogens for destruction by other cells c. lyse infected cells with perforins destroy pathogens directly
Antibodies tag pathogens for destruction by other cells. They produce granzymes that puncture bacterial cell membranes, lyse infected cells with perforins, and can also directly destroy pathogens.
What are antibodies? Antibodies are a protein produced by a type of white blood cell called a B cell that helps in the recognition of and responses to invading antigens (foreign substances). Antibodies are also referred to as immunoglobulins.
Antibodies are capable of targeting specific pathogens in the body, such as viruses, bacteria, and fungi, as well as recognizing and tagging them for destruction by other cells. Antibodies can identify and attach to pathogens, allowing other cells in the immune system to identify and destroy them. Some antibodies bind to and inhibit the ability of the pathogen to infect cells, while others tag the pathogen for destruction by other cells (e.g., macrophages) that can engulf and digest the pathogen.
Antibodies assist in the recognition of antigens on the surface of cells or in bodily fluids by the immune system. They are made up of four polypeptide chains that are linked together by disulfide bonds, and they have two identical ends that are antigen-specific. Antibodies protect the host by neutralizing pathogens in a variety of ways, including complement activation, opsonization, and activation of the adaptive immune response.
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What is released from fat cells and results in a decrease in appetite?
Leptin is released from fat cells and results in a decrease in appetite.
Leptin is a hormone that is released by adipose tissue and is responsible for regulating energy balance and appetite. It has an inhibitory effect on hunger and is responsible for signaling to the brain that the body has enough energy stores.
The brain uses leptin levels to gauge the body's energy status. When leptin levels are high, the brain perceives that the body has sufficient energy stores and, as a result, reduces hunger and increases energy expenditure. When leptin levels are low, the brain perceives that the body is in a state of negative energy balance and, as a result, increases hunger and decreases energy expenditure.
Leptin also plays a role in the regulation of other physiological processes, including immune function, bone metabolism, and reproductive function. Leptin resistance, a condition in which the brain fails to respond to leptin signaling, can lead to increased hunger and decreased energy expenditure, which can contribute to the development of obesity.
In summary, the fat cells release leptin to signal hunger.
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how do food chains and food webs both show how energy transfers in a ecosyestem, how do they differ from one another.
this component of the male duct system carries sperm from outside the body into the abdominal cavity.
The male reproductive system includes several structures that work together to produce, store, and deliver sperm. One of the key structures involved in this process is the vas deferens.
The vas deferens, also known as the ductus deferens, is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the epididymis (where sperm mature and are stored) to the urethra. The vas deferens is located within the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord, which also contains blood vessels, nerves, and other structures.
During ejaculation, the smooth muscles in the wall of the vas deferens contract, propelling the sperm through the duct and into the urethra. From there, the sperm are mixed with seminal fluid from the prostate gland and other accessory glands before being ejaculated from the body.
It is important to note that the vas deferens does not carry sperm from outside the body into the abdominal cavity. Instead, it carries sperm from the testes, where they are produced, to the urethra, where they are ejaculated from the body during sexual activity.
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In the astonishing hypothesis (1994, p. 49) sir francis crick noted, "when one neuron tells another neuron is simply how much it is excited. " using terms from the chapter, compare the neural communication when we are a) tapped gently on the arm, and b) slapped across the face
The neural communication varies greatly from when we are tapped gently on the arm in comparison to when we are slapped across the face. When we slapped that strongly triggers and increases the number of times those neurons fire. But when we tap on the arm that triggers fewer neurons to be fired.
Communication between neurons occurs electrochemically. Neurotransmitter receptors can be found on the dendrites of neighboring neurons. If the impulses from neighboring neurons are strong enough, an action potential will travel the length of the axon to the terminal buttons, releasing neurotransmitters into the synapse in the process.
Many neurotransmitters serve a variety of purposes. Unbalances in a specific neurotransmitter system frequently play a role in psychiatric disorders. As a result, doctors often prescribe psychiatric medications to try to rebalance the neurotransmitters. For a certain neurotransmitter system, drugs can either behave as agonists or antagonists.
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the type of muscle fibers that are used to maintain posture in the back muscles are primarily
The type of muscle fibers that are used to maintain posture in the back muscles are primarily slow-twitch fibers or Type I fibers.
These muscle fibers are also known as red fibers due to the presence of myoglobin that binds oxygen in the muscle cell. The function of the back muscles is to maintain posture and support the weight of the upper body. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are best suited for this function as they are able to contract and maintain tension for longer periods of time, without fatiguing quickly. Slow-twitch fibers have a high concentration of mitochondria which are responsible for generating energy for the muscle cell through aerobic respiration. Slow-twitch fibers also have a high concentration of capillaries which deliver oxygen to the muscle cell. This is important as oxygen is required for aerobic respiration to occur which generates energy in the muscle cell. Slow-twitch fibers are also able to store more glycogen than fast-twitch fibers which is another source of energy for the muscle cell during exercise. In summary, the type of muscle fibers that are used to maintain posture in the back muscles are primarily slow-twitch fibers or Type I fibers. These fibers are best suited for this function due to their ability to contract and maintain tension for longer periods of time, without fatiguing quickly.
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how late can you take birth control pill from the usual time
It is important to take birth control pills at the same time every day to maintain their effectiveness.
If you happen to miss a pill or take it later than usual, it may still provide some protection against pregnancy, depending on the type of pill you are taking.
For combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs), which contain both estrogen and progestin, you should try to take the missed pill as soon as you remember, even if that means taking two pills in one day. If you miss two or more pills in a row, you may need to use backup contraception for at least 7 days.
For progestin-only pills (POPs), also known as the mini-pill, you should take the missed pill as soon as you remember, even if that means taking two pills in one day. However, if you are more than 3 hours late in taking a POP, you should use backup contraception for at least 48 hours.
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what is the role of proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes
Proto-oncogenes encourage the cell to develop, split, and progress through each cell cycle checkpoint. When a proto-oncocogene mutates, it transforms into an oncogene and no longer pauses at cell checkpoints to ensure its regular function. Tumor-suppressor genes inhibit cell development. DNA repair enzymes correct mistakes.
Genes that inhibit tumour growth. These genes instruct your cells on when to halt replication (copy themselves), fix DNA, or eliminate themselves. If these genes are switched off when they should be turned on, cancer can form. Oncogenes. When it's time for your cells to develop, these genes inform them.
Cancers can be caused by a mutation in one of the pair's proto-oncogene alleles. As a result, oncogenes show hostile behaviour. Tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes are two types of genes that can cause cancer.upon transformation. The word oncogenes essentially means "cancer genes," and these genes cause uncontrolled cell development. Normal genes that aid in cell growth are proto-oncogenes. An oncogene is a cancer-causing gene. Uncontrolled cell proliferation is one of the hallmarks of malignancy. As a result of proto-oncogenes...
True/False: Like the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), the interior of the nucleus is topologically equivalent to the outside of the cell.
The given statement that 'Like the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), the interior of the nucleus is topologically equivalent to the outside of the cell' is false.
The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle present inside the cell that contains genetic information. The nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by the nuclear envelope.
The nuclear envelope consists of two lipid bilayer membranes: the outer membrane and the inner membrane, which encloses the nucleoplasm. Thus, it can be said that the interior of the nucleus is not topologically equivalent to the outside of the cell as the nuclear envelope separates the inside from the outside of the nucleus.
Moreover, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is an organelle that exists within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. It consists of a network of flattened sacs and tubules. It does not have any nuclear envelope that separates its inside from the outside of the cell. Hence, the given statement is false.
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when genes on a particular chromosome do not assort independently in genetic crosses, the genes are _______________.
Answer:
the genes tend to "stick together" during meiosis
Explanation:
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What is the group of macro nutrients ?
(a) N, P, K, Ca, Mg, S (b) Zn, Cu, Mo, Cl, Fe
(c) N, P, K, Zn, Ca, Mg (d) Cl, Zn, Mn, Ba
A completely-plated stickleback from a marine population was mated to a low-plated stickleback from a
freshwater population. The resulting F1 hybrids all displayed a completely plated phenotype. When the F1
hybrids were allowed to interbreed, the resulting F2 generation included completely plated offspring and
low-plated offspring in an approximate 3:1 ratio. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the
results of the breeding experiments?
a. Phenotypic variation in the F2 generation suggests that armor morphology is controlled by many alleles
of a single gene.
b. The completely-plated phenotype is controlled by a dominant allele of a single gene.
c. Armor loss is an acquired characteristic that is affected by one or more environmental factors.
d. Patterns of armor plating in stickleback populations are regulated by sex-specific signals
The following conclusion is best supported by the results of the breeding experiments: The completely-plated phenotype is controlled by a dominant allele of a single gene.
Sticklebacks: Sticklebacks are a family of fish that includes both freshwater and marine species. In marine sticklebacks, the dorsal spines are reduced, and their plates are complete, whereas in freshwater sticklebacks, they have numerous morphological variations, with incomplete or missing dorsal spines and plates.
Phenotype: Phenotype is an observable characteristic or trait that is the result of an individual's genotype and environmental influences. An individual's phenotype includes characteristics such as behavior, appearance, and biochemistry.
Interbreeding: Interbreeding, also known as crossbreeding, is the process of crossing two different species or breeds that belong to the same species. The resulting hybrid offspring may have a variety of characteristics from both of the parental species or breeds.
The resulting F2 generation included completely plated offspring and low-plated offspring in an approximate 3:1 ratio. This ratio implies that the inheritance of armor plating in sticklebacks is controlled by a single gene with a dominant-recessive pattern of inheritance.
Conclusion for this breeding experiment: The completely-plated phenotype is controlled by a dominant allele of a single gene is the best-supported conclusion from the breeding experiments.
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Match each hypothesis about the evolution of unique primate traits to the scientist(s) who proposed it.-Sir Grafton Elliot Smith and Frederic Wood Jones: -Matt Cartmill: -Robert Susan: - visual predation hypothesis- angiosperm radiation hypothesis- arboreal hypothesis
The matching of the scientists to the hypothesis they proposed. Sir Grafton Elliot Smith and Frederic Wood Jones-Arboreal Hypothesis, Matt Cartmill-Visual Predation Hypothesis, Robert Susman-Angiosperm Radiation Hypothesis.
The scientists who proposed the various hypotheses about the evolution of unique primate traits and the hypotheses are discussed below:
Arboreal Hypothesis: The Arboreal Hypothesis was proposed by Sir Grafton Elliot Smith and Frederic Wood Jones. The Arboreal hypothesis suggests that the unique primate traits evolved as an adaptation to life in trees. These adaptations include stereoscopic vision, opposable thumbs, and grasping hands and feet.
Visual Predation Hypothesis: The Visual Predation Hypothesis was proposed by Matt Cartmill. According to the Visual Predation Hypothesis, the unique primate traits evolved as an adaptation for catching insects and other prey animals.
This hypothesis suggests that the evolution of stereoscopic vision and grasping hands allowed the primate ancestors to climb through the branches of trees to locate prey animals.
Angiosperm Radiation Hypothesis: The Angiosperm Radiation Hypothesis was proposed by Robert Susman. According to the Angiosperm Radiation Hypothesis, the evolution of unique primate traits occurred due to the increase in the diversity and abundance of angiosperms (flowering plants) in the Late Cretaceous period.
The availability of fruits and flowers in the diet led to changes in primate dentition and body size that are unique to primates.
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