Hughey Co. as lessee records a capital lease of machinery on January 1, 2011. The seven annual lease payments of $350,000 are made at the end of each year. The present value of the lease payments at 10% is $1,704,000. Hughey uses the effective-interest method of amortization and sum-of-the-years'-digits depreciation (no residual value). Round to the nearest dollar.

a) Prepare an amortization table for 2 011 and 2012.
b) Prepare all of Hughey's journal entries for 2011.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Both requirements are solved below

Explanation:

An amortization table can be made as follows

DATA

Lease term = 7years

annual lease payments = $350,0000

Present value of the leases payment = $1,704,000

Implicit interest rate = 10%

Requirement A Amortization table for 2011 and 2012

Date   Annual payment  Effective    decreased      Balance

                                          interest        liability                                                                                                                     $1,704,000

12/31/11      $350,000      $170,400     $179,600     $1524,400

12/31/12      $350,000     $152,440     $197,560     $1,326,840

Requirement B journal entries for 2011

January 1  

Entry

                                      DEBIT           CREDIT

Leased machinery     $1,704,000

Lease liability                                   $1,704,000

December 31

Entry

                                      DEBIT           CREDIT

Interest expense       $170,400

Lease liability             $179,600

Cash                                                  $350,000

December 31

Entry

                                                   DEBIT           CREDIT

Depreciation expense(w)         $426,000

Accumulated depreciation                            $426,000

Working

Sum of the years =  (7+6+5+4+3+2+1)    = 28

Cost = $1,704,000

Residual value = $0

Estimated life = 7years

Depreciation expense = $1,704,000 x 7/28

Depreciation expense = $426,000


Related Questions

A project has estimated annual net cash flows of $56,600. It is estimated to cost $339,600.

Required:
Determine the cash payback period.

Answers

Answer:

It will take exactly 6 full years to cover for the initial investment.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $56,600

Initial investment= 339,600

The payback period is the time required for the cash flow to cover the initial investment:

Year 1= 56,600 - 339,600= -283,000

Year 2= 56,600 - 283,000= -226,400

Year 3= 56,600 - 226,400= -169,800

Year 4= 56,600 - 169,800= -113,200

Year 5= 56,600 - 113,200= -56,600

Year 6= 56,600 - 56,600= 0

It will take exactly 6 full years to cover for the initial investment.

Solve the consumer’s problem for John’s optimal demand for Germ-X and Purell. (You should find actual numbers representing the quantity of Germ-X chosen and the quantity of

Answers

Answer:

Hello your question is incomplete below is the missing part and the needed diagram

suppose John is shopping and has $20 to spend on hand sanitizer. He can go with Germ-X (G) at $1 per fluid ounce (pG=1), or he can purchase purell (P) at $1.25 per fluid ounce (Pp=1.25). His utility function for the two different hand sanitizers is as follows:

U = G +1.1P

where G and P are measured in fluid ounces.

Solve the consumer’s problem for John’s optimal demand for Germ-X and Purell. (You should find actual numbers representing the quantity of Germ-X chosen and the quantity of purell chosen

ANSWER:  The solution =  (Germ-x,Purell ) = (20,0).

Explanation:

The consumers problem for John's optimal demand for Germ-x  and Purell as seen in the diagram can solved by John going maximizing his utility given the constraint of the budget,

that means that John will purchase/spend the constrained budget of ($20) on Germ-x  since the unit price of Germ X is at $1 while Purell's unit price is at $1.25 per fluid ounce

The amortization of bond premium on long-term debt should be presented in a statement of cash flows (using the indirect method for operating activities) as a(n)

Answers

Answer:

Operating Activity

Explanation:

The Indirect method, reconciles the Operating Profit to the Operating Cash Flow by adjusting the following items (1) Non Cash flow items previously added or deducted from Operating Profit and (2) Changes in Working Capital items.

Amortization of bond premium is an item of non-cash flow that was previously deducted from Operating Profit and needs to be added back.

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