If budgeted beginning finished goods inventory is $8,000, budgeted ending finished goods inventory is $9,400, and budgeted cost of goods sold is $10,260, budgeted cost of goods manufactured should be

Answer:

the following table shows the profits generated by each output quantity, assuming selling price is Rs40. Since marginal costs of production are lower than selling price, the more you sell, the higher your profit. Profit is maximized at 1,000 units =  Rs35,960

Explanation:

output          variable costs       fixed costs       total revenue      profits

0                          00                     620                     0                     (620)

100                      280                   620                   4,000              3,100

200                     480                   620                   8,000              6,900

300                     640                   620                   12,000            10,740

400                     820                   620                   16,000            14,560

500                    1,040                  620                   20,000           18,340

600                    1,300                  620                   24,000           22,080

700                    1,620                  620                   28,000           25,760

800                    2,020                 620                   32,000           29,360

900                    2,620                 620                   36,000           32,760

1000                   3,420                 620                   40,000           35,960

Answer:

Since the firm is maximizing its profit, it is producing and selling 40 units at $30 per unit, resulting in a net profit of $440.

Explanation:

Sine there is no information, I searched for a similar question:

Q             Sales revenue        Total costs           Profit

10                      $450                $340                  $110

20                     $800                $480                  $320

30                     $1,050              $620                  $430

40                     $1,200              $760                  $440

50                     $1,250              $900                  $350

60                     $1,200              $1,040                $160

70                     $1,050              $1,180                -$130

80                     $800                $1,320               -$520

90                     $450                $1,460               -$1,010

Answer:

a. $1,028 million

b. 46.7%

Explanation:

a. Dividends are taken from the retained earnings and net income is added to the retained earnings. The formula for ending retained earnings is;

Ending retained earnings = Opening Retained earnings + Net Income - Dividends

14,329 = 13,157 + 2,200 - Dividends

Dividends = 13,157 + 2,200 - 14,329

Dividends = $1,028 million

b. Dividends as a percentage of income

= 1,028/2,200

= 0.467

= 46.7%

Answer:

19%

Explanation:

The market risk premium is 9%

The risk free rate of return is 3.7%

General motors have a beta of 1.7

Therefore, using the capital asset pticing model the expected return can be calculated as follows

= 3.7% + 1.7×9%

= 3.7% + 15.3%

= 19%

Hence the expected return is 19%

Answer:

NPV = $3,013,537.02

IRR = 20.15%

Explanation:

initial investment $19,500,000

sales revenue per year:

year 1 = 76,000 x $420 = $31,920,000

year 2 = 89,000 x $420 = $37,380,000

year 3 = 108,750 x $420 = $45,675,000

year 4 = 101,500 x $420 = $42,630,000

year 5 = 68,800 x $420 = $28,896,000

change in net working capital:

year 0 = $2,250,000

year 1 = ($37,380,000 - $31,920,000) x 0.2 = $1,092,000

year 2 = ($45,675,000 - $37,380,000) x 0.2 = $1,659,000

year 3 = ($42,630,000 - $45,675,000) x 0.2 = -$609,000

year 4 = ($28,896,000 - $42,630,000) x 0.2 = -$2,746,800

year 5 = -$1,646,000

fixed costs = $4,700,000

contribution margin per unit = $420 - $270 = $150 per unit

resale value at the end of year 5 = $3,900,000

MACRS depreciation 7 year property:

year          %                depreciation expense

1               14.29%          $2,786,550

2              24.49%         $4,775,550

3              17.49%          $3,410,550

4              12.29%          $2,396,550

5              6.44%*          $1,255,800*

                   *net of resale value

net cash flow year 0 = -$19,500,000 - $2,250,000 = -$21,750,000

net cash flow year 1 = [($11,400,000 - $4,700,000 - $2,786,550) x 0.75] + $2,786,550 - $1,092,000 = $4,629,637.50

net cash flow year 2 = [($13,350,000 - $4,700,000 - $4,775,550) x 0.75] + $4,775,550 - $1,659,000 = $6,022,387.50

net cash flow year 3 = [($16,312,500 - $4,700,000 - $3,410,550) x 0.75] + $3,410,550 + $609,000 = $10,171,012.50

net cash flow year 4 = [($15,225,000 - $4,700,000 - $2,396,550) x 0.75] + $2,396,550 + $2,746,800 = $11,239,687.50

net cash flow year 5 = [($10,320,000 - $4,700,000 - $1,255,800) x 0.75] + $1,255,800 + $1,646,000 = $6,174,950

NPV = $3,013,537.02

IRR = 20.15%

In this exercise we will use our knowledge of finance to calculate interest, so we find that:

So knowing that from the initial investment we will obtain the following values ​​per year:

[tex]year 1 = 76,000 * \$420 = \$31,920,000[/tex]

[tex]year 2 = 89,000 * \$420 = \$37,380,000[/tex]

[tex]year 3 = 108,750* \$420 = \$45,675,000[/tex]

[tex]year 4 = 101,500 * \$420 = \$42,630,000[/tex]

[tex]year 5 = 68,800 * \$420 = \$28,896,000[/tex]

So knowing that from the net working capital we will obtain the following values ​​per year:

[tex]year 0 = \$2,250,000\\year 1 = (\$37,380,000 - \$31,920,000) * 0.2 = \$1,092,000\\year 2 = (\$45,675,000 - \$37,380,000) * 0.2 = \$1,659,000\\year 3 = (\$42,630,000 - \$45,675,000) * 0.2 = -\$609,000\\year 4 = (\$28,896,000 - \$42,630,000) * 0.2 = -\$2,746,800\\year 5 = -\$1,646,000[/tex]

Then from the values ​​previously informed we can calculate the cash flow, as:

[tex]year 0 = -\$19,500,000 - \$2,250,000 = -\$21,750,000\\year 1 = [(\$11,400,000 - \$4,700,000 - \$2,786,550) * 0.75] + \$2,786,550 - \$1,092,000 = \$4,629,637.50\\year 2 =\$6,022,387.50\\year 3 = \$10,171,012.50\\year 4 = \$11,239[/tex]

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Answer:

4.47

Explanation:

The computation of the standard deviation of lead time is shown below:

= √lead time × standard deviation of demand

= √ 5 days × 4

= √20

= 4.47

We simply applied the above formula to determine the standard deviation of demand during lead time

Hence, all the other items would be ignored

Answer:

Right agent.

Explanation:

A rights agent is said to be a correlative junction, serve and also seen to be an obedient mediator and right assistance between his client and any form of third party organisation or also other clients. A right agent is sometimes seen to be reliable to a principal when he/she acts without actual authority, but with apparent authority. He is also held responsible for indemnify and also principal loss or damage resulting from his/her act. He is also keen and careful in his advise and dealing on behalf of his client is he owes certain contractual duties to his/her agent as he protect him also from wrong claims, expenses that are not worthwhile, liabilities etc.

Answer:

13,500

Explanation:

Outstanding shares = issued shares - Treasury shares

19,000 - 5,500 = `13,500

Shares is a method through which firms raise capital.

Authorised shares are the maximum number of shares a company can issue to investors

Outstanding shares are the total number of shares sold to investors

Treasury shares are shares that have been issued and later repurchased by the company

Issued shares are the shares that a company issues

Answer:

600 loss

Explanation:

The computation of the gain or loss is shown below:

Since on Jan, there is a put option of 45 at $3 and the market rises to $58

So it losses by 13 points i.e

= 45 - 58

= 13

Now the total premium points collected is of 7 i.e

= 4 + 3

= 7

So, the remaining points left is

= 13 - 7

= 6

So for 6 points, the net loss is $600

Answer:

The value of the firm's stock is $703,920

The price is $5.63 per share ($703,920/125,000 shares)

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Free cash flows = $200,000

Present value of the free cash flows = $200,000 x Annuity Factor, for 5 years at cost of capital of 15% x (1 + growth rate)

= $200,000 x 3.352 x 1.05

= $703,920

Therefore, common equity = $703,920

To calculate Company XYZ's free cash flows in their present value, they are discounted, using the present value table.  The resulting amount is equivalent to the value of the common stock.  The company's free cash flow is the amount that is left after settling operating expenses and capital expenditure.

Answer:

Find the explanation below.

Explanation:

Whistleblowing is the act of raising an alarm over unethical or illegal acts committed by people holding political or public service positions. The whistleblower is most times motivated by the quest to end the injustice or negative impact suffered by the disadvantaged group. Whistleblowers suffer tremendous obstacles from the people they have exposed because;

1. The offender's source of illegal income has been withdrawn. Just like humans fight for survival when their source of livelihood is taken away, so would a person fight against whatever that tends to take away their illegal source of wealth.

2. Fear of being seen in a negative light by others. The person committing a crime usually puts up an act of innocence, thus presenting himself as a morally upright person. When the whistleblower tries to expose their true identity, it is only expected that they would try to shut him up.

Answer:

industrial products

Explanation:

A company that does this and mostly favors a push strategy is usually selling industrial products. That is because a push strategy focuses on taking the product to the potential customer and showing them how it works as well as how it can benefit them, therefore pushing the product on them. Industrial Products are great for such a strategy since they require actual demonstration and can easily show the potential customer the actual value that the product can provide.

Answer:

The answer is 15.508%

Explanation:

The annual coupon rate is:

8% x 900 x 2 / $1,000 = 14.4%

The yield to maturity as follows:

Yield to maturity (YTM) = [Coupon payment + (Face Value - Present Value) / Time to Maturity] /  [(Face Value + Present Value) / 2]

=> YTM = [14.4% x $1,000 + ($1,000 - $900) / 30] / [ ($1,000 + $900) / 2] = 15.508%

Answer:

hello attached below are the missing option related to your question

5.45% ( D )

Explanation:

Given data:

for asset 1

cost of asset = $26000

Year 1  payments = $5000, year 3 = $10000, year 5 = $15000

For asset 2

cost of asset 2 three years from now  = $29500

year 4 payments = $12000, year 5 payments = $20000

Calculate the one year forward rate deferred three years

find the value of  [tex](1+s3)^3[/tex] using asset 1

2600 (cost of asset now )  = 5000/ (1.03 +10000) / ((1 +s3)^3 +15000))/ 1.0425^5

from the above equation

(1 +s3)^3 = 1.11559

Now to get the one year forward rate deferred three years we determine that value using asset 2

29500 = 12000 / (1+1 year rate deferred for 3 years) + 220000/(1.0425^5/(1+s3)^3)

hence ( 1 + 1 year rate deferred for three years )

= 12000/(29500-20000)/(1.0425^5)*1.11559)

= 12000/(9500)/(1.0425^5)*1.11559

1 year rate deferred for three years = 5.447% ≈ 5.45%

Answer:

(a) consumers

Consumers are those who benefit the most from open trade and foreign direct investment. This is because these two economic policies increase the producion and delivery of goods and services, making them cheaper.

(b) producers

While some producers would be affected by open trade, most producers would benefit. Firms are allowed to specialize in producing those goods and services for which they have a competitive advantage, and they can also profit from increased foreign investment.

(c) the government of countries

Governments also benefit from these economic policies. They higher well-being of society means more government credibility, and the higher economic growth means more government revenue in the form of taxes.

The case that open trade in goods and services, as well as free flow of foreign direct investment, should be described below:

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Answer:

a) The president's pleasure is not justified because the budget performance was unfavorable in all the variable costs.

b) Revised Flexible Performance Report

                                                             Flexible        Actual         Variance

                                                             Budget        Costs

Direct materials                                $354,900    $564,000    $209,100 U

Direct manufacturing labor                  63,700         78,000         14,300 U

Direct marketing (distribution) labor 109,200         110,000             800 U

                                                           Flexible        Static            Variance

                                                             Budget       Budget

Direct materials                                $354,900    $400,000       $45,100 U

Direct manufacturing labor                  63,700         80,000         16,300 U

Direct marketing (distribution) labor 109,200        120,000         10,800 U

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                                        Actual Costs  Static Budget   Variance

Direct materials                                 564,000      $400,000      $36,000 F

Direct manufacturing labor                 78,000          80,000           2,000 F

Direct marketing (distribution) labor 110,000         120,000         10,000 F

b) Budgeted Prices:

Direct materials = $39

Direct labor = $7

Direct marketing labor = $12

Actual Output = 9,100

Flexible Budget:

Direct materials = $354,900 ($39 x 9,100)

Direct labor = $63,700 ($7 x 9,100)

Direct marketing labor = $109,200 ($12 x 9,100)

The flexible budget for direct materials, labor and marketing were flexed in line with actual output.

Answer:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $3,000 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard= 2 hours of labor per unit, at $12 per hour.

In producing 3800 units, Waterway used 7350 hours of labor.

To calculate the direct labor quantity variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Standard quantity= 2*3,800= 7,600 hours

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (7,600 - 7,350)*12

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $3,000 favorable

Answer:

Company A

a. Differential Analysis dated May 29

                                              Alternative 1           Alternative 2

Opportunity cost                       $250,000            $550,000

Variable production costs          580,000                192,000

Total cost                                  $830,000             $742,000

b. Sunk cost in this situation is: $225,000 ($400,000 - $175,000) cost of the old machine.

Explanation:

Company A's relevant cost for the old machine is the opportunity cost that it will lose if it continues with Alternative 1 or continued use of the old machine and the additional cost for the new machine for Alternative 2.  Also relevant is the variable production costs that would be incurred if the old or new machine is used.

Company A's sunk cost is the cost of the old machine minus accumulated depreciation.  Sunk cost is not relevant for decision making under differential analysis.

Company A's differential analysis is a managerial tool that is used to differentiate one decision alternative from another.  In this analysis, only relevant costs are considered.  A relevant cost in this case is cost that its inclusion or elimination makes a difference in the decision outcome.

Answer:

$749.57

Explanation:

equivalent annual annuity = (NPV x rate) / [1 - (1 + rate)⁻ⁿ]

equivalent annual annuity = ($2,630 x 0.131) / [1 - (1 + 0.131)⁻⁵] = $344.53 / 0.4596 = $749.57

The equivalent annual annuity is used to compare mutually exclusive projects and determine which yields the highest annual returns.

Answer:

Equity= $7,000

Explanation:

A customer has an existing short margin account that contains credit of $16,000

The short position in ABC stock is worth $10,000

The SMA in the account is $1,000

Therefore, if the market value of ABC falls down to $9,000 then, the equity can be calculated as follows

Equity= $16,000-$9,000

=$7,000

Hence the equity is $7,000

Answer: Analyse cost, risk with impacts and project benefits.

Explanation:

The best alternative in a cost-benefit analysis situation are the following;

•The cost types should be analyzed

•Potential risk and their impacts should be looking into

•It is recommended to weigh all the risk even when there is a lot of project benefits.

Answer:

c

Explanation:

social value = private value = private cost < social cost.

A benevolent social planner would prefer that the output of good x be decreased from its current level if, at the current level of output of good x social value = private value = private cost < social cost. Thus, option (c) is correct.

What is the cost?

The term cost refers to the actual money are spent on the manufacturing of the product. The product are manufacture to spend on money are raw material, transportation, wages, salary, and other expenses add. The all expenses are added to identify the cost.

According to the system composed, the primary impact of the output of goods are the multiplied by the reduced from its present state are the primary effect of the output of products are the calculation where the social value equals the societal value. The private cost is lower than the societal cost.

As a result, the significance of the social cost are the aforementioned. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

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Answer:

Chapman Company

Statement of Cash Flows for the year ended May 2014:

Operating activities:

Cash from customers     $1,238,350

Cash to suppliers              ($683,910)

Salaries & Wages                (277,340)

Other expenses                    (10,548)

Income Tax                           (43,250)

Net Cash from operating activities       223,302

Investing activities:

Plant                                      (17,610)         (17,610)

Financing activities:

Dividends                           (104,312)

Interest                                (73,340)

Bonds                                  (29,870)

Issue of stock                        9,570

Net cash from financing activities        (197,952)

Net cash flows                                          $7,740

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

1. CHAPMAN COMPANY

COMPARATIVE BALANCE SHEET

AS OF MAY 31

                                                 2014                2013

Current assets

Cash                                     $28,560       $20,820

Accounts receivable              75,850          58,940

Inventory                             220,080        250,770

Prepaid expenses                    9,148             7,580

Total current assets           333,638           338,110

Plant assets

Plant assets                        600,070        502,460

Less: Accumulated depreciation

—plant assets                      150,060         125,320

Net plant assets                 450,010          377,140

Total assets                     $783,648       $715,250

Current liabilities

Accounts payable            $123,190        $115,200

Salaries & wages payable  47,660           72,420

Interest payable                  27,980          25,490

Total current liabilities       198,830          213,110

Long-term debt

Bonds payable                    70,770        100,640

Total liabilities                  269,600        313,750

Stockholders’ equity

Common stock, $10 par  370,460       280,890

Retained earnings            143,588         120,610

Total stockholders’ equity 514,048      401,500

Total liabilities and stockholders’

equity                              $783,648     $715,250

2. CHAPMAN COMPANY

INCOME STATEMENT

FOR THE YEAR ENDED MAY 31, 2014

Sales revenue                    $1,255,260

Cost of goods sold                 722,590

Gross profit                             532,670

Expenses

Salaries and wages expense 252,580

Interest expense                       75,830

Depreciation expense              24,740

Other expenses                         8,980

Total expenses                       362,130

Operating income                  170,540

Income tax expense               43,250

Net income                          $127,290

3) Cash Receipts:

Cash from customers $1,238,350

Issue of stock                       9,570

4) Cash Payments:

Cash to suppliers         $683,910

Plant                                   17,610

Income Tax                      43,250

Dividends                        104,312

Salaries & Wages          277,340

Interest                            73,340

Other expenses              10,548

Bonds                              29,870

5) Prepaid Expenses

Ending balance             $9,148

Expenses                        8,980

Beginning balance         7,580

Cash paid                   $10,548

6) Accounts Receivable:

Beginning balance  $58,940

Sales                     1,255,260

Ending balance         75,850

Cash received   $1,238,350

7) Accounts Payable:

Beginning balance $115,200

Purchases                691,900

Ending balance      $123,190

Cash paid              $693,910

8) Purchases:

Ending inventory    $220,080

Cost of goods sold   722,590

Beginning inventory 250,770

Purchases               $691,900

9) Salaries and Wages Payable

Beginning balance $72,420

Expenses               252,580

Ending balance        47,660

Cash paid            $277,340

10) Interest payable:

Beginning balance $25,490

Expense                    75,830

Ending balance        27,980

Cash paid               $73,340

Answer:

C. The firm likes its workers and doesn’t want to replace some jobs with machinery.

Explanation:

Optimal level of capital simply refers to an ideal strategy used by a firm to raise capital. For example, a firm may decide between debt financing or equity financing, depending on the company's desired level of capital.

So, an already operational firm with that likes its workers and doesn’t want to replace some jobs with machinery has no direct relationship with its level of capital.

Answer:

The demand curve is less elastic.

Explanation:

The steeper demand curve shows that the demand had become less elastic because the steeper demand curve represents the less elastic demand while the flatter demand curve shows the more elastic demand. therefore, if the demand curve for a monopolistic competitor becomes steeper that means people are less responsive towards the quantity. So if the price increases or decreases, then people will not change their quantity more than the change in price.

Answer:

1 year

Explanation:

Since it is mentioned that there is a constant market share, also the growth rate is also same so for meeting the future demand, the time period that would be considered is one year as the company should added its production capacity so that it could be in a position to meet the demand else the company is not able to meet its future demand

Hence, year 1 is considered

Answer:

The stock is undervalued. As the required rate of return (6.5%) on market is less than the actual return (7%), the stock is said to be undervalued as it provides an actual return greater than the required rate of return.

Explanation:

To check if a stock is over valued, undervalued or correctly valued, we simply compare the required rate of return on a stock as measured by CAPM with the actual return on the stock.

We can calculate the required rate of return using CAPM equation. The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRf + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

r = 0.05 + 0.5 * (0.08 - 0.05)

r = 0.065 or 6.5%

As the required rate of return on market is less than the actual return, the stock is said to be undervalued as it provides an actual return greater than the required rate of return.

Answer:

Undervalued

Explanation:

to determine if the stock is overvalued or undervalued, we have to determine the expected rate of return using the CAPM and compare it with the return of the stock

Expected rate of return = risk free + beta x (market rate of return - risk free rate of return)

5% + 0.5(8% - 5%) = 6.5%

the stock is undervalued because 6.5% is less than 7%

Answer:

International trade is buying and selling goods and services across international boundaries. International trade plays a very good role in economic activities and performance of countries around the world. International trade benefit countries in many ways: 1- increasing in production and consumption as a result of specialization, 2- greater choices for consumers due to the competition between traders to get the best choice for consumers. 3- lower prices 4- trade is great source for the flow of service and technology. International trade is the engine of growth.

Answer:

balanced scorecard

Explanation:

The term that is being mentioned in this question is known as a balanced scorecard. This is a strategic management performance metric that is used to measure and provide feedback to a company's management by identifying and improving different internal business functions and their outcomes, usually in regards to the employees themselves. An example of a balanced scorecard can be seen in the attached photo.

Answer:

Additional $1,750 must be invested by Ben.

Explanation:

Note: The question is not complete as some dots are omitted. The question is therefore given correctly before answering it as follows:

If Ben invests $3500 at 4% interest per year, how much additional money must he invest at 5 1/2 % annual interest to ensure that the interest he receives each year is 4 1/2 %.

The question is now answered as follows:

From the question, we have:

Initial amount invested = $3,500

Interest rate on initial amount invested = 4%, or 0.04

Interest amount from initial amount invested = Initial amount invested * Interest rate on initial amount invested = $3,500 * 4% = $140

Let y represents the additional amount to invest. Therefore, we have:

Interest rate of additional amount invested = 5 1/2% = 5.5% = 0.055

Interest amount from additional amount invested = y * Interest rate of additional amount invested = y * 0.055 = y0.055

Total interest amount = Interest amount from initial amount invested + Interest amount from additional amount invested = $140 + y0.055

New amount invested = Initial amount invested + y = $3,500 + y

Interest rate of new amount invested = 4 1/2% = 4.5% = 0.045

Interest amount from new amount invested = New amount invested * ($3,500 + y) * 0.045 = $157.50 + y0.045

Since total interest amount must equal interest amount from new amount invested, we equate the two and solve as follows:

Total interest amount = Interest amount from new amount invested

$140 + y0.055 = $157.50 + y0.045

We can now solve for y as follows:

y0.055 - y0.045 = $157.50 - $140

y0.01 = $17.50

y = 17.50 / 0.01

y = $1,750

Therefore, additional $1,750 must be invested by Ben.