In a replicated chromosome, there are two identical DNA molecules, which are called sister chromatids.
During DNA replication, the double-stranded DNA molecule unwinds and separates into two complementary strands. Each of these strands serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand by the process of semi-conservative replication. The result is two identical DNA molecules, each consisting of one original strand and one newly synthesized strand, that are held together by a centromere to form a replicated chromosome.
When the cell undergoes mitosis or meiosis, the sister chromatids separate and are distributed to daughter cells, ensuring that each cell receives a complete and identical set of genetic information.
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structures on the tongue that contain groupings of taste buds are called
Structures on the tongue that contain groupings of taste buds are called Fungiform papillae.
Fungiform papillae are small, mushroom-shaped structures found on the surface of the tongue in mammals, including humans. They are one of several types of papillae on the tongue and are most abundant on the front two-thirds of the tongue. Fungiform papillae contain taste buds, which are sensory organs that enable the detection of different flavors.
Taste buds are composed of specialized cells called taste receptor cells, which are responsible for detecting different types of taste, such as sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. These receptor cells are connected to nerve fibers that transmit signals to the brain, where they are interpreted as taste sensations. The number and distribution of fungiform papillae can vary between individuals and can affect a person's ability to taste different flavors.
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the _____ hypothesis states that long term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations. group of answer choices a. savannah b. turnover c. pulse variability d. selection aridity
The pulse variability hypothesis states that long-term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations.
What is the pulse variability hypothesis? The pulse variability hypothesis is a concept that describes how environmental variability affects life on earth. It states that changes in the natural environment may not always be gradual, but instead may occur in pulses, with periods of stability interrupted by short periods of intense variation.
Pulse variability hypothesis refers to the idea that the natural environment is not always in a state of gradual change but, rather, is subject to punctuated shifts where long-term environmental unpredictability results in morphological and behavioral adaptations.
The hypothesis provides an alternative perspective to the traditionally held view of gradual and constant environmental change.
What is environmental unpredictability? Environmental unpredictability refers to an event in which an ecosystem's climate changes abruptly and unpredictably due to environmental factors. Changes to the environment can lead to shifts in populations and in the composition of entire ecosystems.
This kind of environmental unpredictability is one of the major threats to biodiversity.
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Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells. ToF
The given statement "Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells" is true. In this, smaller cell is engulfed by large cell.
What is Endosymbiosis?Endosymbiosis is a theory that is based on the existence of structures that are alike to cells from prokaryotic domains like chloroplasts and ribosomes. The theory was first introduced by Lynn Margulis, an American biologist. The endosymbiotic theory provides evidence on the origin of eukaryotic cells. The eukaryotic cells are thought to have originated from prokaryotic cells in a process known as endosymbiosis.
Endosymbiosis is the process whereby a smaller cell is engulfed by a larger cell, and it continues to live and reproduce inside the larger cell. The theory states that the mitochondria and chloroplasts that are found in the eukaryotic cells are the descendants of the free-living bacteria that were engulfed by larger cells. The mitochondria are thought to have evolved from aerobic bacteria, while the chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from photosynthetic bacteria.
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A human liver cell is very different in structure and function from a nerve cell in the same person. This is best explained by the fact that a. Different genes function in each type of cell b. Liver cells can reproduce while the nerve cells cannot c. Liver cells contain fewer chromosomes than nerve cell
A human liver is very different in structure and function from a nerve cell in the same person. This is best explained by the fact that (a) Different genes function in each type of cell.
Nerve cell is the specialized cell belonging to the nervous system that functions to transmit information all across the body. The nerve cell is also known by the name neuron and it transmits information in the forms of electrical signals.
Genes are the basic hereditary factors that contain the information for the cell to function properly. The genetic material present in each cell of the body is same, yet they functional differently because the expression of genes depends upon the location of the cell and various other factors.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'a'.
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Which of the following agents requires an in-line her and non polyvinyl chloride tubing for adminstration ? A. Busultan B. Daunorubicin C. Cabazlexel D. Pegaspargne
The agent that requires an in-line filter and non-polyvinyl chloride tubing for administration is Busulfan.
What is Busulfan? Busulfan is a medication that is used in chemotherapy to treat various types of cancer. It is a cell cycle non-specific alkylating agent, which means it is active throughout the cell cycle, and it can harm cells at any point during their cycle.
Alkylating agents function by adding alkyl groups to DNA molecules' guanine nucleotide bases, resulting in the cells' DNA being unable to replicate or divide. This causes the cells to die.
What is PVC tubing? Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic that is frequently utilized in medical devices like tubing, bags, and infusion sets. In healthcare settings, PVC is a popular choice because it is inexpensive, light, and clear, making it simple to see the contents of the tube or bag.
PVC, on the other hand, may cause health issues in patients if it comes into contact with certain chemicals. In addition to PVC tubing, filters are used to prevent contaminants from entering the patient's bloodstream and causing infections. Certain drugs are associated with a higher risk of particle contamination, necessitating the use of filters.
The agent that requires an in-line filter and non-polyvinyl chloride tubing for administration is Busulfan.
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Is someone really good in biology? If so can someone please help me with this I’m struggling with it!!
1. Replicated DNA code will be: TAA CGTGAT; 2. mRNA codons are therefore: UAA CGU GAU ; 3. tRNA anticodons are: AUU CGC CUA; 4. Amino acid sequence is: Stop - Arg - Asp
What is codon?Sequence of three consecutive nucleotides in DNA or RNA molecule that codes for specific amino acid is called as codon.
Assuming the original DNA code is the template strand, the replicated DNA code will be:
TAA CGTGAT
To determine the mRNA codons, we need to transcribe DNA code into mRNA by replacing T with U: UAA CGUGAU
mRNA codons are therefore: UAA CGU GAU
The anticodon for UAA is AUU, which pairs with the codon UAA via complementary base pairing. The anticodon for CGU is GCA, which pairs with the codon CGU via complementary base pairing. The anticodon for GAU is CUA, which pairs with the codon GAU via complementary base pairing.
Therefore, tRNA anticodons are: AUU CGC CUA
To determine the amino acid sequence, we need to use genetic code to translate the mRNA codons into their corresponding amino acids.
UAA = Stop codon
CGU = Arginine (Arg)
GAU = Aspartic acid (Asp)
Therefore, amino acid sequence is: Stop - Arg - Asp
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How is the blue ringed octopus different from the other animals in this section?
Answer:
The blue-ringed octopus is one of the most venomous aquatic creatures in the world, setting it apart from other animals. It is capable of paralyzing and killing its prey and predators, including humans, with the powerful neurotoxin it carries called tetrodotoxin when provoked or under danger. The blue-ringed octopus is a recognizable and possibly hazardous marine animal due to its vivid blue rings that emerge when it is threatened.
True or false. All of your cells contain DNA molecules. What makes a brain cell different from a skin cell is that different genes are activated. 
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Some plants reproduce asexually through a process called vegetative propagation. If the climate in a tropical area suddenly becomes arid, what would happen to the plants that reproduced asexually?
If the climate in a tropical area suddenly becomes arid, the plants that reproduce ase-xually would be at risk of drying out and dying.
This is because asexual reduplication doesn't involve the exchange of inheritable material, and so the shops aren't suitable to acclimate to the new environment and come more tolerant of the thirsty climate. Without the exchange of inheritable material, the shops can not evolve to come more resistant to extreme conditions.
As a result, the shops may struggle to survive in the new environment, and may ultimately die due to lack of water and nutrients.
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how are animal, plant, and bacterial cells similar?
Why might tortoises grow to such huge sizes on isolated islands, such as the Galapagos, but not elsewhere?
Tortoises are a collection of terrestrial reptiles that range from plains to woods and include species such as the Greek and Galapagos tortoises. Some species developed huge body proportions with shell lengths surpassing one metre, while others are only 6-8 centimetres long. Despite naturalists' keen interest since Darwin's time, the development of gigantism in turtles remains a mystery.
According to new study, giant tortoises may not be as large as originally thought due to their island lifestyle. The development of giant tortoises may not have been connected to islands as previously believed. Researchers from Argentina and Germany have given the most complete family tree of extinct and living tortoises to date in a first-of-its-kind study. Giant tortoises are now only located on a few exotic islands, most notably the Galápagos Islands, Aldabra Atoll in the Seychelles, and Mauritius. Some can develop to be 1.3m tall and weigh up to 300kg. The Galápagos giant tortoise has 14 recognised varieties, with one more yet to be identified. Thirteen of these species are still living today, while the Pinta Island turtle became extinct in 2012 due to habitat loss.
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Identify the signs that indicate an emergency exists in the video you just watched. Select 3 answers
The following are some typical indicators of an emergency. Unexpected or severe pain Violent pain going through a person, especially in the stomach, head, or casket, may indicate a medical emergency.
Urgent scenario may exist if someone is bleeding heavily and the bleeding won't stop. Having trouble breathing A person who is having problems breathing may be experiencing a medical emergency. This could be the result of an asthma episode, a sympathetic reaction, or other factors. loss of information Someone losing consciousness or losing their memory might be a symptom of an emergency.
Seizures A seizure might be an indication of a serious medical condition. stroke warning signs Sudden impassivity, weakness or chinking on one side of the body, speech difficulties, or unexpected bewilderment may be symptoms of a stroke.
Painful casket It may be an indication of a heart attack if someone is experiencing chest discomfort, particularly if it is accompanied with shortness of breath, nausea, or perspiration.
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19. In humans, a Widow's peak is dominant to having a straight hairline, and free earlobes are dominant to
having attached ones. A woman who is homozygous for her Widow's peak and heterozygous for her
earlobes marries a man that has a straight hairline and is also heterozygous for his earlobes. Determine
the phenotypic ratio. What is the probability that they have a child who looks like mom?
Answer:
Explanation:
there is a 50/100 chance that the child will look like its mom since the dad also has the same characteristics
what is different in the cell cycle in a cancer cell? group of answer choices gap 1 and gap 2 get skipped dna synthesis happens twice normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden the normal checkpoints inhibit cell division
The cell cycle in a cancer cell is different in the sense that normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden. Therefore, the correct option is the third option, "normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden."
What is the cell cycle?The cell cycle refers to the processes that take place between the formation of a eukaryotic cell and its division into two daughter cells. During the cell cycle, several events occur, including the replication of DNA and the distribution of chromosomes to the daughter cells. A typical cell cycle has two main phases: interphase and cell division (mitosis and cytokinesis).
What is the difference between the cell cycle in a normal cell and a cancer cell?During the cell cycle, there are several checkpoints in a normal cell that regulate progression from one phase to the next. These checkpoints ensure that the DNA has been correctly replicated and that the cell is in the correct state to proceed to the next phase.However, in cancer cells, these checkpoints may not function correctly, resulting in abnormal cell proliferation.
This may occur when tumor-suppressing genes are mutated or when oncogenes are activated. The abnormal proliferation of cells in cancer can result in the formation of tumors, which may spread to other parts of the body if left untreated.In summary, the major difference in the cell cycle of a cancer cell is that the normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden.
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Which of these directly bind(s) to the promoter?
"The figure shows the operon. Letters from A to D indicates definite structures. Letter A indicates a region of the DNA which is bound by proteins to activate the transcription of a gene. Letter B indicates a region of DNA that initiates transcription. Letter C indicates an enzyme that produces primary transcript RNA. Letter D indicates different structures which control the rate of transcription."
The factors that bind directly to the promoter are RNA polymerase and transcription factors. A promoter is a DNA sequence that controls the rate of transcription of a gene by giving a binding site for RNA polymerase and transcription factors.
The term "promoter" applies to DNA sequences that are situated upstream of (toward the 5′ region of the sense strand) of the transcription initiation site, which is typically a few hundred base pairs upstream of the transcription start site in eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Promoters are a vital component of gene transcription regulation.
The mechanism of transcription initiation in eukaryotes is complex and necessitates the involvement of numerous protein factors. The following are the factors that bind to the promoter region directly: RNA polymerase, Transcription factors.
In bacteria, the operon is a series of contiguous genes that are transcribed under the control of a single promoter, which generates a single mRNA molecule, which is subsequently translated into individual polypeptides. The term "operon" is utilized to describe the entire transcriptional unit, which comprises an operator region, a promoter region, and a series of genes that are regulated by the operator.
Thus, the correct option is (C) RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind directly to the promoter region.
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Which of the following best illustrates the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and to future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1 ?
Future generations will have the same frequencies of the A and a alleles as generation 2. Individuals with the aa genotype could be produced.
Generation 1Generation 2Generation n AA.67 .87. 87 aa.33 .13 .13
Based on the given information, the best illustration of the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1, would be:
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
This means that the frequency of the A allele (represented by AA) increased from generation 1 to generation 2 and remains the same in future generations. The frequency of the a allele (represented by aa) decreased from generation 1 to generation 2 and also remains the same in future generations. This implies that there is no further change in allele frequencies beyond generation 2, and individuals with the aa genotype can still be produced in future generations.
Therefore, the correct answer is :
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
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The highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water. The most
important factor that influences this concentration of life is the
The highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water. The most important factor that influences this concentration of life is the availability of sunlight.
Sunlight is one of the most important factors in the ocean that affects life. It provides energy to the plants and phytoplankton, which are the primary producers of the ocean. Because of this, they require sunlight for photosynthesis, which is the process that enables them to convert carbon dioxide and water into food. In turn, the primary consumers (zooplankton) feed on these primary producers and convert them into energy, which can then be consumed by higher-level consumers (fish, mammals, etc.).Without sunlight, life in the ocean would not exist. Therefore, the highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water where sunlight is abundant.
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which region of the nephron is adapted for reabsorption, as seen in its length and prominent microvilli? a) proximal convoluted tubule b) distal convoluted tubule c) nephron loop d) collecting duct
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the region of the nephron that is most adapted for reabsorption.
It is a highly coiled and convoluted tube located in the renal cortex and is the first segment of the renal tubule after the Bowman's capsule. The PCT is lined with a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells that have a prominent brush border composed of microvilli, which greatly increase their surface area for absorption.
The PCT reabsorbs approximately 65% of the filtered water and solutes, including glucose, amino acids, ions, and most of the filtered sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions. The reabsorption is accomplished through various transport mechanisms, including diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, and cotransport. This process allows the body to retain necessary nutrients and ions while excreting waste products.
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The Turnover Pulse hypothesis states that _____ eaters faced high rates of extinction during the ice ages. a)Generalist b) insect c) fruit d) specialist
The Turnover Pulse hypothesis states that specialist eaters faced high rates of extinction during the ice ages. So the correct option is D.
The turnover pulse hypothesis is a scientific concept that hypothesizes the extinction of fauna during the Quaternary ice age as a result of climate change. The Turnover Pulse hypothesis proposes that climate change caused a higher rate of extinction throughout the Quaternary period, with the worst of these happening during the ice ages. This hypothesis states that there are several triggers that can cause extinction, including habitat loss, overhunting, disease, climate change, and others Specialists, according to the Turnover Pulse hypothesis, are among the most prone to extinction because they are limited to eating just one or a few types of food.
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imagine that a rat in an operant conditioning chamber is performing very well. he moves the pole and we give him a food pellet every time. then we start a new phase. now we will give him food pellets once, on average, every 15 s, regardless of what he is doing. with this phase change we have switched from contigent to non-contigent reinforcement.
Operant conditioning is a type of learning where behavior is changed through either reinforcement or punishment methods.
What is the meaning of operant conditioning?Operant conditioning is a type of learning where behavior is changed through either reinforcement or punishment. Reinforcement is used to increase the probability of a behavior happening again while punishment is used to decrease the likelihood of a behavior happening again. A rat in an operant conditioning chamber is performing well.
A food pellet is given every time the rat moves the pole. The rat is then taught that by doing the right thing, it will receive food. However, in the next phase, food pellets are given once every 15 seconds regardless of what the rat is doing. With this phase change, we have switched from contingent to non-contingent reinforcement.
Contingent reinforcement is a type of operant conditioning where the behavior being rewarded is happening immediately after the desired behavior. For example, a rat receives a food pellet every time it moves the pole.
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Which of the following data could best support the claim that species B arose from a speciation event in Lake I?a. All of the fish species occupy the same niches in their respective lakes
b. DNA analysis shows fever differences between species A and species B in lake I than between species B and the populations in Lake II
c. Species A and species B have similar body shapes due to convergent evolution in their habitats
d. Individuals of species A from Lake I can mate and produce viable offspring with individuals of species A from Lake II
The claim that species B originated from a speciation event in Lake I is best supported by DNA research, which reveals more differences between species A and species B in more so than between populations of species B in Lake II and Lake I.
Why does rRNA function so well in molecular systematics?It evolves fairly slowly, allowing comparisons to be drawn between creatures that are distantly related, such bacteria and eukaryotes. Comparisons of the DNA sequences in these genes are helpful for analysing relationships between taxa that have diverged hundreds of thousands of years ago since the DNA specifying ribosomal RNA (rRNA) changes fairly slowly.
What circumstances will cause changes in genotype and allele frequencies in populations?The mechanisms that alter allele frequencies are selection, mutation, migration, and genetic drift. The population deviates from Hardy-presumptions Weinberg's when one or more of these forces are at work, and evolution takes place.
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Which idea of evolution is supported by the existence of vestigial structures? O heredity of traits differential reproductive success O increased genetic variation O descent with modification
2.06
Vestigial structures are features of an organism that have lost their original function during the course of evolution. They are remnants of structures that were functional in an ancestral species but are no longer needed.
What is a species ?A species is a basic unit of biological classification that refers to a group of organisms that share similar characteristics and can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. In other words, members of the same species can mate and produce offspring that are capable of reproducing themselves.
The concept of a species is important in biology because it is the fundamental unit of biodiversity. It is used to categorize and understand the diversity of life on Earth. There are many different ways to define a species, but the most widely accepted definition is the Biological Species Concept, which defines a species as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring, but are reproductively isolated from other groups.
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In a pond, algae (plant-like organisms) absorb
sunlight and the fish in the pond eat tadpoles.
These are both examples of how pond organisms
A get their energy
B escape their predators
C remove waste products
D produce new offspring
According to the question these are both examples of how pond organisms get their energy.
What is organisms?Organisms are living things that are made up of cells, have the ability to generate energy, and reproduce. Organisms are found in all different shapes and sizes and can be found on land, in water, and even in the air. All organisms are made up of one or more cells, the basic unit of life. Cells are able to take in energy and nutrients, and use these to produce energy and to grow and reproduce. Organisms use this energy to carry out activities such as moving, eating, and responding to the environment. Organisms can reproduce either through asexual or sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are identical to the parent, while sexual reproduction results in offspring with a combination of the characteristics of both parents. Organisms can be classified into different groups, such as plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria. All organisms interact with each other and the environment in which they live, and these interactions can affect their ability to survive and reproduce.
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ribonucleotide reductase is most important for the synthesis of which macromolecule?
Ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) is an enzyme that plays a critical role in the biosynthesis of deoxyribonucleotides (dNTPs) by converting ribonucleotides (NTPs) to deoxyribonucleotides.
Therefore, RNR is most important for the synthesis of DNA, which is a macromolecule composed of deoxyribonucleotides. Without RNR activity, cells cannot efficiently synthesize the dNTPs required for DNA replication and repair, which can lead to genomic instability and disease.
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which type of organisms are prokaryotic and live in extreme environments such as hot springs, salt lakes, and deep ocean vents?
Archaea is a single-celled, prokaryotic form of life that is very different in form and function from bacteria.
Archaea are a group of microorganisms that are found in a wide range of habitats, including extreme environments such as hot springs, deep-sea vents, and salt flats. They are classified as one of the three domains of life, along with Bacteria and Eukarya.
Archaea are prokaryotes, meaning that they lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They are characterized by their unique cell membrane structure, which is made up of ether-linked phospholipids instead of ester-linked phospholipids found in other organisms. Archaea have diverse metabolic pathways and play important roles in various ecological processes, such as carbon cycling and nitrogen fixation.
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based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, which is likely to be flammable?
Flammability is the ability of a substance to ignite and burn when exposed to fire or flame. Many factors contribute to a substance's flammability, including its chemical composition.
Based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, the one that is most likely to be flammable is Ethanol (C2H6O). Ethanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. It contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon chain. Ethanol is highly flammable, which means that it can easily catch fire and burn. It has a low flash point, which is the minimum temperature at which a substance can ignite and produce a flame. The low flash point of ethanol makes it highly flammable and potentially dangerous. Ethanol is commonly used as a fuel for internal combustion engines, such as in cars, boats, and airplanes. It is also used in the production of alcohol-based products such as hand sanitizers, perfumes, and colognes. However, its high flammability means that it must be handled and stored carefully to avoid accidents or fires.
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17. Which Of These Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile? A. Gly-Gly-Pro-Arg-Arg-Cys-Cys-Gly B. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro C. Pro-Pro-Arg-His-Pro-Pro-Pro-Gly D. Met-Gly-Cys-Pro-Arg-Arg-Pro-Arg
Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile is Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro. The correct answer is B.
This partial protein was most likely assembled by a thermophile because it contains amino acids that have the ability to resist denaturing at high temperatures. At high temperatures, proteins are more stable and have increased thermodynamic stability.
For example, Taq polymerase, which is utilized in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), was isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
The amino acid sequence of a protein can be used to infer its function, conformation, and origin. The amino acid sequence determines the protein's 3D structure, which is critical for its function. The protein's origin, on the other hand, is determined by the organism that produced it.
Therefore, the correct option is B. i.e. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro .
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How is a mutation in a bacterial cell that deletes three base pairs 10 base pairs upstream from the +1 site likely to affect transcription and why?
A mutation in a bacterial cell that deletes three base pairs ten base pairs upstream from the +1 site is likely to affect transcription by preventing the RNA polymerase from binding to the DNA promoter site.
Transcription is the process by which DNA is transcribed into RNA. It is carried out by RNA polymerase, which binds to the DNA promoter site and initiates transcription.
A bacterial mutation that deletes three base pairs ten base pairs upstream from the +1 site is likely to affect transcription because the RNA polymerase will be unable to bind to the promoter site. This is because the promoter site is usually located upstream of the transcriptional start site, where the +1 site is located.
If the three base pairs that are deleted are part of the promoter site, then the RNA polymerase will be unable to bind to the promoter site, and transcription will not occur. If the RNA polymerase is unable to bind to the promoter site, then transcription will not occur.
Therefore, a mutation in a bacterial cell that deletes three base pairs ten base pairs upstream from the +1 site is likely to affect transcription by preventing the RNA polymerase from binding to the DNA promoter site.
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match the phenotypes on the labels at left to the genotypes listed below. labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all. AaBbcc: albino
AAbbCc: agouti brown
AaBBCC: agouti black
aaBbCc: solid color, black
Aabbcc: albino
AABBcc: albino
Answer:
The matched phenotypes and genotypes are given below:
1. AaBbcc- Albino
2. AAbbCc- Agouti brown
3. AaBBCC- Agouti black
4. aaBbCc- Solid color, black.
5. Aabbcc- Albino
6. AABBcc- Albino
Explanation
Given the following phenotypes and genotypes for an organism, match the phenotypes on the labels at left to the genotypes listed below:
Labels: Albino, Agouti brown, Agouti black, Solid color black
Genotypes: AaBbcc, AAbbCc, AaBBCC, aaBbCc, Aabbcc, AABBcc, Solution:
1. AaBbcc- Albino
Both "Aa" and "Bb" are heterozygous dominant, whereas "cc" is homozygous recessive. In this case, Albino is expressed.
2. AAbbCc- Agouti brown
The "A" and "B" alleles are dominant, while the "Cc" allele is recessive. In this case, agouti brown is expressed.
3. AaBBCC- Agouti black
Both "A" and "B" alleles are dominant, while "Cc" is recessive. In this case, Agouti black is expressed.
4. aaBbCc- Solid color, black.
"aa" is homozygous recessive, while "Bb" is heterozygous dominant, and "cc" is homozygous recessive. In this case, solid color, black is expressed.
5. Aabbcc- Albino
Both "a" and "b" alleles are homozygous recessive, while "cc" is homozygous recessive. In this case, Albino is expressed.
6. AABBcc- Albino
Both "A" and "B" alleles are homozygous dominant, while "cc" is homozygous recessive. In this case, Albino is expressed.
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what is an important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele?
The important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele is that selection against a recessive allele reduces the frequency of the allele in the population.
Whereas selection against a dominant allele reduces both the frequency of the allele and the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population. To break it down further, a recessive allele will only produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is homozygous for that allele, meaning that two copies of the allele must be present for it to be expressed. Selection against a recessive allele will only act upon individuals that are homozygous for that allele. Therefore, the frequency of the allele will be reduced in the population, but the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype will remain unaffected.
In contrast, a dominant allele will produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is either homozygous or heterozygous for the allele. Therefore, selection against a dominant allele will act upon both individuals that are homozygous and heterozygous for that allele. This means that the frequency of the allele, as well as the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population, will be reduced.
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