Answer:
annual income = $70,292.52
Explanation:
initial outlay $900,000
in order to determine the net cash flows per year we can use the present value of an ordinary annuity:
PV = annual cash flow x annuity factor
PV = $900,000 annuity factor, 15%, 12 years = 6.1944annual cash flow = $900,000 / 6.1944 = $145,292.52
annual cash flow = [(revenue - operating costs - depreciation) x (1 - tax rate)] + depreciation
revenue - operating costs - depreciation = annual incometax rate = 0?depreciation = $900,000 / 12 = $75,000$145,292.52 = annual income + $75,000
annual income = $145,292.52 - $75,000 = $70,292.52
The EOQ model assumes inventory: Multiple Choice can be delivered immediately upon order. is sold at a steady rate until it is depleted. will be available just as it is needed for production. is held at a constant level. has seasonal fluctuations.
Answer:
is sold at a steady rate until it is depleted
Explanation:
The EOQ means Economic order quantity that refers to a quantity which the company should purchase for its inventory
In this order quantity, the carrying cost and the ordering cost are equivalent to each other
Also we assume that the demand would remain the same and the inventory should be depleted at a fixed rate unless it reaches to a zero
Hence, the second option is correct
All-Mart Discount Stores Corporation contracts to buy ten acres from Suburban Enterprises, Inc., as a site for a new store. The contract calls for a "warranty deed." According to a survey that All-Mart commissions, one corner of an adjacent, enclosed parking lot is on part of the property that Suburban is attempting to convey. Can All-Mart avoid the contract? If so, on what basis? If not, why not?
Answer:
All-Mart can avoid the contract since it didn't meet their specification for the siting of their new store which they planned for. The warranty deed which they called for was to ensure that, all land purchased has guarantee that it would not become an issue for them in the future.
Since one part is an enclosed parking lot which is a public property that Suburban is trying to sell to them, the best would be to avoid it.
Explanation:
TB MC Qu. 149 A machine with a cost... A machine with a cost of $133,000 and accumulated depreciation of $86,500 is sold for $53,000 cash. The amount that should be reported in the operating activities section reported under the direct method is:
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
Under the direct method of cash flow statement the operating activities recorded the cash revenues and cash payment only
In the given situation, there is a machine cost, accumulated depreciation and the sale of the machine is given
Nothing should be recorded in operating activities as the sale of the machine come under the investing activity
Therefore $0 should be reported
Based on the criteria used by Bureau of labor statics,Identify each person status as employed,unemployed, not in labor force ,not in civilion labor force but still part of adult popoulation.
1. Bob is a 71-year-old professor. He teaches only one or two courses a year, but he's still pursuing an active research agenda. ___________.
2. Cho is a 42-year-old autoworker who was just laid off by her employer. She is trying to _________ any kind of job to help make ends meet. ___________.
3. Eric is a 45-year-old accountant who has been out of work for almost a year. He became so discouraged that he gave up on his job search a couple of months ago. __________.
4. Lucia is a 29-year-old who lost her job as an associate producer for a radio station. After spending a few weeks out of work and interviewing for several other positions, she gave up on her job search and decided to go back to grad school. She made that decision a few months ago. ____________.
Kenji is a famous novelist. He is spending the summer at his lake house in upstate New York, doing a little writing each day but mostly spending his time gardening and reading. __________.
Ginny is a 11-year-old student at East Valley Middle School. She babysits her younger brother and does other chores, so her parents give her an allowance of $25 per week.___________.
Answer and Explanation:
The classification is as follows
1. The bob is employed as he is an old professor
2. Cho is unemployed as she is laid off and she is trying to find any kind of job
3. Eric should not be counted in a labor force as he became so discouraged due to which he gave up for the job searching
4. Lucia is unemployed as she lost her job
5. Eric should not be counted in a labor force as he spent most of his time in gardening and reading
6. Ginny should not be counted in an adult population as she is only 11 years old
A customer buys a variable annuity and elects a payout option of Life Income with a 20 year period certain. This means that payments will continue for:
Answer:
the annuitant's life, but if he dies before 20 years elapse, payments continue to his heir(s)
Explanation:
An annuity life payment is a financial option that continues until the annuitant dies. a lump sum payment is made by this annuitant which he uses in securing a payout option of Life Income with a 20 year period certain . This annuity would continues for as long as the customer or annuitant is alive, but if he dies before that certain period, Someone else, that is a beneficiary or heir would be entitled to the payment until that period of 20 years elapses.
A regulated Natural Monopoly is more likely to advertise freely under which of the following types of regulation?
a) price regulation
b) profit regulation
c) output regulation
d) social regulation
Answer:
A
I took the quiz
Explanation:
Ace Cleaning Service is considering expanding into one or more new market areas. Which costs are relevant to Ace's decision on whether to expand?
Answer:
variable and opportunity costs
Explanation:
In simple words, whenever an organisation is planning to expand into new market they should taken into account only those costs which will increase or decrease due to such operations success or failures, therefore, sunk costs would be irrelevant.
Variable cost refers to the cost that increase or decrease with level of operations while opportunity costs relates to the cost profits foregone due to choosing best alternative over second best alternative.
A firm has a required return of 14.2% and a beta of 1.63. If the risk-free rate is currently 5.4%, what is the expected return to the market? Assume that CAPM is correct.
Answer:
10.8%
Explanation:
Required rate of return = Risk free rate + Beta x ( Expected rate - Risk free rate )
14.2% = 5.4% + 1.63 x ( market rate - 5.4% )
14.2% - 5.4% = 1.63 x ( market rate - 5.4% )
8.8% / 1.63 = market rate - 5.4%
5.4% = market rate - 5.4%
Market rate = 5.4% + 5.4%
Market rate = 10.8%
Market rate = 10.8%
Net Present Value Method
The following data are accumulated by Geddes Company in evaluating the purchase of $150,000 of equipment, having a four-year useful life:
Net Income Net Cash Flow
Year 1 $42,500 $80,000
Year 2 27,500 65,000
Year 3 12,500 50,000
Year 4 2,500 40,000
Present Value of $1 at Compound Interest
Year 6% 10% 12% 15% 20%
1 0.943 0.909 0.893 0.870 0.833
2 0.890 0.826 0.797 0.756 0.694
3 0.840 0.751 0.712 0.658 0.579
4 0.792 0.683 0.636 0.572 0.482
5 0.747 0.621 0.567 0.497 0.402
6 0.705 0.564 0.507 0.432 0.335
7 0.665 0.513 0.452 0.376 0.279
8 0.627 0.467 0.404 0.327 0.233
9 0.592 0.424 0.361 0.284 0.194
10 0.558 0.386 0.322 0.247 0.162
a. Assuming that the desired rate of return is 15%, determine the net present value for the proposal. If required, round to the nearest dollar. Use the table of the present value of $1 presented above.
Present value of net cash flow $
Amount to be invested
Net present value $
b. Would management be likely to look with favor on the proposal?
Yes , because the net present value indicates that the return on the proposal is greater than the minimum desired rate of return of 15%.
Answer:
year net cash flow
0 -$150,000
1 $80,000
2 $65,000
3 $50,000
4 $40,000
A) NPV = -$150,000 + ($80,000 x .87) + ($65,000 x .756) + ($50,000 x .658) + ($40,000 x .572) = -$150,000 + $69,600 + $49,140 + $32,900 + $22,880 = -$150,000 + $174,520 = $24,520
B) Yes , because the net present value indicates that the return on the proposal is greater than the minimum desired rate of return of 15%. Since the NPV is positive ($24,520), it means that the cash inflows are higher than the cash outflows when we use a 15% discount rate.
Child Play Inc. manufactures electronic toys within a relevant range of 20,000 to 150,000 toys per year. Within this range, the following partially completed manufacturing cost schedule has been prepared: Complete the cost schedule. When computing the cost per unit, round to two decimal places.
Toys produced 40,000 80,000 120,000
Total costs:
Total variable costs $720,000 d. $ j. $
Total fixed costs 600,000 e. k.
Total costs $1,320,000 f. $ l. $
Cost per Unit
Variable cost per unit a. $ g. $ m. $
Fixed cost per unit b. h. n.
Total cost per unit c. $ i. $ o. $
Answer:
Toys produced 40,000 80,000 120,000
Total costs:
Total variable costs $720,000 $1,440,000 $2,160,000
Total fixed costs $600,000 $600,000 $600,000
Total costs $1,320,000 $2,040,000 $2,760,000
Cost per Unit
Variable cost $18 $18 $18
Fixed cost $15 $7.50 $5
Total cost $33 $25.50 $23
Fixed costs do not change with total output, they are the same regardless so the number of units produced. Variable costs change proportionally to any change in total output. If total output increases, variable costs will increase.
Tyler Company applies manufacturing overhead to production at the rate of $4.9 per direct labor hour and ended August with $12,900 underapplied overhead. Actual manufacturing overhead incurred for August amounted to $110,410.
How many direct labor hours did Tyler Company incur during August?
Answer: 19,900 hours
Explanation:
Direct Labor hours = Applied Manufacturing Overhead/ Applied Overhead rate per hour
Applied Manufacturing Overhead
When the overhead is said to be under-applied, the Applied overhead is less than the Actual Overhead.
To find the Applied overhead therefore;
= Actual Overhead - Under-applied amount
= 110,410 - 12,900
= $97,510
Direct Labor hours = Applied Manufacturing Overhead/ Applied Overhead rate per hour
= 97,510/4.9
= 19,900 hours
Messing Company has their own credit card and makes a credit sale on February 1 to one of its customers for $5,000. Prepare the February 1 journal entry for Messing Company by selecting the account names from the drop-down menus and entering the dollar amounts in the debit or credit columns.
Answer:
February 1
DR Accounts Receivable.......................................$5,000
CR Sales........................................................................................$5,000
(To record sales on credit)
The credit card was that of Messing company itself.
Carla Vista Enterprises buys back 600,000 shares of its stock from investors at $6.50 a share. Two years later, it reissues this stock for $6.00 a share. The stock reissue would be recorded with a debit to Cash for:
Answer:
The stock reissue would be recorded with a debit to Cash for $3,600,000, a debit to additional Paid in capital $300,000 and Credit to treasury stock $3,900,000
Explanation:
Description Debit$ Credit$
Cash 3,600,000
(600,000 * $6.00)
Additional Paid in capital 300,000
(600,000 x $0.50)
Treasury stock 3,900,000
(600,000 * 6.50)
Rose Hill Trading Company is expected to have EPS in the upcoming year of $8. The expected ROE is 18%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 14%. If the firm has a retention ratio of 70%, its dividend in the upcoming year should be _________. A. $1.12 B. $1.44 C. $2.40 D. $5.60
Answer: C. $2.40
Explanation:
Earnings Per Share (EPS) refers to how much of the net income is due to the shareholders and is calculated by dividing the net income by the number of shareholders.
The retention ratio refers to how much of the net income will be held back by the company and not declared as dividends.
The dividends will therefore be the percentage of the EPS that is not held back.
= 8 * ( 1 - 0.7)
= $2.40
Consider the case of Purple Panda Pharmaceuticals: Next year, Purple Panda is expected to earn an EBIT of $2,000,000, and to pay a federal-plus-state tax rate of 30%. It also expects to make $500,000 in new capital expenditures to support this level of business activity, as well as $35,000 in additional net operating working capital (NOWC). Given these expectations, it is reasonable to conclude that next year Purple Panda will generate an annual free cash flow (FCF) of (rounded to the nearest whole dollar).
Answer:
Purple Panda Pharmaceuticals
Annual Free Cash Flow (FCF):
FCF = Sales Revenue - (Operating costs + Taxes) - Required investments in operating capital or net operating profit after taxes - net investment in operating capital =
Net Income = $1,400,000
additional NOWC = 35,000
Capital expenditures = 500,000
FCF = $865,000
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
EBIT = $2,000,000
Tax = 30% or $600,000
Net Income = $1,400,000
additional NOWC = 35,000
Capital expenditures = 500,000
FCF = $865,000
Purple Panda Pharmaceuticals' Free Cash Flow shows what is available for distribution to security holders after the payment of taxes. Purple Panda will use the information from its Free Cash Flow to judge if a project will pay off and generate enough cash flow so that shareholders' value will be enhanced.
Busch Company has these obligations at December 31. For each obligation, indicate whether it should be classified as a current liability, long-term liability, or both. (a) A note payable for $100,000 due in 2 years. select a balance sheet section (b) A 10-year mortgage payable of $200,000 payable in ten $20,000 annual payments. select a balance sheet section (c) Interest payable of $15,000 on the mortgage. select a balance sheet section (d) Accounts payable of $60,000. select a balance sheet section
Answer:
Busch Company
Indication of whether the obligation be classified as a current liability, long-term liability, or both:
(a) A note payable for $100,000 due in 2 years. Long-term Liability
(b) A 10-year mortgage payable of $200,000 payable in ten $20,000 annual payments. Both.
Every year, $20,000 would be classified as Current Liability while the remaining balance is long-term liabilities.
(c) Interest payable of $15,000 on the mortgage. Both
If the interest payable is to be settled at the end of the mortgage, then it is classified as only long-term.
(d) Accounts payable of $60,000. Current Liability
Explanation:
Busch's current liabilities are financial obligations that are due for settlement within the next accounting period of 12 months or less.
The long-term liabilities of Busch Company are those financial obligations that are not due for settlement within the next accounting period.
For some long-term liabilities, Busch may settle some part within 12 months. That part that can be settled within the accounting period are classified as current while the other parts are non-current.
Dragon Sports Inc. manufactures and sells two products, baseball bats and baseball gloves. The fixed costs are $620,000, and the sales mix is 40% bats and 60% gloves. The unit selling price and the unit variable cost for each product are as follows: Products Unit Selling Price Unit Variable Cost Bats $90 $50 Gloves 105 65 a. Compute the break-even sales (units) for the overall enterprise product, E.
Answer:
$15,500 units
Explanation:
For the computation of break-even sales (units) for the overall enterprise product, E first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-
Contribution margin = (Selling price - Variable costs)
For Bats $90 - $50
= $40
For Gloves = $105 - $65
= $40
Overall contribution margin = (40 × 40%) + (40 × 60%)
= $40
a.Break-even point = Fixed costs ÷ Contribution margin
= $620,000 ÷ 40
= $15,500 units
A company has a merit pay plan based on the relative performances of workers teams. Each worker is a team gets the same wage as other team members, but those in more productive teams get higher wages. Which of the following would NOT explain why this incentive might be better than other methods for motivating workers to work harder?
A) If a worker works harder, it increases the productivity of other team members.
B) If a team works harder, it does not affect the productivity of other teams.
C) One worker can easily sabotage the productivity of other workers.
D) One team can easily sabotage the productivity of other teams.
Answer:
C) One worker can easily sabotage the productivity of other workers.
Explanation:
This is a form of compensation by merit that comprises the performance of a team as a whole, so this is a way of motivating both group work and individual work.
In the scenario above, we can see that this compensation plan would be effective in leveraging the performance of individual workers, and of teams, because if each member of the team is more productive, it will benefit the team as a whole. And this method will not affect the productivity of other teams, as each team will be encouraged and engaged to do the best job possible to achieve merit pay.
The alternative that does not correspond to the question that this incentive may be better than other methods to motivate workers to work harder, is the one that says that a worker can sabotage the productivity of other workers, as that worker is also likely to be engaged in not sabotaging the work of other team members, as the remuneration bonuses depend on the effort of the entire team to work together, and not just one employee.
Write a detailed note on Manufacturing Process types and Service process types in process design?
Answer:
Each of the process are used to the crosses organizational borders.
Explanation:
Process structure of manufacturing:
Job process: It is highly adaptable, scaled operation and structured around particular events. Batch process: It most common used in industries. It is small to large batches. Line process: It is the repetitive process and have modular production with large quantity. Continuous flow chart: It is product focused process. It processed only one item at a time.Process design: There are three major process of design
Professional service designMass service designService shop designAn investment adviser places large block trades for securities positions that are being purchased for its customers' accounts in order to lower its commission costs. The trades are often executed piecemeal, at different prices. The adviser, after being confirmed that the entire block has been filled, allocates the shares to its accounts. As a favor to its most valuable employees, the adviser allocates the shares purchased at the lowest prices to its employees' accounts; and then allocates the remaining shares to its customer accounts pro-rata. The adviser has disclosed its allocation method only to its employees. Which statement is TRUE
Answer: The investment adviser has breached its fiduciary duty because it has not disclosed its method of allocating shares to its customers
Explanation:
The options to the question are:
a. The investment adviser has breached its fiduciary duty to its customers because the block order must be executed at one price, not in pieces at differing prices
b. The investment adviser has breached its fiduciary duty because it has not disclosed its method of allocating shares to its customers
c. The investment adviser has not breached its fiduciary duty because it has disclosed its method of allocating shares to its employees
d. The investment adviser has not breached its fiduciary duty to customers because it has obtained trade executions for customers at lower commission costs.
Based on the scenario in the question, it should be noted that the investment adviser has breached its fiduciary duty because it has not disclosed its method of allocating shares to its customers.
Fiduciary duty is a legal obligation whereby a party has to work in the best interest of the other party and should also be trustworthy but in this situation, this isn't thw case.
Kosher Pickle Company acquires all the outstanding stock of Midwest Produce for $12.5 million. The fair value of Midwest's assets is $8.5 million. The fair value of Midwest's liabilities is $1.3 million. Calculate the amount paid for goodwill
Answer:
$5.3 million
Explanation:
Kosher pickle company acquires outstanding stock of Midwest produce for $12.5 million
Fair value of Midwest assets is $8.5 million
Fair value of Midwest liabilities is $1.3 million
The first step is to calculate the fair value of net identifiable assets
= $8.5 million-$1.3 million
=7.2 million
Therefore, the amount paid for goodwill can be calculated as follows
= $12.5 million-$7.2 million
= $5.3 million
Hence the amount paid for goodwill is $5.3 million
Key facts and assumptions concerning Kroger Company, at December 12, 2007, appear below. Using this information, answer the questions following.
Facts and Assumptions
Yield to maturity on long-term government bonds 4.54%
Yield to maturity on company long-term bonds 6.32%
Coupon rate on company long-term bonds 7.50%
Market price of risk, or risk premium 6.30%
Estimated company equity beta 1.05
Stock price per share $ 25.97
Number of shares outstanding 681.2 million
Book value of equity $ 4,965 million
Book value of interest-bearing debt $ 6,674 million
Tax rate 35.0%
a. Estimate Kroger's cost of equity capital.
b. Estimate Kroger's weighted-average cost of capital. Prepare a spreadsheet or table showing the relevant variables.
Answer:
a. 11.16 %
b. 7.56 %
Explanation:
Cost of equity capital is the return that is required by Common Stockholders.
This can be determined as follows :
1. Growth Model
Cost of equity = Recent dividend / Market Price of Share + Expected Growth Rate
or
2. Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
Cost of equity = Return on Risk Free Security + Beta × Return on Market Portfolio Security
= 4.54% + 1.05 × 6.30%
= 11.16 %
WACC = Ke × (E/V) + Kd × (D/V) +Kp × (P/V)
Explanation and value of Variables
Ke = Cost of Equity
= 11.16 %
E/V = Weight of Equity
= $ 4,965 ÷ ( $ 4,965 + $ 6,674)
= 42.66 %
Kd = Cost of Debt :
= Interest × (1 - tax rate)
= 7.50% × ( 1 - 0.35)
= 4.875 or 4.88 %
D/V = Weight of Debt
= $ 6,674 ÷ ( $ 4,965 + $ 6,674)
= 57.34 %
Therefore,
WACC = 11.16 % × 42.66 % + 4.88 % × 57.34 %
= 7.56 %
Choose the statement that is incorrect.
A. In the long run, a rise in the foreign price level brings dollar appreciation and a rise in the U.S. price level brings dollar depreciation.
B. In the long run, a change in the nominal exchange rate brings an equivalent change in the real exchange rate.
C. In the long run, the nominal exchange rate is a monetary phenomenon.
D. In the long run, the nominal exchange rate is determined by the quantities of money in two countries.
Answer:
B. In the long run, a change in the nominal exchange rate brings an equivalent change in the real exchange rate.
Explanation:
As we know that in the short run there is a decline in the nominal exchange that results in a decrease of real exchange rate due to which there is a reduction of the import and the export is risen.
But in the case of the long run, if there is a change in the nominal exchange rate so the real exchange rate would remain the same
This results that if there is a change in the nominal exchange rate so it would not bring the equal change in the real exchange rate
Hence, option B is incorrect
In Macroland autonomous consumption equals 100, the marginal propensity to consume equals 0.75, net taxes are fixed at 40, planned investment is fixed at 50, government purchases are fixed at 150, and net exports are fixed at 20. Planned aggregate expenditure equals:________a.1,000. b.1,160. c.1,280. d.1,440.
Answer:
b) $1,160
Explanation:
From the above information,
I=Investment = 50
G=Government expenditure = 150
X=Net export = 20
a=autonomous consumption = 100
b=Marginal propensity to consume = 0.75
Y=Equilibrium GDP
C = consumption ;
C = 100 + 0.75Y (Y income - 40 taxes)
Planned aggregate expenditure (PAE)
PAE = C + l +G +X
Substituting for C in the above equation,
PAE = 100 + 0.75 (Y - 40) + 50 + 150+ 20
= 100 + 0.75Y -30 + 50 + 150 + 20
= 290 + 0.75Y
Since short run exists when Y = PAE
Therefore,
Y = 290 + 0.75Y
Collect like terms
Y - 0.75Y = 290
0.25Y =290
Y = 290/0.25
Y = 1,160
Lott Company uses a job order cost system and applies overhead to production on the basis of direct labor costs. On January 1, 2020, Job 50 was the only job in process. The costs incurred prior to January 1 on this job were as follows: direct materials $21,200, direct labor $12,720, and manufacturing overhead $16,960. As of January 1, Job 49 had been completed at a cost of $95,400 and was part of finished goods inventory. There was a $15,900 balance in the Raw Materials Inventory account.
During the month of January, Lott Company began production on Jobs 51 and 52, and completed Jobs 50 and 51. Jobs 49 and 50 were also sold on account during the month for $129,320 and $167,480, respectively. The following additional events occurred during the month.
1. Purchased additional raw materials of $95,400 on account.
2. Incurred factory labor costs of $74,200. Of this amount $16,960 related to employer payroll taxes.
3. Incurred manufacturing overhead costs as follows:
Indirect materials $18,020
Indirect labor $21,200
Depreciation expense on equipment $12,720
Various other manufacturing overhead costs on account $16,960.
4. Assigned direct materials and direct labor to jobs as follows.
Job No. Direct Materials Direct Labor
50 $10,600 $5,300
51 41,340 26,500
52 31,800 21,200
Calculate the predetermined overhead rate for 2020, assuming Lott Company estimates total manufacturing overhead costs of $ 882,000, direct labor costs of $735,000, and direct labor hours of 21,000 for the year.
Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.2 per direct labor dollar
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Company estimates total manufacturing overhead costs of $882,000 and, direct labor costs of $735,000
To calculate the predetermined overhead rate, we need to use the following formula:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 882,000/735,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.2 per direct labor dollar
An exchange-rate policy in which the government usually allows the exchange rate to be set by the market, but sometimes intervenes is called a __________________ exchange rate system.
Answer: Managed Float
Explanation:
Also called "Dirty Float", the Managed float is an exchange rate system that allows for the currency of a country to be set by the forces of demand and supply in the market.
However, unlike in a clean float, the Central bank will occasionally intervene in the market to influence the how fast the currency is changing value or to control the direction it is going.
This is usually done to protect the domestic economy from sudden shocks in the global economy.
For its first year of operations, Tringali Corporation's reconciliation of pretax accounting income to taxable income is as follows: Pretax accounting income $ 350,000 Permanent difference (14,700 ) 335,300 Temporary difference-depreciation (19,900 ) Taxable income $ 315,400 Tringali's tax rate is 25%. Assume that no estimated taxes have been paid. What should Tringali report as its income tax expense for its first year of operations
Answer:
Tringali should report $78,850 as its income tax expense for its first year of operation.
Explanation:
The company should use the taxable income of $305,600 to calculate it's income tax expense as it is only on it basis that the tax payable by a firm is determine
Income tax expenses = Taxable income * Tax rate
Income tax expenses = $315,400 x 25%
Income tax expenses = $78,850
The Bathtub Division of Kirk Plumbing Corporation has recently approached the Faucet Division with a proposal. The Bathtub Division would like to make a special "ivory" tub with gold-plated fixtures for the company's 50-year anniversary. It would make only 5,000 of these units. It would like the Faucet Division to make the fixtures and provide them to the Bathtub Division at a transfer price of $160. If sold externally, the estimated variable cost per unit would be $140. However, by selling internally, the Faucet Division would save $6 per unit on variable selling expenses. The Faucet Division is currently operating at full capacity. Its standard unit sells for $43 per unit and has variable costs of $25.
Required:
Compute the minimum transfer price that the Faucet Division should be willing to accept, and discuss whether it should accept this offer.
Answer:
Minimum transfer price = $152
Explanation:
The minimum transfer price can be calculated by Adding variable cost and the contribution margin lost
Minimum transfer price = Variable cost + Contribution margin lost
Minimum transfer price = $134 + $18
Minimum transfer price = $152
Working
Variable cost = $140 -$6(saving) = $134
Contribution margin lost = Selling price - variable cost per unit
Contribution margin lost = $43 - $25
Contribution margin lost = $18
Decision: The offer should be accepted because the minimum transfer price of $152 is less than $160
MicroTech Corporation maintains a capital structure of 40 percent debt and 60 percent common equity. To finance its capital budget for next year, the firm will sell 11% coupon bonds at par value (assume no flotation costs). The firm will finance the rest of its capital expenditures with retained earnings. MicroTech expects next year's dividend to be $1.30 per share. Dividends are expected to grow at 7% per year for the foreseeable future. The current market value of MicroTech's common stock is $30 per share. If the firm has a corporate tax rate of 21%, what is its weighted cost of capital for next year?
Answer:
weighted cost of capital for next year is 10.27 %.
Explanation:
Weighted cost of capital = Ke × (E/V) + Kd × (D/V)
Ke = Cost of Equity
= Dividend Yield + Expected growth rate
= $1.30 / $30.00 + 0.07
= 0.11333 or 11.33 %
Kd = Cost of Debt
= Interest × (1 - tax rate)
= 11% × ( 1 - 0.21)
= 8.69 %
Weighted cost of capital = 11.33 % × 60% + 8.69 % × 40%
= 10.27 %
The stock pays a dividend of $2 per year and its price is $80. If the market return is 7% and the risk-free rate is 1%, what is the stock beta? A. 0.4 B. 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.1
Answer:
The beta of the stock is 0.25 and option C is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The current price of a stock which pays a constant dividend can be determined using the zero growth dividend model of DDM. The formula to calculate the price under this model is,
P0 = Dividend / r
Where,
r is the required rate of return on the stockAs we already know the value of P0 and Dividend, we can plug in these values in the formula and calculate the value of r.
80 = 2 / r
80 * r = 2
r = 2 / 80
r = 2.5% or 0.025
The required rate of return can also be calculated using the CAPM equation. The formula for r under CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterM is the return on marketTo calculate beta, we will input the values for r, rRf and rM in the CAPM equation.
Let beta be x.
0.025 = 0.01 + x * (0.07 - 0.01)
0.025 - 0.01 = x * 0.06
0.015 / 0.06 = x
x = 0.25
Thus, beta is 0.25
