Equipotential lines are lines with equal electric potential (for example, all the points with an electric potential of 5.0 V). Using the plot tool that comes with voltmeter (pencil icon) make two equipotential lines at r = 0.5 m and r = 1.5 m. Enable electric field vectors in the simulation. Put an electric field sensor at different points on the equipotential line and note the direction of the electric field vector. What can you conclude about the direction of the electric field vector in relation to the equipotential lines?

The direction for each field vector is perpendicular to equipotential lines.

Take a snapshot of the simulation showing equipotential lines and paste to a word document.

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

433

Explanation:

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 1.25 \ kg[/tex]

    The time taken to make the first complete revolution is  t= 3.60 s

    The displacement of the first complete revolution is  [tex]\theta = 1 rev = 2 \pi \ radian[/tex]

Generally the displacement for one  complete revolution is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

Now given that the stone started from rest [tex]w_i = 0 \ rad / s[/tex]

     [tex]2 \pi =0 + 0.5* \alpha *(3.60)^2[/tex]

     [tex]\alpha = 0.9698 \ s[/tex]

Now the displacement for two  complete revolution is

         [tex]\theta_2 = 2 * 2\pi[/tex]

         [tex]\theta_2 = 4\pi[/tex]

Generally the displacement for two complete revolution is mathematically represented as  

     [tex]4 \pi = 0 + 0.5 * 0.9698 * t^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]t^2 = 25.9187[/tex]

=>   [tex]t= 5.1 \ s[/tex]

So

 The  time taken to complete the next oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\Delta t = t_2 - t[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\Delta t = 5.1 - 3.60[/tex]

     [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

The time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

The given parameters;

The constant angular acceleration of the ball is calculated as follows;

[tex]\theta = \omega t \ + \ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\2\pi = 0 \ + \ 0.5(3.6)^2 \alpha\\\\2\pi = 6.48 \alpha \\\\\alpha = \frac{2 \pi }{6.48} \\\\\alpha = 0.97 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

The time to complete the next revolution is calculated as follows;

[tex]4\pi = 0 + \frac{1}{2} (0.97)t^2\\\\8\pi = 0.97t^2\\\\t^2 = \frac{8\pi }{0.97} \\\\t^2 = 25.91\\\\t = \sqrt{ 25.91} \\\\t = 5.1 \ s[/tex]

[tex]\Delta t = 5.1 \ s \ - \ 3.6 \ s \\\\\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

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Explanation:

Change in Velocity = final velocity - initial velocity

Change in velocity = 30km/h - (- 45km/h )

= 75 km/h due west

Answer:

Explanation:

The e.m.f induced in the coil depend on the following :

(a) No. of turns in the coil

(b) Cross-sectional Area of the coil

(c) Magnitude of Magnetic field

(d) Angular velocity of the coil

Answer:

a)  A = 1.99 μm , b) λ = 0.4134 m , c)  v = 57.2 m / s , d)   s = - 1,946 nm ,

e)      v_max = 1,739 mm / s

Explanation:

A sound wave has the general expression

           s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

where s is the displacement, s₀ the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector and w the angular velocity, in this exercise the expression given is

           s = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) the amplitude of the wave is

        A = s₀

        A = 1.99 μm

b) wave spectrum is

      k = 2π /λ

in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

      λ = 2π / k

      λ = 2π / 15.2

     λ = 0.4134 m

c) the speed of the wave is given by the relation

       v = λ f

angular velocity and frequency are related

       w = 2π f

        f = w / 2π

        f = 869 / 2π

        f = 138.3 Hz

        v = 0.4134 138.3

         v = 57.2 m / s

d) To find the instantaneous velocity, we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

       s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

       s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

       s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

       s = - 1,946 nm

The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) the speed of the oscillating part is

           v = ds / dt)

           v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

           v_maximo = s₀w

           v_maximum = 1.99 869

           v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

let's reduce to mm / s

          v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

          v_max = 1,739 mm / s

a) A is = 1.99 μm , b) λ is = 0.4134 m , c) v is = 57.2 m / s , d) s is = - 1,946 nm, e) v_max is = 1,739 mm / s

When A sound wave has the general expression is:

Then, s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

Now, where s is the displacement, Then, s₀ is the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector, and w the angular velocity, Now, in this exercise the expression given is

s is = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) When the amplitude of the wave is

A is = s₀

Thus, A = 1.99 μm

b) When the wave spectrum is

k is = 2π /λ

Now, in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

Then, λ = 2π / k

After that, λ = 2π / 15.2

Thus, λ = 0.4134 m

c) When the speed of the wave is given by the relation is:

Then, v = λ f

Now, the angular velocity and frequency are related is:

w is = 2π f

Then, f = w / 2π

After that, f = 869 / 2π

Now, f = 138.3 Hz

Then, v = 0.4134 138.3

Thus, v = 57.2 m / s

d) Now, To find the instantaneous velocity, When we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

Then, s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

After that, s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

Then remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

After that, s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

Thus, s = - 1,946 nm

When The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) When the speed of the oscillating part is

Then, v = ds / dt)

Now, v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

When the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

Then, v_maximo = s₀w

After that, v_maximum = 1.99 869

v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

Now, let's reduce to mm / s

Then, v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

Therefore, v_max = 1,739 mm / s

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Answer:

The AC generator has one unbroken slip ring

Explanation:

In physics, the application of electromagnetic induction can be seen in generators and dynamos. Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating electricity using magnets. It found applications in generators and the types of generator they found application is in AC and DC generator.

An AC generator is also called a Dynamo. A DC generator contains what is called a SPLIT RING fixed to the end of the coil which can be separated and coupled back according to the name "split". An AC generator also called a Dynamo makes use of a SLIP ring which cannot be divided into two. It comes as an entity. The presence of this rings is what differentiates a DC generator from an AC generator.

We can replace split rings with slip rings when converting a DC generator to an AC generator and vice versa.

It can therefore be concluded that the difference between a DC and an AC generator is that the AC generator has one unbroken slip ring.

Answer:

The potential will be Va/b

Explanation:

So Let sphere A charged Q to potential V.

so, V= KQ/a. ....(1

Thus, spherical shell B is connected to the sphere A by a wire, so all charge always reside on the outer surface.

therefore, potential will be ,

V ′ = KQ/b = Va/b... That is from .....(1), KQ=Va]

Answer:

A. 990v/m

B.330x10^-8T

C.2.19x10^-6J/m³

D.1.45x10^-11J

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

E. None of these statements are true.

Explanation:

We can't say the exact or approximate amount of tension on the rope, since we do know for sure from the statement who is winning.

for A, the tension on the rope does not depend on if both teams pull are in equilibrium.

for B, the 49ers would be pulling with a force more than 5000 N, if they were winning. The problem is that we can't say with all confidence that they'd be winning.

for C, we don't know how much tension exists on the rope, and its direction, so we can't work out how much tension the 49ers are pulling the rope with.

for D,  just as for C above, we can't work out how much tension there is on the rope, since we do not know how much force the 49ers are pulling with.

we go with option E.

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

The current is  [tex]I = 8.9 *10^{-5} \ A[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  radius is [tex]r = 3.17 \ mm = 3.17 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

      The current density is  [tex]J = c\cdot r^2 = 9.00*10^{6} \ A/m^4 \cdot r^2[/tex]

      The distance we are considering is  [tex]r = 0.5 R = 0.001585[/tex]

Generally current density is mathematically represented as

          [tex]J = \frac{I}{A }[/tex]

Where A is the cross-sectional area represented as

         [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

=>      [tex]J = \frac{I}{\pi r^2 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]I = J * (\pi r^2 )[/tex]

Now the change in current per unit length is mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]dI = 2 J * \pi r dr[/tex]

Now to obtain the current (in A) through the inner section of the wire from the center to r = 0.5R we integrate dI from the 0 (center) to point 0.5R as follows

         [tex]I = 2\pi \int\limits^{0.5 R}_{0} {( 9.0*10^6A/m^4) * r^2 * r} \, dr[/tex]

         [tex]I = 2\pi * 9.0*10^{6} \int\limits^{0.001585}_{0} {r^3} \, dr[/tex]

        [tex]I = 2\pi *(9.0*10^{6}) [\frac{r^4}{4} ] | \left 0.001585} \atop 0}} \right.[/tex]

        [tex]I = 2\pi *(9.0*10^{6}) [ \frac{0.001585^4}{4} ][/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]I = 2 * 3.142 * 9.00 *10^6 * [ \frac{0.001585^4}{4} ][/tex]

        [tex]I = 8.9 *10^{-5} \ A[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given data:

power rating of the heater P= 1010 W

voltage of the heater V= 115 volts

current taken by the heater I= ?

We can apply the power formula to solve for the current in the heater

i.e P= IV

Making I the current subject of formula we have

I= P/V

Substituting our given data into the expression for I we have

I=1010/115= 8.78 A

Answer:

A) it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Explanation:

The hydraulic lever works based on Pascal's law of transmission of pressure through a fluid. In the hydraulic lever, the pressure transmitted is the same.

Pressure transmitted P = F/A

where F is the force applied

and A is the area over which the force is applied.

This pressure can be manipulated on the input end as a small force applied over a small area, and then be transmitted to the output end as a large force over a large area.

F/A = f/a

where the left side of the equation is for the output, and the right side is for the input.

The volume of the displaced fluid will be the same on both ends of the hydraulic lever. Since we know that

volume V = (area A) x (distance d)

this means that the the piston on the input smaller area of the hydraulic lever will travel a greater distance, while the piston on the larger output area of the lever will travel a small distance.

From all these, we can see that the advantage of a hydraulic lever is that it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Answer:

0.35 m³/s

Explanation:

When the pipe's depth is 0.4 m, the area of the circular segment is:

A = ½ R² (θ − sin θ)

The depth of the water is:

h = R (1 − cos(θ/2))

Solving for θ:

0.4 = 0.5 (1 − cos(θ/2))

0.8 = 1 − cos(θ/2)

cos(θ/2) = 0.2

θ/2 = acos(0.2)

θ = 2 acos(0.2)

θ ≈ 2.74 rad

The area is therefore:

A = ½ (0.5 m)² (2.74 − sin 2.74)

A = 0.338 m²

The cross-sectional area when the pipe is full is:

A = π (0.5 m)²

A = 0.785 m²

The flow velocity is constant:

v = v

Q / A = Q / A

(0.15 m³/s) / (0.338 m²) = Q / (0.785 m²)

Q = 0.35 m³/s

Answer:

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of sound in air (v) = 343 m/s

Speed of car (v1) 36 m/s

Frequency(f) = 500 Hz

Find:

Change in the frequency (in Hz)

Computation:

Frequency hear by the observer(before)(f1) = [f(v+v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = [500(343+36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = 552.48 Hz

Frequency hear by the observer(after)(f2) = [f(v-v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = [500(343-36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = f1 - f2

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 552.48 Hz - 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

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Answer:

y ’= y / 2

thus when the slit width is doubled the pattern width is halved

Explanation:

The diffraction of a slit is given by the expressions

          a sin θ = m λ

where a is the width of the slit, λ is the wavelength and m is an integer that determines the order of diffraction.

          sin θ = m λ / a

If this equation

          a ’= 2 a

we substitute

          2 a sin θ'= m λ

          sin θ'= (m λ / a)  1/2

          sin θ ’= sin θ / 2

We can use trigonometry to find the width

         tan θ = y / L

as the angle is small

         tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

         sin θ = y / L  

we substitute

        y ’/ L = y/L   1/2

        y ’= y / 2

thus when the slit width is doubled the pattern width is halved

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the voltage across an inductor is expressed as

[tex]V_l = IX_l\\\\Since\ X_l = 2\pi fL\\V_l = I(2\pi fL)[/tex]

Given parameters

current amplitude I = 1.50mA = 1.5*10⁻³A

inductance L = 0.450mH = 0.450*10⁻³H

Voltage across the inductor [tex]V_l[/tex] = 13.0V

Required

frequency f

Substituting the given parametres into the formula, we have;

[tex]V_l = I(2\pi fL)\\\\13 = 1.50*10^{-3}(2*3.14*f*0.450*10^{-3})\\\\13 = 4.239*10^{-6}f\\\\f = \frac{13}{4.239*10^{-6}} \\\\f = 3,066,761 Hertz\\\\f = 3.067MHz[/tex]

Hence, the frequency required is 3.067MHz

Answer:

8.65x10^3m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

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Answer:

The charge is  [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The electric potential is  [tex]V = 25.0 \ kV = 25.0 *10^{3}\ V[/tex]

     The  mass of the drop is  [tex]m = 0.168 \ m g = 0.168 *10^{-3} \ g = 0.168 *10^{-6}\ kg[/tex]

      The  speed is  [tex]v = 18.8 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the charge on the paint drop due to the electric potential which will give it the speed stated in the question  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]Q = \frac{m v^2 }{ 2 * V }[/tex]

Substituting values

      [tex]Q = \frac{0.168 *10^{-6} (18)^2 }{ 2 * 25*10^3 }[/tex]

       [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

(A). 1620 watt.

(B).0.8885.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to assist or help us in solving this particular Question or problem. So, we have;

Current = 9.35A, direct current at a potential difference of 195 V, frequency of the inverter = 60 Hz alternating current, alternating current with Vmax = 166V and Imax = 19.5A.

(A). The rms power is produced by the inverter = (19.5 /2 ) × 166 = 1620 watt(approximately).

(B). the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter.

P(in) = 195 × 9.35 = 1823.3 watt.

Thus, the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter = 1620/1823.3 = 0.88852324146441793 = 0.8885.

Answer:

A)     K / K₀ = 4   b)     v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

in the problem it indicates that the displacement was doubled (x = 2xo)

starting point. At the position of maximum displacement

      Em₀ = Ke = ½ k (2x₀)²

final point. In the equilibrium position

      [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = K = ½ m v²

        Em₀ = Em_{f}

        ½ k 4 x₀² = K

        (½ K x₀²) = K₀

         K = 4 K₀

          K / K₀ = 4

B) the speed value

          ½ k 4 x₀² = ½ m v²

          v = 4 (k / m) x₀

if we call

           v₀ = k / m x₀

          v = 4 v₀

         v / v₀ = 4

Answer:

1.94cm³/s

Explanation:

1L = 1000cm³

Ihr = 3600s

So

Using

Average flow rate

Fr= 1L/100Km x 700Km/1hr x 1hr/3600s x 1000cm³/ 1L

= 1.94cm³/s

Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m

B. A chemical change

Explanation:

I'm guessing ?