Koch's postulates used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease include :
1. Microbe should be present in individuals suffering from disease and absent from healthy peoples.
2. If organisms from pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental organism, the disease symptoms must appear.
3. The microbe should be isolated and grown in pure culture.
A disease is a selected bizarre condition that negatively influences the structure or feature of all or a part of an organism, and that isn't right now because of any external injury.
Symptoms of illness are regularly not at once the end result of contamination, but a set of advanced responses – sickness behavior with the aid of the body – that helps clear infection and sell healing.
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A few unidentified seeds were found in a sealed clay jar during an archaeological dig. Radiocarbon dating showed that the seeds were 725 years old. When the seeds were planted, plants grew from them. Based on cell theory, what statements can confidently be made regarding these unidentified plants and seeds?Living cells inside the seeds divide to generate the new plant cells. Tissues in both the plants and the seeds are made of cells.
When the seeds were planted, plants grew from them this indicates that new plant cells are produced when the living cells inside the seeds divide.
The widely accepted scientific theory known as "cell theory" asserts that all living species are composed of cells, that these cells are the fundamental organizational and structural unit of all species, and that all cells are derived from previously existing cells.
In the given scenario, it is abundantly clear that cells makeup both the seeds and the mature plant. In order to produce the new cells of the plants, the living cells that are contained within the seeds multiply.
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Which of the following are advantages to sexual reproductioin? Choose all that apply.
Requires more energy
Variation helps offspring adapt to change
Requires finding a mate
Embryos receive protection
Takes more time
Produces genetically unique offspring
Requires more energy
Answer:
meow meow meow meow, meow meow meow meow, meow meow
Explanation:
meow
1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.
Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.
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In addition to extending the thigh, the biceps femoris rotates the thigh ____ whereas the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh _____
In addition to extending the thigh, the biceps femoris rotates the thigh outwards; whereas the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh inwards.
The biceps femoris rotates the thigh outward (laterally) and the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh inward (medially).
When the biceps femoris contracts, it pulls the femur bone outward and back, resulting in a lateral rotation of the thigh. This outward rotation of the thigh is called external rotation and is commonly seen when executing a squat.
Conversely, when the semimembranosus and semitendinosus contract, they pull the femur bone inward and back, resulting in a medial rotation of the thigh. This inward rotation of the thigh is called internal rotation and is commonly seen when performing a lunge.
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a collection of dna fragments of various lengths was subjected to electrophoresis. arrange these dna molecules in order, based on the distance they would travel from the well. the molecule that travels the shortest distance should be at the top of the list, and the molecule that travels the greatest distance should be at the bottom of the list.
a. 900 bp
b. 2500 bp
c. 4200 bp
d. 6000 bp
e. 8000 bp
DNA fragments spanning varying lengths were separated using electrophoresis. Depending on how far they would go from the well, their pressures would be 8000 bp, 6000 bp, 4200 bp, 2500 bp, and 900 bp.
How does DNA function? What is it?The instructions required for a creature to grow, endure, and reproduce are encoded in its DNA. Dna fragments must be transformed into information that may be used to build proteins, that are molecules, in order to perform these functions.
Where in the body can you find DNA?Nearly every of the body's cells contains the same DNA. Although some DNA can also be found in the mitochondria, the majority of DNA is found inside structures called chromosomes. The DNA in chromosomes is wound around transcription factors (alkaline proteins).
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In a female, the labia minora are two outer, hair-covered folds of skin that enclose the delicate, hair-free folds called the labia majora.
False. In a female, the labia minora are thin textured and smaller in size than the labia majora.
In female reproductive system there are labia which are folds of skin that form the vulva on the outside of the vagina. The labia consist of the labia majora and labia minora. The labia majora are elongated on both sides of the vulva. The middle part forms the pudendal slit and the outer part, is thick and fatty in texture and has fine hairs.
Labia minora are thin textured and smaller in size. Labia minora are located inside the lips of the vagina, precisely in the labia majora and surround the vaginal opening and urethra. The labia minora serve as a protective covering for the clirotis, urethra, and vagina.
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A specimen
is viewed under a x400 magnification.
The magnified image is 10.5 mm wide.
What is the actual width of the specimen?
Give your answer in microns (μm) and to
2 significant figures.
Enter a numbers
The actual width of the specimen would be 26 μm..
Microscope's magnificationA microscope multiplies the size of images so that the small details that cannot be seen with ordinary eyes are magnified for further study.
Thus, if a microscope magnifies an object whose original size is A by X times, the magnification of the object would be calculated as:
Magnification = AX
In other words, the actual size of the object can be determined by dividing it by the number of times the microscope magnified it.
In this case, the microscope magnified the specimen by 400. The magnified width of the specimen is 10.5 mm. Thus, the actual width of the object can be calculated as:
10.5/400 = 0.02625 mm.
In order to give the answer in microns, recall that:
1 mm = 1000 μm
Thus:
0.02625 mm = 0.02625 x 1000
= 26.25 μm
To 2 significant figures, the actual width of the specimen would be 26 μm.
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Which of the following amino acids is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein and which on the interior? Explain.
(a) Valine
(b) Aspartic acid
(c) Phenylalanine
(d) Lysine
Valine is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein because it is a hydrophobic amino acid, meaning it tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water.
Exploring the Differences Between Interior and Exterior Amino Acids in Globular ProteinsValine tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water. Aspartic acid is more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein because it is a polar amino acid and therefore more likely to interact with other polar molecules and be attracted to water. Phenylalanine and lysine are both polar amino acids and are therefore more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein.Learn more about amino acids: https://brainly.com/question/2526971
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oncogenes directly promote cancer by causing unregulated cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations only promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
Oncogenes are genes that are involved in the development of cancer. They have the ability to promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
This results in the formation of a tumor. Tumor suppressor mutations, on the other hand, occur when tumor suppressor genes are either mutated or inactivated. These genes are responsible for regulating cell growth and division, and when they are mutated or inactivated, it can lead to genetic instability, which can eventually lead to tumor formation. Therefore, oncogenes promote cancer directly by causing uncontrolled cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
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2
2² + b² = c²
What is the main benefit of this model?
OA. It shows a pattern for determining the side lengths of a triangle.
OB. It shows the shape and parts of a triangle.
OC. It helps make predictions about the number of sides in a triangle.
OD. It helps visualize the features of a triangle.
Answer: A
Explanation:
a^2+b^2=c^2 is a famous formula known as Pythagorean Theorum.
It can be used to determine a side length of a right triangle based on the length of the other two sides.
A right triangle is a triangle with one angle measuring 90* or having a "right angle."
If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its dauchter cells have after evtokinesis?
Answer: Also 8
Explanation:
Okay, so the parent cell has eight chrome zone chromosomes. Therefore each daughter cell will also have eight chromosomes because of mitosis.
Answer: 8 daughter cells
Explanation:
Each daughter cell will have 8 chromosomes. That is correct. By the end of mitosis, there are two daughter cells. Each daughter cell will have the same amount of genetic material as the parent – 8 chromosomes.
Facilitated diffusion via channels and carrier proteins The majority of solutes that diffuse across the plasma membrane cannot move directly through the lipid bilayer. The passive movement of such solutes (down their concentration gradients without the input of cellular energy) requires the presence of specific transport proteins, either channels or carrier proteins. Diffusion through a transport protein in the plasma membrane is called facilitated diffusion. outside cell Facilitated diffusion across the plasma membrane channel protein carrier protein inside cell Adapted from Biology by Campbell and Reece © 2008 Pearson Education, Inc. Sort the phrases into the appropriate bins depending on whether they are true only for channels, true only for carrier proteins, or true for both channels and carriers. transport solutes down a concentration or electrochemical gradient undergo a change in shape to transport solutes across the membrane provide a hydrophilic path across the membrane provide a continuous path across the membrane allow water molecules and small ions to flow quickly across the membrane transport primarily small polar organic molecules are integral membrane proteins only channels only carriers both channels and carriers
The concept of facilated diffusion is highlighted in general. It occur down the concentration gradient without energy expenditure.
Diffusion that is assisted (facilitated) by a membrane transport channel is referred to as facilitated diffusion. These pathways, which are composed of glycoproteins (proteins with linked carbohydrates), allow substances to flow across the membrane. These channels are nearly typically unique to either a specific molecule or a certain class of molecule (such as an ion channel), and as a result, they are closely associated with specific physiological processes. For instance, GLUT4 is a crucial transporter channel in the treatment of diabetes. A glucose transporter called GLUT4 is present in skeletal muscle and fat. In order for these cells to absorb glucose from the blood, insulin causes GLUT4 to bind to their membranes and insert.
Since this is a passive system, the amount of sugar that enters our cells is inversely proportional to the amount we ingest, up until the point where all of our channels are being utilised (saturation). Cells with type II diabetes mellitus don't insert GLUT4 into their membranes because they don't respond to insulin as well. As a result, blood glucose levels may increase, increasing the risk of renal failure, heart disease, and stroke.
Hence, facilated diffusion is specialized passive transport.
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The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis isSpermatogonia>spermatocyte>spermatid>spermsSpermatid>spermatocyte>spermatogonia>spermsSpermatogonia>spermatid>spermatocyte>spermsSpermatocyte>spermatogonia>spermatid>sperms
In a mature human testis, spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, and sperms should be formed in the proper order during the spermatogenetic process.
Spermatogenesis is the cycle by which haploid spermatozoa are formed. They develop from germ cells. These germ cells develop in the seminiferous tubules of the testis. This cycle begins with the mitotic division of immature microorganisms near the cell layer of the tubules. Thus the primary spermatocyte divides into two haploid daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes. Each secondary spermatocyte now undergoes a second. Each secondary spermatocyte now undergoes a second maturational division that is mitotic. Thus each secondary spermatocyte gives rise to two spermatids that are transformed to form two spermatozoa.
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physical properties can be color and texture . some physical properties of matter such as melting point , boiling point , and hard are observed using the fives senses.
Physical and chemical qualities are present in all matter.
Physical qualities, such as mass, color, and volume, are characteristics that may be measured by scientists without modifying the makeup of the sample being studied (the amount of space occupied by a sample). Chemical characteristics define a substance's distinctive capacity to reacted to produce new chemicals
A substance's physical qualities is a quality that can be seen or quantified without affecting the substance's identity. Shiny silver is a metal with excellent electrical conductivity. The ability to be molded into thin sheets is known as malleability. Salt is brittle and dull, but when it dissolves in water, which it does rather easily, it conducts electricity. Color, hardness, malleability, solubility, electrical conductivity, density, melting point, and boiling point are examples of the physical characteristics of matter.
The hue of the elements does not differ much from one element to the next. Most elements are either colorless, silvery, or gray. Sulfur and chlorine are both yellow in color, copper is (obviously) copper-colored, while elemental bromine is red.
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Can you please help me
The number of nutrients reduces as you dig deeper in a hole in the ground, as seen by the example.
A is the ideal answer.
If I were to drill a hole through the Earth, where would I go?You could travel from Argentina to China or Spain to New Zealand, but Greenland to Antarctica might be your best bet. All of this is possible because Earth is a spherical, which means that if you dig straight down in the northern hemisphere, you will end up just as far from the equator in the southern hemisphere.
What results from drilling through through the Earth?Without the Coriolis Effect, gravity would pull you down just as it would if you leaped out of a skyscraper, bridge, or other elevated platform. And since there was nothing to slow you down, you soon reached a speed of 6 miles per second. Yikes.
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Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one: A. yoga B. walking C. weightlifting D. push-ups
A. yoga. Yoga practices outperform other aerobic exercises in some cardiorespiratory fitness metrics, according to current CVD preventive guidelines.
Which exercises strengthen the heart and lungs?Exercises that are "pure" aerobic exercises include walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross-country skiing, and many styles of dancing. Sports like tennis, basketball, and soccer can help you get better cardiovascular shape.
Does yoga increase your ability to run?Yoga is equivalent to modest levels of physical activity, according to a clinical experiment that was published in 2007 in BMC Complementary and Alternative Medicine, and is insufficient to increase cardiovascular fitness.
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A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer.
A single thin layer of flattened cells to irregular boundaries makes up simple squamous epithelium. Those who line the walls of blood vessels and the lungs' air sacs. They also participate in physiological processes such as osmosis and diffusion.
A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the topmost layer. Cuboidal or columnar cells may be found in the deeper layers. Some stratified squamous epithelia are heavily keratinized, while others are barely or not at all.
Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that resemble fish scales and are found in the skin's surface, the lining of hollow organs, and the lining of a respiratory and digestive tracts. Protective functions of stratified squamous epithelium include protection against microorganisms invading underlying tissue and/or protection against water loss. A single basal layer contains stem cells, 2-3 layers of proliferative basaloid cells in the suprabasal region, as well as larger keratinized cells near the surface.
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Nucleotides in organisms are composed of -
A glucose units in carbohydrate molecules.
B Fat molecules in the cell membrane.
C nitrogenous bases, five-carbon sugars, and phosphate groups.
D ionic bonds, six-carbon sugars, and hydrogen groups.
TRUE OR FALSE abel these ftm tubes to demonstrate your understanding of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic need for or sensitivity to oxygen.
The FTM tubes can be labeled as follow on basis of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic needs:
1. Aerobic, 2. Microaerophilic, 3. Facultative, 4. Anaerobic
The term "metabolism" refers to the biological process that gives humans the energy they need to survive. People's metabolisms can vary from person to person; for example, some people may have a fast metabolism while others may have a slow one. This genetic and hereditary difference in metabolism.
But physical activity and exercise can momentarily change the metabolism from high to slow and from slow to high. When we exercise regularly, our body automatically uses more energy, changing our slow metabolism to a high metabolism.
The complete question is:
Label these FTM tubes to demonstrate your understanding of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic need for or sensitivity to oxygen.
Facultative, Aerobic, Microaerophilic, Anaerobic,
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based on the information given in slides 3 and 5 , for what set of cancer genes does p53 act as a transcription factor?
Answer:
Based on the information given in slides 3 and 5, p53 acts as a transcription factor for a set of genes involved in the cell cycle and apoptosis (programmed cell death).
Slide 3 states that p53 is a transcription factor that regulates the cell cycle and apoptosis. Slide 5 mentions that p53 activates the transcription of a set of genes involved in the cell cycle and apoptosis, including cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor genes (CDKIs) and Bax.
CDKIs are proteins that inhibit the activity of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), which are enzymes that regulate the cell cycle. Bax is a protein that promotes apoptosis.
Therefore, p53 acts as a transcription factor for a set of genes involved in the regulation of the cell cycle and apoptosis, including CDKIs and Bax.
Explanation:
P53 acts as a transcription factor and acts as a guardian of the cell, preventing the cell from getting into the cancer stage, and when the p53 is mutant, then various kinds of cancer are formed.
What is the significance of the p53 ?It is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of cells in the cell cycle and induces DNA repair and apoptosis when the cell is not good enough to go into the cell cycle. Because the loss of functional p53 protein is a common feature of many types of human cancer, it is one of the transcription factors that positively regulate the cell for normal cell division.
Hence, p53 acts as a transcription factor and acts as a guardian of the cell, preventing the cell from getting into the cancer stage, and when the p53 is mutant, then various kinds of cancer are formed.
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Pedigree analysis is often used to determine mode of inheritance (dominant or recessive, for example). Be sure to read the "Tips for Pedigree Analysis" in Figure 14.15 in your text. Consider the following pedigree for the trait albinism (lack of skin pigmentation) in three generations of a family. (Solid symbols represent individuals with albinism.) Complete the unlabeled pedigree by indicating the genotypes for all involved.
In one sense, the term “genotype”—like the term “genome”—refers to the entire set of genes in the cells of an organism. In a narrower sense, however, it can refer to different alleles, or variant forms of a gene, for particular traits, or characteristics.
Based only on a pedigree, you might not always be able to ascertain the genotype of a person. An person may occasionally have homozygous dominant or heterozygous alleles for a characteristic. The relationships between a person and their parents, siblings, and children are frequently used to identify genotypes. The phenotypes of the children can be used to identify the unknown genotype. The unknown individual is homozygous dominant if pairing the recessive phenotypic individual with the unknown dominant phenotype (PP or Pp genotype) results in only dominant phenotypes (no recessive).
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Use extrapolation to determine the environmental salt concentration that is isotonic to the paramecium?
The salt solution concentration is isotonic . More water increases the likelihood that water will enter the Paramecium through osmosis.
The contractile vacuole will need to fill up and then empty out more often if more water enters through osmosis. The paramecium would become overfilled salt solution concentration with water and eventually explode due to the inability of the cell to contain it all. Because the water would collect more quickly in a low salt solution concentration than it would in a high salt solution, it would happen faster if the paramecium was in it.
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Select the two true statements about natural selection.
Only variations that help individuals avoid predators can become more
common through natural selection.
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's
environment.
Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more
common over many generations.
Natural selection can cause an individual to gain new advantageous
variations during its life
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's environment and Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more common over many generations are true statements about the process of natural selection (options 2 and 3).
What is the process of natural selection?The process of natural selection is an evolutionary mechanism associated with the differential survival and reproduction of the most adaptive phenotypes in a given environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of natural selection leads to a change in gene allele frequency due to differential reproduction.
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Through the process of photosynthesis, _____energy from the sun is changed to stored _______ energy.
Answer:
Kinetic, Potential
Explanation:
Since light waves are in motion, their energy is the energy of motion. This would be kinetic energy. Once that energy is stored by the plant during photosynthesis, it becomes potential energy.
If an immunocompromised child lives in a community in which 97% of people have received the MMRV vaccine, herd immunity is likely to protect the child fromA. measlesB. rabiesC. mumpsD. ChickenpoxE. German measlesF. meningitis
If an immunocompromised child lives in a community in which 97% of people have received the MMRV vaccine, herd immunity is likely to protect the child from measles (A), mumps (C), chickenpox (D), german measles (F).
What type of immunity occurs when a person receives the MMR vaccination?When a person receives the MMR vaccination type of immunity which will occur is active Immunity. Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination.MMRV vaccine contain all three vaccines contain live, attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella virus. MMRV vaccine also contains live, attenuated varicella-zoster virus. The lyophilized live MMR vaccines and MMRV vaccine should be reconstituted and administered as recommended by the manufacturersActive immunity refers to the administration of "antigens" in order to activate an immune response, whereas passive immunity refers to the transfer of "antibodies".
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Which of the following, if true, would most challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment? (P and S were radiolabeled)
A. Transfer of DNA between phage and bacteria did not occur immediately following insertion of the virus.
B. No 32P was identified in the genetic material of infected step 3 bacteria following bacterial lysis and release of phage virions.
C. 35S-containing coat fragments from phage progeny adsorb to bacteria, although the fragments contain no DNA.
D. Protein which happened not to pick up the 35S label entered the cell from the phage.
No 32P was identified in the genetic material of infected step 3 bacteria following bacterial lysis and release of phage virions is the following, if true, would most challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment.
This answer would challenge the researchers' conclusions regarding the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment, because 32P was radiolabeled and should have been present in the genetic material. If no 32P was identified, then the researchers would have to reconsider the identity of the genetic material involved in the experiment.
Genetic material is the genetic information found in the cells of an organism. It is made up of DNA and RNA molecules, which carry the instructions needed for the organism to grow and develop. Genetic material is passed from parent to offspring, and it determines the characteristics of the offspring. Changes in the genetic material can result in different traits in the offspring, or even new species.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is the molecule that stores genetic information in all living things. It is composed of two strands of nucleotides twisted into a double helix. Each nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. The four nitrogenous bases found in DNA are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). The sequence of these bases forms a code that carries instructions for the cell’s growth and development.
RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is a single-stranded molecule that is similar to DNA. It is composed of nucleotides with three nitrogenous bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), and uracil (U), and a sugar called ribose. RNA is involved in the production of proteins, and it is often referred to as the “messenger” molecule because it transfers genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are made. Unlike DNA, RNA is not double-stranded and can exist as single strands.
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Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizer because: O compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack. O synthetic fertilizers contain a great many microorganisms, some of which spread plant diseases. O compost contains carbon, and using only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content. O synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole.
Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizers for a variety of reasons. Perhaps the most important of these is that compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack.
These microorganisms help to keep the soil healthy and reduce the chances of plant diseases. The microorganisms in synthetic fertilizers, on the other hand, can sometimes spread plant diseases.
Another advantage of adding compost to farmed soil is that it contains carbon. Over time, the use of only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content, which is essential for healthy soil. In contrast, compost adds carbon and helps maintain the soil’s fertility.
Finally, it’s important to consider the environmental impact of synthetic fertilizers. Synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole. In contrast, compost is a natural product and does not contribute to environmental pollution.
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Which of the following is NOT a
negative ecological (ecosystem-
related) impact on rangelands
from grazing livestock?
A. the weight of the cattle compacts the soil
B. increased wind and water erosion
C. the livestock eat too much grass
D. the livestock waste fertilizes the grasses
Which table best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle? A Phase. event. S. Phase. DNA replication. M. Phase. Nuclear division. B Phase. Event. S. Phase. Nuclear division. M. Phase. Cytoplasm division. C phase. event. S. Phase. cytoplasm division. M. phase. cell growth. D phase. event. s. phase. cell growth. m. phase. DNA replication.
The table that best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle is S phase/DNA replication and M phase/Nuclear division. Option A.
Cell cycleThe cell cycle has two main phases which are further divided into subphases. The main phases are:
S phaseM phaseThe S phase is further divided into:
G1 phase: a phase during which the cell grows and developS phase: a phase during which the cell carries out DNA replicationG2 phase: a phase during which the cell synthesizes proteins.The M phase is further divided into:
ProphaseMetaphaseAnaphaseTelophaseCytokinesisIn other words, the M phase is the active cell division phase.
Following the summary of the cell cycle, the table that best compares what happens during the cell cycle can, thus, be seen as the one that pairs DNA replication with the S phase and nuclear division with the M phase.
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Which of the following is NOT the role of an organism in a food web?
A
Producer
B
Scavenger
C
Composer
D
Predator
Answer: D
Explanation: A producer is an organism which produces its own food through photosynthesis. A consumer is an organism which does not make its own food but must get its energy from eating a plant or animal.
Composer is not the role of an organism in a food web. So, the correct option is C.
What is Food web?The feeding relationships between various creatures in an environment are depicted graphically in a food web. It demonstrates how energy and nutrients are transferred from one organism to another as it progresses through the various trophic levels, starting with primary producers (like plants) and going up to herbivores, carnivores, and top predators.
Producers are living things like plants or algae that use photosynthesis or chemosynthesis to create their own nourishment. Animals like vultures and hyenas are examples of scavengers; they consume dead and rotting stuff for food. Predators include animals like lions and hawks that go for and kill prey for sustenance.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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