Answer:
People have glucose in their urine because they reach very high glucose values, that is, glycemic peaks.
Glycemic peaks occur due to a functional lack of the hormone insulin, insulin in this pathology is altered or absent, that is why the cells cannot assimilate energy and glucose does not enter the intracellular medium.
When glycemia reaches very high values, it is secreted by urine, but not all glucose is secreted, that is why high concentrations of glucose will be found in plasma and urine, this is called glycemia or uremia in the case of urine.
Diabetes disease is discovered by laboratory tests and clinical signs, the most frequent are: high blood glucose, glycosylated hemoglobin, uremia, high concentration of ketone bodies or ketoacidosis, ketone breath, alteration of the cardiovascular system, high cholesterol, weakness or fatigue, spontaneous diarrhea, among others.
Explanation:
The nephron is the glomerular filtration unit, in which a filtering of the body's waste takes place, through channels or diffusion waves, these channels or these diffusion mechanisms, some are non-saturable and others are saturated in the face of extreme concentrations, That is why, in the event of glycemic peaks, the nephron is highly demanded to eliminate glucose, and the mechanism of excision by urine could even be oversaturated.
People who suffer from diabetes can be for various reasons, genetic causes, obesity, ideopathic, autoimmune disorders or even due to genetic failure in the formation of the hormone insulin.
The only effective method to be able to regulate this imbalance and help the nephron to eliminate it correctly is by giving the patient injectable insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.
Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS
Answer:
Reduction in body size
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about infection. Which is an example of a reservoir of infection?
Answer: i think it could be the habitat in which the agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies.
Explanation: Basically, the reservoir may or may not be the source from which an agent is transferred to a host.
Answer:
reservoir is the host, may it be a human, animal, plant/soil, water, etc
Explanation:
Why do we need sinuses in our facial bones? Describe why fluid in the maxillary sinus or a sinus infection
cause teeth to ache?
Answer:
Sinus cavities allow for voice resonance
They help filter and add moisture to any air that is inhaled through the nasal passages and in the removal of unwanted particles from the sinus cavities.
Sinus cavities lighten the skull.
Explanation:
Sinus infection tooth pain occurs when the fluid that builds up in the sinus cavities during a sinus infection puts pressure on your upper teeth.
On arrival to the ICU, R.B. begins to thrash, kick her legs, and wave her arms. The portable transport ventilator alarms are ringing. What are the priority nursing assessment
Answer:
When portable transport ventilator alarms are ringing, the priority nursing assessment includes to check if, all the tubes of ventilators are connected properly or not because sometimes movement of the patient can disconnect the tubes.
Sometimes, obstruction of the Endotracheal tube (ETT) from mucus plugs or from patients biting on the tube, causes ringing of alarm and should be assessed on a priority basis.
I. Stress incontinence is
(A) Involuntary voiding from a sudden urge to void
(B) The loss of urine due to an increase in intra-
abdominal pressure, such as from sneezing or
coughing
(C) Involuntary voiding when a specific blad- der
volume is reached
(D) The loss of urine due to overflow or over-
distention of the bladder
We can reach the temperature 120 C In water bath Instrument from :
A) It is not possible.
B) Set up the pressure on 1.5 Kg/cm2.
C) Set up the temperature on 100 C
D) Set up the temperature on 120 C
Answer:
option b is the correct answer
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5. How many calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss? a. 600 calories b. 400 calories c. 100 calories d. 200 calories e. 300 calories
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A BMI of 28.5 for a male shows that he is overweight. Cutting down calories significantly can promote weight loss by 1-2 pounds each week.
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5.600 calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss.
What is BMI ?Body mass index (BMI) can be define as the calculation that is used in healthcare settings which is an indirect method to determine a person's body weight category.
BMI is a measurement can take the data of height, and weight to produce a calculation and this calculation determine the relationship between weight and height.
The reason BMI is used for the correlation between being overweight and having certain health problems, Coronary heart disease, Hypertension, Osteoarthritis, Sleep apnea and respiratory problems
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For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Morbidity involves the condition of having a disease while mortality is the condition of being deceased(dead).
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate. This will ensure all the species affected by the disease aren’t wiped out in an instant as every organisms have different roles to play in the ecosystem.
A young adult is admitted for elective nasal surgery for a deviated septum. Which sign would be an important indicator of bleeding even if the nasal drip pad remained dry and intact?
Answer:
repeated swallowing
Explanation:
In such a situation the most important indicator for bleeding would be repeated swallowing. This is because the bleeding may be occurring and sliding down the back of the individual's throat which may feel like excess saliva, which in term would cause the individual to swallow repeatedly. In this process, the blood may completely pass the nasal drip pad without ever touching it, thus why it is remaining dry and intact.
If a listed dosage on the MAR and the medicine’s packaging do not match, which action should you take?
Answer:
Go and see the doctor
Explanation:
E will tell you hw to take it
should the gender rule be used to determine primary insurance for dependent children? why and why not
Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi. The standard deviation of this sample is most nearly:
Answer:
The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438
Explanation:
We are given that Strength tests on four batches of concrete show them to fail at 81, 78, 86, and 95 ksi.
Data: 81, 78, 86, and 95
We are supposed to find standard deviation of this sample
Formula :[tex]\sqrt{\frac{(x-\bar{x})^2}{n-1}}[/tex]
n = 4
[tex]\bar x=\frac{81+78+86+95}{4}=85[/tex]
Substitute the values in the formula :
Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{(81-85)^2+(78-85)^2+(86-85)^2+(95-85)^2}{4-1}}[/tex]
Standard deviation=7.438
Hence The standard deviation of this sample is 7.438
I drank ammonia what can I do ?
if you have something like vomiting, convulsions, or a decreased level of alertness do not drink water or anything. it makes it hard to shallow.
According to the escience lab manual for lab 1, experiment 3, you need to prepare a 47 mL of a 24% soda/syrup prescription. To do this, you can use the 80% syrup solution and the 10% soda solution that you have in stock. How many mLs of soda solution do you need to create this final solution?
Answer:
33 mL
Explanation:
It is important to recognize that the total amount of pure syrup remains constant:
Total syrup in the stock solution = total syrup in dilute solution
Thus, we can use the dilution formula
V₁c₁ = V₂ c₂
Data:
V₁ = ?; c₁ = 80 %
V₂ = 47 mL; c₂ = 24 %
Calculations:
1. The volume of stock syrup
[tex]\begin{array}{rcl}V_{1}c_{1} & = & V_{2}c_{2}\\V_{1}\times80 \, \% & = & \text{47 mL}\times 24 \, \%\\80V_{1} & = & \text{1130 mL}\\V_{2}&=& \dfrac{\text{1130 mL}}{80}\\\\&=&\text{14 mL}\\\end{array}\\\text{You need $\textbf{14 mL}$ of stock syrup.}[/tex]
2. The volume of soda solution
Total volume of dilute solution = 47 mL
The volume of stock syrup = 14
Volume of soda solution = 33 mL
You need 33 mL of soda solution.
If cancer runs in your family, what will your doctor likely do?
Answer:
Your doctor will most likely treat your family.
Explanation:
When we sleep, what does the brain replenish it’s stock for?
Answer:
it does not replenish shock but has cerebrospinal fluid that absorbs shock
A child is to undergo a tympanostomy tube placement in a freestanding outpatient surgery center. What is the major disadvantage associated with this location? Increased risk for infection
Answer: The options are not complete, they are;
A) Risk for infection
B) Increased healthcare costs
C) Need to be transferred if overnight stay is required
D) Increased disruption of family functioning.
The correct answer to the question is option C
NEED TO BE TRANSFERED IF OVERNIGHT STAY IS REQUIRED.
Explanation: tympanostomy tube placement is a surgical procedure that done by inserting a grommet or a tympanostomy( a tube of less than 2mm in diameter) into the ear drum of a patient/client.the indication or purpose is to maintain an aerated middle ear over a prolonged period of time,this will as well prevent fluid from accumulating in the middle ear.
Incase of complications of tympanostomy tube placement like bleeding or persistent draining of fluid, scarring and weakening of the ear drum or the tube falling out too early, the child might need to be kept in the hospital facility for proper monitoring and this will necessitate the transfer of the child to another hospital facility for good and proper monitoring and management since the tube placement was done in a freestanding out-patient surgery center where there is no provision for admission of patient or overnight stay.
Which method of collecting a dietary history is the most time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete
Questions
Which of the following methods of collecting a dietary history is the most
time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete?
A) food record
B) food frequency questionnaire
C) direct observation
D) 24-hour food recall
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Food Record.
Explanation:
The diet history refers to the historical assessment of an individuals food or dietary intake. It may detail the foods eaten over a 24 hour period, a month or a year.
Dietary History are important as they help to ascertain
whether or not the subject is pre-disposed to malnutrition, determine if there are habits which may lead to obesity, anda dietary combination which will help prevent diseasesCheers!
An 80-year-old client that takes a diuretic for the management of hypertension, informs the nurse that she
taes laxatives daily to promote bowel movements. The nurse assess the client for possible symptoms of
which condition?
Answer:
Hypokalemia
Explanation:
Some diuretics are designed to get rid of potassium. Laxatives create bowel movements which also excrete potassium. Potassium controls cardiac rhythm and can cause death if there is a potassium imbalance.
Which is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?
Answer:
The question is lacking the options, below is the completely stated question and options:
This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV).
A. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
B. atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
C. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
D. atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV
E. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV
Answer:
The correct answer is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV (A.)
Explanation:
The electrical impulse conduction system of the heart refers to the pathways through which electrical signals pass, to cause excitation of specific paths of the heart, leading to depolarization, which in turn leads to contraction and relaxation of the heart. The correct excitation pathway is as follows:
1. Normal excitation originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node, from which depolarization spreads throughout the atria, causing impulses (excitation) to spread from the SA node to the atria. It is believed that this depolarization spreads to the atrial cells through adjacent myocardial cells and myofibrils.
2. Next, the depolarization from the atria reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing excitation of the AV node. The AV node is located on the floor of the right ventricle, close to the interventricular septum. The excitation leaves this site by two pathways; the fast and slow pathways which vary based on the time of transmission of impulses to the next phase.
3. Next, from the AV node, the excitation is passed to the two branches of the bundle of His, which form a network of fibers known as purkinje fibers, from where excitation passes to the apical region of the left and right ventricles causing depolarization of the ventricular myocardium.
Attached to this answer is a picture to show what the pathway looks like.
The correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.
The heart is a cone-shaped hollow muscular organ that possesses the property of generating its own electrical impulses or excitations.
It is divided into four(4) chambers namely the right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium and left atrium.
The correct path of an electrical excitation is from:
The pacemaker: This is also called the sinoatrial (SA) node. It generates the electrical excitations.Atrioventricular (AV) node: The electrical excitation initiated by SA node is then transmitted to AV node. This transmits the signal from atria to ventricles.Atrioventricular (AV) bundle: These are specialised fibres that originate from the AV node. They are the bundle that divides to form the right and left bundle branches.Subendothelial conducting network: This is also called the Purkinje fibres which is formed within the ventricular myocardium.Cardiomyocyte of the left ventricle: The cardiomyocytes are set of cells that generates contractile force in the heart. These are located at the left ventricle.Therefore, the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.
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Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.
Answer: Frequency
Explanation:
Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med
If you diluted 300mL of 8 % benzocaine lotion to 5%, how much could you produce?
The eyes and nose are on the ________ surface of the body
Answer:
Outer
Explanation:
The eyes and nose are the sense organs present on the anterior surface of the body
What are the different types of sense organs ?Human body have five sense organs to see, hear, smell, taste and touch.
Eyes of the visual system provide vision. Human beings have different color of eyes depending on the amount of melanin present in it.
Nose of the olfactory system have nostrils, through which we breathe, smell different odors.
Ears are the auditory organs, perceive sound by detecting vibrations, pressure changes in the surrounding medium through time.
Skin is the sense of touch, is the largest organ of human body. Different receptors are present on the surface of skin to sense pain, temperature, pressure, etc.
The tongue is the organ for taste, have various receptors which can salty, sweet, bitter or sour.
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What are the three types of transmission-based precautions used along with standard precautions?
Airborne, droplet and contact precautions.
Birborne, droplet and indirect precautions.
Birborne, indirect and contact precautions,
Aerobic, anaerobic and contact precautions.
Answer:
Airborne, droplet and contact
Explanation:
For how long should most adults in moderately good physical condition and with healthy lungs be able to hold their breath
Answer:
30 seconds and up to 2 minutes
Explanation:
Most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs. However, this can change depending on things like age, fitness level and general health.
What is Health?The concept of health is comprehensive and includes a state of mind, body and social relations of an individual. Physical fitness is the state of a person's body and their ability to engage in physical activity without experiencing excessive fatigue or physical restrictions. Regular exercise, proper diet, getting enough sleep and avoiding bad habits like smoking and excessive drinking are all necessary to maintain excellent physical health.
Maintaining healthy lungs is important for maintaining physical health in terms of lung health. The lungs are affected by many variables including smoking, air pollution and respiratory diseases. They are in charge of supplying oxygen to the body and eliminating carbon dioxide. Regular exercise can help increase lung capacity and function.
Therefore, most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs.
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Arthrodesis is a procedure sometimes used to treat severe arthritis or a damaged joint.
What is this?
Answer:
joint fusion
Explanation:
The nurse understands that the client who is undergoing induction therapy for leukemia needs additional instruction when the client makes which statement
The question is incomplete as it lacks the group of choices or statements, however the generalized answer is provided on the basis of knowledge.
Answer:
The correct statement would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"
Explanation:
Induction therapy affects the WBC of the patient as it destroys during the therapy which leaves them prone for infection and risk of bleeding tendencies.
Pets like dog or cat contains infection which is dangerous for such patient as there is very low production of new platelets and WBC so one should avoid the contact with the animals or people with cold or cough.
Thus, the correct answer would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"
Which of the following statements comparing elite sprinters to average sprinters is correct? Elite sprinters...
Question 6 options:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
hit the ground harder than average sprinters
apply GRF faster than average sprinters
All of the above are correct
Answer:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
Explanation:
The main difference between elite sprinters and average sprinters is the ability of elite sprinters to make longer, more impactful strides. This allows them to have a greater boost.
This boost is a result of the muscle fibers in your legs, which allow them to make strides that have little contact with the ground, but propel them forward faster than average sprinters. In short, elite sprinters are able to reposition their legs during flight just a little faster than the average sprinter.
Patients receive injectable medications when they're incapable of taking oral medications or when
Answer:
they have an illness such as diabetes
which STD/STI can cause genital warts and cervical cancer A. Syphilis B. HPV C. Gonorrhea D. HIV/AIDS
Answer:
Hpv
Explanation:
Hpv can cause warts and cervical cancer. its the most common viral infection
Answer:
B. HPV
Explanation:
Genital warts a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by certain low-risk strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV). These are different from the high-risk strains that can lead to cervical dysplasia and cancer. HPV is the most common of all STIs.
