find the sum 7+7(2)+7(2^2)+...+7(2^9)​

Answer:

A. y + 2= x

Step-by-step explanation:

Which equation is represented by the graph shown in the image?

A. y + 2= x

B. y + 1= x

C. y - 1= x

D. y - 2= x

Please show ALL work! <3

The graph shown has a slope of +1 and a y intercept of -2.

All given answer choices have a slope of +1, so that's not the problem.

We need one that has a y-intercept of -2, or the equation should be

y = x-2, or equivalently y+2 = x

which corresponds to answer choice A.

Answer:

C, 39.3 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets first find the area of the rectangle part of the house.

To find the area of a rectangle its base × height.

So its 6×4=24 in².

Now lets find the area of the top triangle.

Area for a triangle is (base × height)/2.

The height is 3 inches, because its 7-4. While the base is 6 inches.

(6×3)/2=9 in².

To find the area of the half circle the formula, (piR²)/2.

The radius of the circle is 2 because its half of the diamter which is 4.

(pi2²)/2=6.283 in².

Now we just need to add up the area of every part,

24+9+6.283=39.283in²

Answer:

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

2 cups: 2/3 cups

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Take and divide each by the smaller number

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

First put in improper fraction form

15/2 : 5/2

Divide each by 5/2

15/2 ÷ 5/2  : 5/2 ÷5/2

15/2 * 2/5  : 1

3 :1   yes

1 cup: 1/4 cups

Divide each by 1/4 ( which is the same as multiplying by 4)

1*4  : 1/4 *1

4 : 1    no

2/3 cups: 1 cup

Divide each by 2/3  ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2/3 * 3/2  : 1 * 3/2

1 : 3/2   no

3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

Change to improper fraction

( 4*3+3)/4  : 2

15/4    : 2

Divide each side by 2

15/8  : 2/2

15/8   : 1    no

2 cups: 2/3 cups

Divide each side by 2/3 ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2 * 3/2 : 2/3 *3/2

3  : 1   yes

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Change to an improper fraction

( 2*2+1)/2 : 5/6

5/2  : 5/6

Divide each side by 5/6( which is the same as multiplying by 6/5)

5/2 * 6/5  : 5/6 * 6/5

3  : 1   yes

The 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

It is defined as the comparison between two quantities that how many times the one number acquires the other number. The ratio can be presented in the fraction form or the sign : between the numbers.

For checking: 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

= (15/2)/(5/2)       [2(1/2) = 5/2]

= 3

For checking:  1 cup: 1/4 cups

= 1/(1/4)

= 4

For checking: 2/3 cups: 1 cup

=(2/3)/1

= 2/3

For checking: 3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

= (15/4)(2)

= 15/8

For checking: 2 cups: 2/3 cups

= (2)/(2/3)

= 3

For checking: 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

= (5/2)/(5/6)

= 3

Thus, the 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

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Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data:

Temp. 174 176 177 178 178 179 180 181

Ratio 0.86 1.31 1.42 1.01 1.15 1.02 1.00 1.74

Temp. 184 184 184 184 184 185 185 186

Ratio 1.43 1.70 1.57 2.13 2.25 0.76 1.37 0.94

Temp. 186 186 186 188 188 189 190 192

Ratio 1.85 2.02 2.64 1.53 2.48 2.90 1.79 3.16

A)

Using the online linear regression calculator, the lie of best fit which models the data above is :

ŷ = 0.09386X - 15.55523

Where ;

X = independent variable

ŷ = predicted or dependent variable

- 15.55523 = intercept

0.09386 = gradient / slope

B)

Point estimate when tank temperature is 186

ŷ = 0.09386(186) - 15.55523

ŷ = 17.45796 - 15.55523

ŷ = 1.90273

C)

Residual error (y - ŷ), ŷ = 1.90273 when x = 186

(0.94 - 1.90273) = −0.96273

(1.85 - 1.90273) = −0.05273

(2.02 - 1.90273) = 0.11727

(2.64 - 1.90273) = 0.73727

D)

To determine the proportion of observed variation in efficiency ratio, we find the Coefficient of determination R^2, which can be found using the online Coefficient of determination calculator : the r^2 value obtained is 0.4433.

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

"4" is the number of variable terms that are in the expression 3x3y + 5x2 _ 4y + z + 9. The four variable terms in the expression are "xy", "x^2", "y" and "z". I hope that this is the answer that you were looking for and the answer has actually come to your desired help. If you need any clarification, you can always ask.

Answer:

  a) position 22

  b) 26

  c) shuffle 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the shuffling occurs so that the bottom card of the top half of the deck (card 26) becomes the bottom card (card 52), while the top card of the bottom half (card 27) becomes the top card (card 1), the sequence of card 1 positions with successive shuffles is ...

  {2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 11, 22, 44, 35, 17, 34, 15, 30, 7, 14, 28, 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, 43, 33, 13, 26, 52, 51, 49, 45, 37, 21, 42, 31, 9, 18, 36, 19, 38, 23, 46, 39, 25, 50, 47, 41, 29, 5, 10, 20, 40, 27, 1}

That is, after the first shuffle, card 1 is at position 2; after the second shuffle, it is at position 4; and so on.

(a) Hence the position of card 1 after the 7th shuffle is 22.

__

(b) The top card is in position 52 after 26 shuffles.

__

(c) The top card is in position 26 after 25 shuffles; the bottom card is in position 27 after 25 shuffles. That is when they first touch. (They touch again after 51 shuffles.)

Answer:

Yes.

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Hope it helps!

Answer:

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The sequence of the problem above is an arithmetic sequence

For an nth term in an arithmetic sequence

F(n) = a + ( n - 1)d

where a is the first term

n is the number of terms

d is the common difference

To find the equation first find the common difference

0.65 - 0.5 = 0.15 or 0.80 - 0.65 = 0.15

The first term is 0.5

Substitute the values into the above formula

That's

f(n) = 0.5 + (n - 1)0.15

f(n) = 0.5 + 0.15n - 0.15

The final answer is

Hope this helps you

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the math test on edge

Answer:

8 feet deep

Step-by-step explanation:

volume = length x width x depth

3496 = 23 x 19 x d

3496 = 437 x d

divide both sides by 437

d = 8

Answer:

The second option.

Step-by-step explanation:

The first option consists of a line that extends at both opposite sides to infinity, with no precise end.

The third option is a ray that has an endpoint of A, and extends to infinity towards B.

The fourth option is a line segment. It has two endpoints, B and A.

The second portion is a ray that has an endpoint B, and extends towards A in one direction, to infinity.

The answer is the 2nd option.

Answer:

Below

Step-by-step explanation:

If d is a positive number then the greatest common factor is 108d.

To get it isolate d and d^2 from the numbers.

108 divides 216. (216 = 2×108)

Then the greatest common factor of 216 and 108 is 108.

For d^2 and d we will follow the same strategy

d divides d^2 (d^2 = d*d)

Then the greatest common factor of them is d.

So the greatest common factor will be 108d if and only if d is positive. If not then 108 is the answer

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1: Find GCF of variables

The equation gives d ² and d as variables. The GCF rules for variables are:

The GCF for the variables is d.

Part 2: Find GCF of bases (Method #1)

The equation gives 108 and 216 as coefficients. To check for a GCF, use prime factorization trees to find common factors in between the values.

Key: If a number is in bold, it is marked this way because it cannot be divided further AND is a prime number!

Prime Factorization of 108

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 108 is 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2² * 3³.

Prime Factorization of 216

216 ⇒ 108 & 2

108 ⇒ 54 & 2

54 ⇒ 27 & 2

27 ⇒ 9 & 3

9 ⇒ 3 & 3

Therefore, the prime factorization of 216 is 2 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 3 * 3, or simplified as 2³ * 3³.

After completing the prime factorization trees, check for the common factors in between the two values.

The prime factorization of 216 is 2³ * 3³ and the prime factorization of 108 is 2² * 3³.  Follow the same rules for GCFs of variables listed above and declare that the common factor is the factor of 108.

Therefore, the greatest common factor (combining both the coefficient and the variable) is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Part 3: Find GCF of bases (Method #2)

This is the quicker method of the two. Simply divide the two coefficients and see if the result is 2. If so, the lesser number is immediately the coefficient.

[tex]\frac{216}{108}=2[/tex]

Therefore, the coefficient of the GCF will be 108.

Then, follow the process described for variables to determine that the GCF of the variables is d.

Therefore, the GCF is [tex]\boxed{108d}[/tex].

Answer:

5/36 ; 1/12 ; 2/9 ; yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Roll of two fair dice : green and red

Probability = (number of required outcomes / number of total possible outcomes)

(a) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6?

Number of required outcomes = 5

P(sum of 6) = 5/36

b.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 10?

Number of required outcomes = 3

P(sum of 10) = 3 / 36 = 1/12

c.) What is the probability of getting a sum of 6 or 10?

P(getting a sum of 6) + P(getting a sum of 10)

(5/36) + (1/12) = (5 + 3) / 36

= 8/36 = 2/9

The events are mutually exclusive because each event cannot occur at the same time.

Answer:

the least integer for n is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

f(x) = ln(1+x)

centered at x=0

Pn(0.2)

Error < 0.01

We will use the format;

[[Max(f^(n+1) (c))]/(n + 1)!] × 0.2^(n+1) < 0.01

So;

f(x) = ln(1+x)

First derivative: f'(x) = 1/(x + 1) < 0! = 1

2nd derivative: f"(x) = -1/(x + 1)² < 1! = 1

3rd derivative: f"'(x) = 2/(x + 1)³ < 2! = 2

4th derivative: f""(x) = -6/(x + 1)⁴ < 3! = 6

This follows that;

Max|f^(n+1) (c)| < n!

Thus, error is;

(n!/(n + 1)!) × 0.2^(n + 1) < 0.01

This gives;

(1/(n + 1)) × 0.2^(n + 1) < 0.01

Let's try n = 1

(1/(1 + 1)) × 0.2^(1 + 1) = 0.02

This is greater than 0.01 and so it will not work.

Let's try n = 2

(1/(2 + 1)) × 0.2^(2 + 1) = 0.00267

This is less than 0.01.

So,the least integer for n is 2

In this exercise we have to use the knowledge of Taylor Polynomial to calculate the requested function, this way we will have;

the least integer for n is 2    

The function given in this exercise corresponds to:

[tex]f(x) = ln(1+x)[/tex]

knowing that the x point will be centered on:

[tex]x=0\\Pn(0,2)\\Error < 0.01[/tex]

By rewriting the equation we have to:

[tex][[Max(f^{(n+1)} (c))]/(n + 1)!] *0.2^{(n+1)} < 0.01[/tex]

So doing the derivatives related to the first function given in the exercise we have to:

[tex]f(x) = ln(1+x)[/tex]

Following this we have to:

[tex]Max|f^{(n+1)} (c)| < n![/tex]

Thus, error is;

[tex](n!/(n + 1)!) * 0.2^{(n + 1)} < 0.01[/tex]

[tex](1/(n + 1))* 0.2^{(n + 1)} < 0.01[/tex]  

Let's try n = 1

[tex](1/(1 + 1)) *0.2^{(1 + 1)} = 0.02[/tex]

This is greater than 0.01 and so it will not work. Let's try n = 2

[tex](1/(2 + 1)) * 0.2^{(2 + 1)} = 0.00267[/tex]

This is less than 0.01. So,the least integer for n is 2.

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Answer:

102 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer and Step-by-step explanation: The null and alternative hypothesis for this test are:

[tex]H_{0}: s_{1}^{2} = s_{2}^{2}[/tex]

[tex]H_{a}: s_{1}^{2} > s_{2}^{2}[/tex]

To test it, use F-test statistics and compare variances of each treatment.

Calculate F-value:

[tex]F=\frac{s^{2}_{1}}{s^{2}_{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{1.26^{2}}{0.93^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{1.5876}{0.8649}[/tex]

F = 1.8356

The critical value of F is given by a F-distribution table with:

degree of freedom (row): 20 - 1 = 19

degree of freedom (column): 20 - 1 = 19

And a significance level: α = 0.05

[tex]F_{critical}[/tex] = 2.2341

Comparing both values of F:

1.856 < 2.2341

i.e. F-value calculated is less than F-value of the table.

Therefore, failed to reject [tex]H_{0}[/tex], meaning there is no sufficient data to support the claim that sham treatment have pain reductions which vary more than for those using magnets treatment.

Answer:

Rational

Step-by-step explanation:

Rational number consists of

-5/6 is a Fraction and we can also simply it to a Decimal.

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

sin(4π/21)

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Rearrange expression

sin(π/3)cos(π/7) - cos(π/3)sin(π/7)

Step 2: Use sin(A ± B)

sin(π/3 - π/7)

Step 3: Evaluate

sin(4π/21)

And we have our answer!

[tex]\displaystyle\\(a+b)^n\\T_{r+1}=\binom{n}{r}a^{n-r}b^r\\\\\\(x+2)^7\\a=x\\b=2\\r+1=5\Rightarrow r=4\\n=7\\T_5=\binom{7}{4}x^{7-4}2^4\\T_5=\dfrac{7!}{4!3!}\cdot x^3\cdot16\\T_5=16\cdot \dfrac{5\cdot6\cdot7}{2\cdot3}\cdot x^3\\\\T_5=560x^3[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{560x^3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](x+2)^7[/tex]

Expand brackets.

[tex](x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2)[/tex]

[tex](x^2 +4x+4) (x^2 +4x+4) (x^2 +4x+4)(x+2)[/tex]

[tex](x^4 +8x^3 +24x^2 +32x+16)(x^3 +6x^2 +12x+8)[/tex]

[tex]x^7 +14x^6 +84x^5 +280x^4 +560x^3 +672x^2 +448x+128[/tex]

The fifth term is 560x³.

Answer: The value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:  x and y are two positive real numbers such that [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] .

Consider [tex](x-2y)^2=x^2-2(x)(2y)+(2y)^2\ \ \ [(a+b)^2=(a^2-2ab+b^2)][/tex]

[tex]=x^2-4xy+4y^2[/tex]

[tex]=x^2+4y^2-4(xy)[/tex]

Put  [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] , we get

[tex](x-2y)^2=17-4(2)=17-8=9[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow\ (x-2y)^2=9[/tex]

Taking square root on both sides , we get'

[tex]x-2y= \pm3[/tex]

Hence, the value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Answer:

height of the candle after 6 hours= 18.6 centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

the function gives a line with a slope of −0.4.

the height of the candle after 11 hours is 16.6 centimeters.

after 6 hours, the height will be

But slope= y2-y1/x2-x1

Y2 is the unknown

Y1 = 16.6

X1= 11 hours

X2= 6 hours

y2-y1/x2-x1= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)/(6-11)= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)/(-5)= -0.4

(Y2-16.6)= -5( -0.4)

(Y2-16.6)= 2

Y2 = 2+16.6

Y2 = 18.6 centimeters

height of the candle after 6 hours= 18.6 centimeters

Answer:

1/2 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

Fairfax to Greenwood is equal to one mile

Now think of it as an equation and substitute 1/2 for fairfax and x for greenwood

1/2 + x = 1

This means that x = 1/2

Because of this from Arcadia to Greenwood it is 1/2 mi

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to find the medians which is when you put the numbers in number order and find the one in the middle.

Class A: 60,65,70,70,75,80,80,85,90,90

=77.5

Class B: 75,85,85,85,90,90,90,90,95,100

=90

That the class B is more advanced, and they probably studied.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{50}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the initial temperature is 40 degrees and it increases by 10, add the two values together to get the final temperature.

40 + 10 = 50

Therefore, the final answer is 50 degrees.

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

If it starts at 40 degrees and increases 10 degrees, it is going to be 50 degrees.  Increases means adding, so it is asking you to add 10 to 40 which is 50.  If it asks decreases in the future you will have to subtract.

Answer:

a)  z (score) 1,53

b)  z ( score) - 1,96

c) 200 students

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Distribution N ( 74;10)

a) From z-table, and for 6,3 %  ( 0,063 ) we find the z (score) 1,53

Note : 6,3 % or 0,063 is the area under the curve, the minimum score neded to get A

b) To fail   2,5 %  ( 0,025 ) from z-table  get - 1,96

c) If the group of  student who did not pass the course (5) correspond to 2,5 % then by simple rule of three

5                 2,5

x ?               100

x = 500/2,5

x = 200

Answer:

300%

Step-by-step explanation:

1 year = 12 months

percent = part/whole * 100%

percent = 12/4 * 100% = 300%

Answer:

please can u follow me I've started following you

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

A baseball player has a batting average (probability of getting on base per time at bat) of 0.215

i.e

let x to be the random variable,

consider [tex]x_1 = \left \{ {{1} \atop {0}} \right.[/tex]  to be if the baseball player has a batting average or otherwise.

Then

p(x₁ = 1) = 0.125

What is the probability that they will get on base more than 6 of the next 15 at bats

So

[tex]\mathtt{x_i \sim Binomial (n,p)}[/tex]

where; n =  15 and p = 0.125

P(x>6) = P(x ≥ 7)

[tex]P(x>6) = \sum \limits ^{15}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=0} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 -0.9735[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Answer:

42  headbands per dancer

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling 1260 headband

Divide by the three coaches

1260/3

420 per coach

Divide by each dancer under a coach

420/10 = 42

Each dancer must sell 42 headbands

Answer:

0.9719

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the mean and standard deviation of the sampling distribution.

μ = 5.1

σ = 1.1 / √49 = 0.157

Find the z score.

z = (x − μ) / σ

z = (4.8 − 5.1) / 0.157

z = -1.909

Use a calculator to find the probability.

P(Z > -1.909)

= 1 − P(Z < -1.909)

= 1 − 0.0281

= 0.9719

The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

Probability is the branch of mathematics concerning numerical descriptions of how likely an event is to occur, or how likely it is that a proposition is true.

In statistics, the standard deviation is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values.

The arithmetic mean is found by adding the numbers and dividing the sum by the number of numbers in the list.

Given,

Mean = 5.1 inches

Standard deviation = 1.1 inches

Sample size = 49

New mean = 4.8

Z score = Difference in mean /(standard deviation / [tex]\sqrt{sample size}[/tex])

Z score = [tex]\frac{4.8-5.1}{1.1/\sqrt{49} }=-1.909[/tex]

Z score = -1.909

Then the probability

P(Z>-1.909)

=1-P(Z>-1.909)

=1-0.0281

=0.9719

Hence, The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

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Find the circumference:

Circumference = 2 x PI x radius:

Circumference = 2 x 3.14 x 16 = 100.48 inches.

A full circle is 360 degrees, a 45 degree angle is 1/8 of a full circle.

Arc length = 100.48 / 8 = 12.56 inches.

Answer:

The percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variable is 80 %.

Step-by-step explanation:

A coefficient of correlation of 0.8 means that dependent variable changes in 0.8 when independent variable changes in a unit. Hence, the percentage of such variation ([tex]\%R[/tex]) is:

[tex]\%R = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}\times 100\,\%[/tex]

Where:

[tex]\Delta x[/tex] - Change in independent variable, dimensionless.

[tex]\Delta y[/tex] - Change in dependent variable, dimensionless.

If [tex]\Delta x = 1.0[/tex] and [tex]\Delta y = 0.8[/tex], then:

[tex]\%R = 80\,\%[/tex]

The percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variable is 80 %.