The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in Separation of Sister Chromatids
The mitotic spindle also begins to develop during prophase. As the cell's two centrosomes move toward opposite poles, microtubules gradually assemble between them, forming the network that will later pull the duplicated chromosomes apart. Kinetochore microtubules attach to the kinetochore of the chromosomes. These attach the chromosome to the poles of the cell. These fibers work to separate the chromosomes during cell division to ensure each daughter cell gets the exact same number of chromosomes and identical genetic information. Mitotic spindles are microtubule-based structures that separate chromosomes during mitosis. In most animals and fungal cells, spindle microtubules nucleate from centrosomes or spindle pole bodies.
(The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.
A. Splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
B. Separation of Sister Chromatids
C. Dissolving the nuclear membrane
D. Triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes)
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Instead of from the sun's energy, where can
certain oceanic living organisms obtain the
energy needed to survive?
A. from the rain
B. from chemical energy associated with deep-ocean thermal
vents
C. from wind
D. from the temperature of the air
Instead of the sun's energy, certain organisms living in the ocean can obtain their energy from the chemical energy associated with deep-ocean thermal vents. Option B.
Alternate form of energy for living organismsAll organisms need energy in order to survive and most organisms obtain their energy directly or indirectly from the sun.
Some organisms are able to obtain their energy directly by fixing carbon dioxide into carbohydrates using the energy from the sun. This process is known as photosynthesis and such organisms are known as producers.
Other organisms, that are not able to directly utilize the energy from the sun rely on the energy fixed by producers. They consume producers and extract their own energy from them. Such organisms are known as consumers.
Instead of the energy from the sun, some organisms are able to make use of the energy locked up in certain chemicals to make carbohydrates. Such chemicals can be found in association with hydrothermal vents deep in oceans. Such organisms carry out chemosynthesis instead of photosynthesis.
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28. Which two sentences describe the role of dialogue in a play?
Oit describes the characters' actions.
OIt explains the historical context.
It moves the play's plot along.
OIt reveals the characters' motivations.
Answer:
It moves the play's plot along.
OIt reveals the characters' motivations.
Explanation:
Answer:
It Moves the plays plot along.
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT the role of an organism in a food web?
A
Producer
B
Scavenger
C
Composer
D
Predator
Answer: D
Explanation: A producer is an organism which produces its own food through photosynthesis. A consumer is an organism which does not make its own food but must get its energy from eating a plant or animal.
Composer is not the role of an organism in a food web. So, the correct option is C.
What is Food web?The feeding relationships between various creatures in an environment are depicted graphically in a food web. It demonstrates how energy and nutrients are transferred from one organism to another as it progresses through the various trophic levels, starting with primary producers (like plants) and going up to herbivores, carnivores, and top predators.
Producers are living things like plants or algae that use photosynthesis or chemosynthesis to create their own nourishment. Animals like vultures and hyenas are examples of scavengers; they consume dead and rotting stuff for food. Predators include animals like lions and hawks that go for and kill prey for sustenance.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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an experiment was set up so that each test tube contained water at a ph of 6.3 and a ph indicator. test tubes 1 and 2 also contained a common pond autotroph. carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid. after three days the four test tubes were found to have these results.
This experiment is a demonstration of the effects of carbon dioxide on the pH of water. Test tube 1 and 2 contained a common pond autotroph, while test tubes 3 and 4 did not.
By introducing a carbon dioxide source, such as the autotroph, it was possible to observe the effect of an increase in carbon dioxide in the water on the pH of the water.
The results of this experiment show that the presence of the autotroph in test tubes 1 and 2 influenced the pH of the water in those test tubes. Test tubes 1 and 2 both had a pH of 7.1 after three days, while test tubes 3 and 4 had a pH of 6.3. This indicates that the autotroph was able to produce carbon dioxide, which dissolved in the water and caused the pH to rise.
This experiment illustrates the importance of carbon dioxide in the aquatic environment. Carbon dioxide is a major component of the carbon cycle, which is responsible for all the life sustaining processes on Earth. By introducing a carbon dioxide source, such as an autotroph, into the water it is possible to observe the effects of carbon dioxide on the aquatic environment.
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Which choice below briefly describes the Kirby-Bauer method of antimicrobic sensitivity testing? Multiple Choice - Broth disk elution - Disk diffusion - Minimal inhibitory concentration testing - Broth dilution
The correct choice is
b. Disc diffusion.
The Kirby-Bauer method for testing antimicrobial susceptibility, Is also known as the disc diffusion method.
It is a method for testing the susceptibility of bacteria to antimicrobial agents.
A disc impregnated with a specific antimicrobial agent is placed on a solid agar plate inoculated with the bacteria to be tested. The antimicrobial agent diffuses out of the disc into the surrounding medium and the zone of inhibition around the disc can be measured.
This allows researchers to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics and select appropriate treatment regimens.
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1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.
Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.
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Which landform is created by a river pouring into a larger body of water?
OA. Delta
B. Beach
C. Dune
D. Moraine
which arrow denotes the domain of tfiib that facilitates the transition from the closed to open promoter complex?
The arrow that denotes the domain of transcription that facilitates the transition from the closed to open promoter complex is the Promoter Open Complex (POC).
POC is the first step of transcription initiation in which the promoter region of a gene is opened up to allow the binding of the RNA Polymerase enzyme. The POC is formed when the transcription factor proteins bind to the promoter region of the gene and recruit the RNA Polymerase enzyme to the promoter. The transcription factor proteins are responsible for forming the POC by unwinding the DNA and creating an open promoter region where the RNA Polymerase can bind and initiate transcription. This process of opening the promoter region to initiate transcription is essential for gene transcription, and without it, the gene will not be expressed.
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Help please!
How can you differentiate someone who has quality hypnosis training and someone who does not?
Answer:
a good hypnotherapist should have these qualities:
a strong sense of responsibility.
emotional strength, to deal with clients' personal problems.
communication skills to listen and talk to the client.
the ability to build a trusting relationship with the client, working with them towards what they want to achieve.
If not it is more than likely a scam.
because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience
because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience hypertension.
High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is characterized by blood pressure that is abnormally high. Your blood pressure fluctuates throughout the day as a result of your activities. Having blood pressure readings that are consistently higher than normal may lead to an assessment of high blood pressure (or hypertension).
In the past few decades impoverished areas have indeed been experiencing a significant transition toward raised blood pressure or hypertension only a few have their blood pressure managed.
This rising burden broadens the inequality gap, makes a significant contribution to massive economic hardships for patients and caregivers, and raises costs for the health system, which is already dealing with issues like low health care professional ratios and a lack of access to medicines. Unhealthy diet (high salt and low fruit and vegetable intake) is an established risk factor for hypertension. Emerging risk factors for hypertension entail pollution (air, water, noise, and light), urbanization, and a reduction in green space. Risk factors that necessitate further in-depth research are low birth weight and social and economic determinants of health.
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Can you please help me
The number of nutrients reduces as you dig deeper in a hole in the ground, as seen by the example.
A is the ideal answer.
If I were to drill a hole through the Earth, where would I go?You could travel from Argentina to China or Spain to New Zealand, but Greenland to Antarctica might be your best bet. All of this is possible because Earth is a spherical, which means that if you dig straight down in the northern hemisphere, you will end up just as far from the equator in the southern hemisphere.
What results from drilling through through the Earth?Without the Coriolis Effect, gravity would pull you down just as it would if you leaped out of a skyscraper, bridge, or other elevated platform. And since there was nothing to slow you down, you soon reached a speed of 6 miles per second. Yikes.
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Evaluate these statements about Koch's postulates, which are used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease. Which of them are true? Select all that apply. The microbe must be present in individuals suffering from the disease and absent from healthy individuals. The microbe does not have to be isolated from the experimental animal as long as the disease is present. If organisms from the pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental animal, the disease symptoms should appear. O The microbe must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
Koch's postulates used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease include :
1. Microbe should be present in individuals suffering from disease and absent from healthy peoples.
2. If organisms from pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental organism, the disease symptoms must appear.
3. The microbe should be isolated and grown in pure culture.
A disease is a selected bizarre condition that negatively influences the structure or feature of all or a part of an organism, and that isn't right now because of any external injury.
Symptoms of illness are regularly not at once the end result of contamination, but a set of advanced responses – sickness behavior with the aid of the body – that helps clear infection and sell healing.
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_______-__________ lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant
from generation to generation.
Purebred or true-breeding lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant from generation to generation.
These lines are created by breeding individuals that consistently produce offspring with the same traits. For example, if a purebred line of plants consistently produces offspring with a particular flower color, then all of the plants in that line will have that flower color. Similarly, if a purebred line of animals consistently produces offspring with a particular coat color, then all of the animals in that line will have that coat color. Purebred lines are used in many areas of biology, including agriculture, animal breeding, and biomedical research.
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A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer.
A single thin layer of flattened cells to irregular boundaries makes up simple squamous epithelium. Those who line the walls of blood vessels and the lungs' air sacs. They also participate in physiological processes such as osmosis and diffusion.
A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the topmost layer. Cuboidal or columnar cells may be found in the deeper layers. Some stratified squamous epithelia are heavily keratinized, while others are barely or not at all.
Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that resemble fish scales and are found in the skin's surface, the lining of hollow organs, and the lining of a respiratory and digestive tracts. Protective functions of stratified squamous epithelium include protection against microorganisms invading underlying tissue and/or protection against water loss. A single basal layer contains stem cells, 2-3 layers of proliferative basaloid cells in the suprabasal region, as well as larger keratinized cells near the surface.
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What would be a reasonable outcome following the complete disappearance of wolves? Gray wolf Red fox Pronghorn Coyote Vole Snowshoe hare Grass, willow, berries O a Coyotes may increase because one of their primary predators is gone ob Coyotes may decline because they eat wolves c. Voles may decline as coyotes become less abundant O d. Grass, willow, and berries will increase as more elk become available
A reasonable outcome following the complete disappearance of wolves is that Coyotes may increase because one of their primary predators is gone which is therefore denoted as option B.
What is a Predator?This is referred to as a type of organism that primarily obtains food by the killing and consuming of other organisms which is therefore why they are referred to as consumers.
In the food chain given, the wolves are the predators of coyotes which is therefore why when they are absent, it will lead to a corresponding increase in the coyote thereby making it the correct choice.
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Cell cycle regulation: proteins• Cell cycle is controlled by cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)- cyclin and CDKs are specific to each checkpoint in each organism- stop progression if things aren't going right- stop cycle at each check point until cyclin/CDK allow progression
The correct answer is Any process that controls the series of events by which a cell goes through the cell cycle is known as Cell cycle regulation.
By phosphorylating the target genes, such as the tumour suppressor protein retinoblastoma, the synthesis of cyclin/CDKs regulates the course of the cell cycle (Rb). The activation of cell-cycle checkpoints in response to DNA damage inhibits the activation of cyclins/CDKs, which is activated by mitogenic signals [8]. Protein kinases called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) depend on a distinct subunit, the cyclin, which supplies the domains necessary for enzymatic activity. In response to various extracellular and intracellular signals, CDKs modify transcription and play significant roles in the regulation of cell division. The groups of protein kinases known as cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) were initially identified for their function in controlling the cell cycle. Additionally, they control mRNA processing, transcription, and nerve cell differentiation.
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Which of the following correctly explain the effect that treating a viral infection with antibiotics has on the course of the infection? The infection's length will remain the same because antibiotics have no effect on eukaryotic or virally encoded enzymes. The infection's length will be shorter because antibiotics activate the immune system, and this decreases the severity of the infection Oc The infection's length will remain the same because viruses do not have DNA or RNA, and so antibiotics do not affect them. Od The infection's length will be shorter because antibiotics can prevent viral entry into the cell by "binding to host-receptor proteins
The statement 'the infection's length will remain the same because antibiotics have no effect on eukaryotic or virally encoded enzymes' correctly explains the effect that treating a viral infection with antibiotics has on the course of the infection.
What is the process of viral infection?The process of viral infection can be defined as any disease state caused by viruses, which are non living entities that can be treated by using antiviral medical drugs and are able to infect certain host cells.
Conversely, antibiotics are medicinal drugs used to faith again pathogenic bacteria, which are prokaryotic microorganisms very different than viruses.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of viral infection is different from the infections caused by bacteria and therefore we cannot use antibiotics to treat viral infections (antibiotics are used to eliminate pahtogenic bacteria from the body).
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Which of the following, if true, would most challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment? (P and S were radiolabeled)
A. Transfer of DNA between phage and bacteria did not occur immediately following insertion of the virus.
B. No 32P was identified in the genetic material of infected step 3 bacteria following bacterial lysis and release of phage virions.
C. 35S-containing coat fragments from phage progeny adsorb to bacteria, although the fragments contain no DNA.
D. Protein which happened not to pick up the 35S label entered the cell from the phage.
No 32P was identified in the genetic material of infected step 3 bacteria following bacterial lysis and release of phage virions is the following, if true, would most challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment.
This answer would challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment, because 32P was radiolabeled and should have been present in the genetic material. If no 32P was identified, then the researchers would have to reconsider the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment.
Genetic material is the genetic information found in the cells of an organism. It is made up of DNA and RNA molecules, which carry the instructions needed for the organism to grow and develop. Genetic material is passed from parent to offspring, and it determines the characteristics of the offspring. Changes in the genetic material can result in different traits in the offspring, or even new species.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is the molecule that stores genetic information in all living things. It is composed of two strands of nucleotides twisted into a double helix. Each nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. The four nitrogenous bases found in DNA are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). The sequence of these bases forms a code that carries instructions for the cell’s growth and development.
RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is a single-stranded molecule that is similar to DNA. It is composed of nucleotides with three nitrogenous bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), and uracil (U), and a sugar called ribose. RNA is involved in the production of proteins, and it is often referred to as the “messenger” molecule because it transfers genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are made. Unlike DNA, RNA is not double-stranded and can exist as single strands.
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The endocrine system regulates physiological processes through the binding of hormones to ______ on target cells. Receptors.
The correct answer is Receptors.The endocrine system regulates physiological processes through the binding of hormones.
Hormones are used by the endocrine system to regulate bodily processes. Hormones control a variety of internal processes, including metabolism, growth, sexual development, and labour induction. They go through the circulation, attach to certain cells, and modify the way that various tissues and organs operate. Hypothalamus: Your brain has a gland that regulates your endocrine system. It makes decisions about when to signal other glands, such as the pituitary gland, to release hormones based on input from your brain system. The hormones are released from the carrier protein at the target cell and diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell's plasma membrane. The target cell's plasma membrane allows steroid hormones to enter and stick to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus.
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Which of the following is/are true statements: O In a positive bacteriological stain, dye does not bind the surface of the cell O Spheres, rods, and spirals are the basic shapes of bacteria O The optical density of a bacterial solution is proportional to the cell concentration O Streak plates spread bacteria so thinly that individual cells are separated from each other O A diluted bacterial suspension is required for successful spread plates
The following is/are true statements are Spheres, rods, and spirals are the basic shapes of bacteria about the bacteria.
Bacteria are labeled into 5 organizations consistent with their primary shapes: round (cocci), rod (bacilli), spiral (spirilla), comma (vibrios) or corkscrew (spirochaetes). The micro organism are commonly of 4 types: Cocci (round micro organism), Bacilli (rod-formed micro organism), Spirilla (spiral or twisted micro organism), Vibrio(comma-formed).
Individual micro organism can anticipate certainly considered one among 3 primary shapes: round (coccus), rodlike (bacillus), or curved (vibrio, spirillum, or spirochete).Spheres, rods, and spirals are the primary shapes of micro organism.
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how do the functions of the cells relate to their number of nuclei?
The nucleus carries the genes, structures that hold the genetic information, and controls and regulates the functions of the cell such as growth and metabolism.
What is a cell?The smallest unit in biology that can sustain life on its own and makes up all living things as well as the body's tissues. The cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm are the three primary components of a cell. The substances that enter and leave the cell are governed by the cell membrane, which encloses the cell.
According to genomics, a cell's membrane-enclosed organelle that houses the chromosomes is called a nucleus. Certain molecules (including proteins and nucleic acids) can enter and exit the nucleus in a selective manner thanks to a network of pores in the nuclear membrane.
This Illustrates the concept of how the functions of the cells relate to their number of nuclei.
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a temperature much higher than the optimal temperature for a particular enzyme is likely to the activity and reaction rate of the enzyme due to in the size and shape of the enzyme's active site.
a. true
b. false
False a temperature significantly higher than the ideal temperature for a specific enzyme is likely to affect the enzyme's activity & reaction rate due to differences in the active site's size and shape.
What does the word "enzyme" mean?A component known as an enzyme works as a catalysts in living things to speed up chemical reactions without undergoing any changes. Enzymes manage the majority of the chemical reactions that make up the biological activities that take place inside of all living things.
How do enzymes operate?Reduced activation energy, or the quantity of energy required for a reaction to start, is a crucial function of enzymes. In order to facilitate the bond-forming and bond-breaking processes in chemical reactions, reactant molecules must bind to enzymes in order for them to hold the reactant molecules.
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oncogenes directly promote cancer by causing unregulated cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations only promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
Oncogenes are genes that are involved in the development of cancer. They have the ability to promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
This results in the formation of a tumor. Tumor suppressor mutations, on the other hand, occur when tumor suppressor genes are either mutated or inactivated. These genes are responsible for regulating cell growth and division, and when they are mutated or inactivated, it can lead to genetic instability, which can eventually lead to tumor formation. Therefore, oncogenes promote cancer directly by causing uncontrolled cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
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Marijuana is an accepted medical treatment for the nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapies.
Numerous small studies have demonstrated that smoking marijuana helps to reduce nausea and vomiting brought on by cancer chemotherapy.
Several studies have shown that marijuana can be smoked or vaporized to reduce neuropathic pain (pain caused by damaged nerves).
Marijuana use enhances food intake in HIV patients, according to studies. There are no studies on the effects of hemp or marijuana oil on people. Studies have long shown that patients who ingested marijuana extracts during clinical trials tended to use painkillers less frequently.
More recently, scientists found that THC and other cannabinoids like CBD destroyed or reduced the growth of several cancer cells growing in test dishes. According to several animal studies, some cannabinoids may inhibit the growth and spread of various malignancies. There have been preliminary clinical trials using cannabis to treat human cancer, and additional studies will likely follow.
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What happens to the molecules in a gas as it is cooled inside o jar
Answer:
The molecules move more slowly when the given sealed jar of gas is cooled. This happens due to the fact that gaseous particles come closer to each other when the temperature is decreased (on cooling). The number of collisions also decreases upon cooling.
Explanation:
If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its dauchter cells have after evtokinesis?
Answer: Also 8
Explanation:
Okay, so the parent cell has eight chrome zone chromosomes. Therefore each daughter cell will also have eight chromosomes because of mitosis.
Answer: 8 daughter cells
Explanation:
Each daughter cell will have 8 chromosomes. That is correct. By the end of mitosis, there are two daughter cells. Each daughter cell will have the same amount of genetic material as the parent – 8 chromosomes.
Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one: A. yoga B. walking C. weightlifting D. push-ups
A. yoga. Yoga practices outperform other aerobic exercises in some cardiorespiratory fitness metrics, according to current CVD preventive guidelines.
Which exercises strengthen the heart and lungs?Exercises that are "pure" aerobic exercises include walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross-country skiing, and many styles of dancing. Sports like tennis, basketball, and soccer can help you get better cardiovascular shape.
Does yoga increase your ability to run?Yoga is equivalent to modest levels of physical activity, according to a clinical experiment that was published in 2007 in BMC Complementary and Alternative Medicine, and is insufficient to increase cardiovascular fitness.
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If you observed that the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow, you would say that the bull and the cow showed
• hybrid inviability.
• gametic isolation.
• temporal isolation.
• hybrid infertility.
• ecological isolation.
The correct answer is gametic isolation. the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow.
Prezygotic barriers come in the form of gametic isolation. When the egg and sperm are discharged but a zygote is not created, gametic isolation occurs. The cell formed when an egg and sperm combine is known as a zygote. The word "gamete" describes reproductive cells like sperm and eggs. The separation between white sage and black sage is among the most known instances of mechanical isolation in plants. The two sage species can't interbreed because they depend on distinct pollinators, although having a similar geographic area.Geographical, temporal, reproductive, and behavioural isolation are a few examples. Two sets of creatures must be incapable of conceiving viable offspring in order for them to be regarded as different species.
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plasma membranes are relatively impermeable to water-soluble molecules because 1. the membranes are waxy. 2. water molecules are nonpolar. 3. their bilayer is comprised of phospholipids. 4. they have salt crystals embedded within them. 5. large proteins extend through both sides of the membranes.
Because phospholipids make up the majority of the bilayer that makes up plasma membranes, they are relatively impenetrable to water-soluble compounds. Option (3) is correct.
The close packing of the lipid tails and their extremely hydrophobic properties are the main reasons why the cell membrane is largely impenetrable to the majority of substances. The hydrophobic fatty acid chains that make up the phospholipid bilayer prevent water-soluble molecules, such as ions and the majority of biological molecules, from passing through the membrane.
The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipid bilayer reject water-soluble substances, such as glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes, thus they require some aid to traverse the membrane. Non-polar (fat-soluble) molecules can pass across the membrane quite easily. The membrane has a relatively low permeability to polar (water soluble) molecules, with a particularly poor permeability to big polar molecules.
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Which of these is ATP?
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of two phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base thymine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base guanine.
At the cellular level, energy is used and stored as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenine, ribose, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the structure of ATP, which is a nucleoside triphosphate.
An organic substance known as a nucleotide is composed of three different subunits: a nucleobase, a sugar with five carbons, and a phosphate group. Either ribose or deoxyribose may be the sugar. So a nucleoside with a phosphate group is a nucleotide. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), a substance made up of adenosine and three phosphate groups, is hydrolyzed by enzymes to provide energy for several biochemical cellular activities. An amino acid is an organic monomer that is used to construct proteins.Chemical energy is the type of energy found in ATP. Chemical energy is a kind of potential energy that is kept in chemical bonds as stored energy. Adenine nucleotides are joined to three phosphate groups to form the molecule known as ATP, or adenosine triphosphate.
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