During their life cycle, some animals go through a metamorphosis, or a radical change, before they turn into adults. Which organisms in your table go through a metamorphosis? Explain your reasoning. Ladybug, Common frog, alligator, or human

Answers

Answer 1

During their life cycle, some animals go through a metamorphosis, or a radical change, before they turn into adults. The organisms in the table that go through a metamorphosis are Common frog and Ladybug.

Metamorphosis is the process of transformation from a juvenile form to an adult form in various animals, including insects, amphibians, mammals, and reptiles. It is a marked and sustained change in morphology and physiology occurring at the juvenile stage. The process takes place during the larval stage, and it is significant for the animal to be able to reproduce successfully at a later stage.

Common frog: Common frogs undergo an egg, larvae, tadpole, froglet, and adult stage as a part of their life cycle. The tadpole stage involves metamorphosis. The tadpoles have a long tail, no legs, and gills to breathe in water. After some time, the tadpoles go through metamorphosis, which involves the development of legs, a mouth, and the resorption of their tails, as they prepare to leave the water and become adult frogs.

Ladybug: Another organism that undergoes metamorphosis is the ladybug. Ladybugs begin their life as eggs, then hatch into larvae that look like tiny alligators with long legs. Then they go through a metamorphosis stage before becoming adult ladybugs. During this stage, they rest while their bodies go through a radical transformation. Ladybugs also have different patterns and colors on their wings and body, which develop during metamorphosis. Humans and alligators are organisms that do not undergo metamorphosis. They develop into adult forms directly from their juvenile stages without undergoing marked and sustained changes in morphology and physiology occurring at the juvenile stage.

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Related Questions

Instructions: Using the genetic code wheel, translate the mRNA codons into amino acids. Example mRNA: AUCUUGGAUUCC Amino Acids: AUC-Isoleucine, UUG-Leucine, GAU-Aspartic acid, UCC-Serine mRNA 1: UGAGAAUGAAUU mRNA 2: AUUAAAUGCCCA mRNA 3: CUACUGGGUAUA​

Answers

Translation refers to protein growth, which occurs in the cytoplasm through the interaction between mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. 1) Amino acids: stop - Glu - stop - Ile. 2) Amino acids: Ile - Lys - Cys - Pro. 3) Amino acids: Leu - Leu - Gly - Ile.

What is translation?

The translation is the stage of protein synthesis in which mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA interact to grow the molecule.

The ribosome is in charge of reading mRNA from its 5' extreme to 3' extreme. Meanwhile, tRNA associates with the ribosome to build the polypeptidic chain. Molecule growing occurs according to the mRNA codon sequence.

A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids' assembly.

Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid.

When the new amino acid binds to the growing peptidic chain, the tRNA molecule leaves the ribosome, leaving a space for the next tRNA.

• The start codon AUG is the most common sequence used by eukaryotic cells and is placed near the 5' extreme of the molecule.

• The stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA.

1)

mRNA 1: UGA GAA UGA AUU

amino acids: stop - Glu - stop - Ile

2)

mRNA 2: AUU AAA UGC CCA

amino acids: Ile - Lys - Cys - Pro

3)

mRNA 3: CUA CUG GGU AUA​

amino acids: Leu - Leu - Gly - Ile

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elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called

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Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called gyri (singular: gyrus).

What is gyri?

Gyri (singular gyrus) are elevated folds or ridges in the cerebral cortex of the brain. They are the prominent curved structures between the sulci, which are the shallow grooves on the surface of the brain. The gyri increase the surface area of the cerebral cortex, allowing for more neurons and synapses to be packed into a relatively small space. The arrangement and patterns of gyri and sulci are unique to each individual and form the basis for identifying different areas of the cerebral cortex.

What is cerebral cortex ?

The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain that covers the cerebrum. It is involved in a variety of functions such as perception, voluntary movement, language, learning, and memory. It is composed of folded gray matter and contains approximately 20 billion neurons and 300 trillion synapses, making it one of the most complex structures in the human body.

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Complete question is: Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called gyri

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?A) epidermis, hypodermis, dermisB) dermis, epidermis, hypodermisC) epidermis, dermis, hypodermisD) hypodermis, dermis, epidermisE) dermis, hypodermis, dermis

Answers

The correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane is Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis.

Cutaneous membrane is made up of three layers. They are the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis. These layers are listed in order from the surface to the deepest layer.

Epidermis: It is the outermost layer of the skin. This layer includes the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale. The epidermis serves to safeguard the body against bacterial, viral, and other foreign substances and also to prevent water from leaving the body.

Dermis: The dermis is the second layer of the skin that lies beneath the epidermis. The dermis layer contains hair follicles, blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, and sweat glands. It also contains collagen fibers and elastic fibers that are responsible for skin elasticity and strength.

Hypodermis: Subcutaneous tissue, also known as hypodermis, is the deepest layer of skin. It contains adipose tissue, blood vessels, and nerves. This layer assists in maintaining body temperature and energy storage.

Therefore, the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane is Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis.

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Each enzyme works best at a specific pH. pH environments below or above this preferred level decrease enzyme activity by causing the enzyme to___
- denature
- grawn
- increase
- devisiation

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Each enzyme works best at a specific pH. pH environments below or above this preferred level decrease enzyme activity by causing the enzyme to denature.

What are enzymes?

Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body. They help speed up chemical reactions without being consumed themselves. Each enzyme has a specific three-dimensional shape, which allows it to interact with specific molecules, called substrates. The activity of enzymes is highly dependent on their environment. This includes factors such as temperature, pH, and salt concentration. The optimal pH of enzymes can vary depending on the specific enzyme.

Enzymes work most effectively within a specific pH range. When enzymes are subjected to pH environments outside of their preferred range, they can experience a decrease in activity. This is because the acidity or alkalinity of the environment can cause the enzyme's three-dimensional shape to become altered, leading to denaturation. Denaturation is the process by which a protein loses its structure and function. Therefore, enzymes will have reduced activity if they are not in an environment that suits their specific pH.

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watson and crick proposed the double helix structure model for dna in 1953. which of the following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed?

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Watson and Crick proposed the double helix structure model for DNA in 1953. The following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed is Meselson and Stahl's evidence that DNA replicated semi-conservatively.

Watson and Crick used various facts to determine the molecular model they proposed, including the following: Chargaff's Rule, this rule shows that the amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine in DNA is constant. It also demonstrates that adenine and thymine are complementary base pairs, while guanine and cytosine are complementary base pairs.

X-ray crystallography, the X-ray diffraction pattern of the DNA molecule, discovered by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins, aided Watson and Crick in constructing the double helix structure model of DNA. The double helix structure model of DNA,  Watson and Crick constructed the double helix structure model of DNA based on the complementary base pairing of adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine. The complementary base pairs' weak hydrogen bonds form between the two strands of the helix, stabilizing the double helix structure.

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Which order during labor augmentation would cause the nurse to question the health care provider? Administer oxytocin in dextrose 10% per protocol. Using hypertonic solutions such as dextrose 10% increases the risk for water intoxication because it increases the antidiuretic effects of oxytocin.

Answers

The nurse would question the healthcare provider if the healthcare provider orders to "Administer oxytocin in dextrose 10% per protocol" during labor augmentation. This is because using hypertonic solutions such as dextrose 10% increases the risk for water intoxication since it increases the antidiuretic effects of oxytocin.

Labor augmentation is a process used to stimulate labor contractions when labor is not progressing. This approach is usually used when labor is not progressing properly, and the woman's cervix is not opening. Several procedures, such as the administration of synthetic oxytocin, amniotomy, and nipple stimulation, may be used to augment labor.

Labor augmentation should only be done by a qualified healthcare provider, such as an obstetrician or a certified nurse-midwife.

Oxytocin is a hormone that is naturally produced by the body. During childbirth, the body's oxytocin levels rise, causing the uterus to contract. When labor is stalled, synthetic oxytocin can be given to speed up the process. Oxytocin is frequently given to induce or augment labor.

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which level of organization is the most complex in terms of size and composition?

Answers

Answer: organismal level

Explanation:

The most complex level of organization is the organismal level, where all eleven organ systems function in the human organism, the whole living person.

during the process of transcription, the information in

Answers

During the process of transcription, the information in: (4) DNA is converted into RNA.

Transcription is the process of formation of RNA from the double stranded DNA. This requires the action of the enzyme RNA polymerase. The process takes place in the nucleus itself and is accomplishes by three following steps: initiation, elongation and termination.

RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid. It serves as the genetic material for very few organisms, particularly for viruses. There can be various forms of RNA. The major ones are m-RNA, r-RNA and t-RNA. The m-RNA is the main primary transcript of the DNA formed from transcription.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

During the process of transcription, the information in:

protein is converted into RNA.RNA is converted into DNADNA is converted into protein.DNA is converted into RNA.

the presence of scybala in a fecal specimen indicates: group of answer choices decreased intestinal mobility decrease in digestive enzymes presence of fecal fat parasitic infection

Answers

The presence of scybala in a fecal specimen indicates a parasitic infection. Scybala are tiny, hard pieces of fecal matter created by intestinal parasites.

What is a decreased in digestive enzymes?

The digestive enzyme's capacity to break down food into simple, absorbable components is decreased in digestive enzyme deficiency. This may happen in some pancreatic, liver, or small intestine disorders that impair the production or delivery of digestive enzymes.

Malabsorption of fats in the gastrointestinal tract might result in the presence of fatty stools, which are described as greasy, oily, and smelly. Fecal fat examination is the testing of fecal samples to evaluate the amount of fat that has been excreted. These parasites feed off nutrients in the body, leading to decreased intestinal mobility, decrease in digestive enzymes, and presence of fecal fat.

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Green plants utilize _____ a and b to absorb light energy in photosynthesis

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Answer:

Chlorophyll or chlorophylls

after digesting dna with a restriction enzyme, would you expect more or fewer dna fragments than undigested dna. would these fragments be smaller or larger than the undigested dna? a. fewer and larger, respectively b. more and larger, respectively c. more and smaller, respectively d. fewer and smaller, respectively

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After digesting DNA with a restriction enzyme, you would expect more DNA fragments than undigested DNA. These fragments would be smaller than the undigested DNA. The correct option is (C) more and smaller, respectively.

A restriction enzyme cuts DNA by recognizing a specific DNA sequence, then breaking both strands of the DNA at specific points within that sequence. Restriction enzymes are commonly used to cut DNA into small pieces that can be more easily studied in the lab.

The use of restriction enzymes is referred to as a molecular scissors. Restriction enzymes are enzymes that cut DNA molecules into smaller pieces. There are different types of restriction enzymes that cut DNA at different sites; they act as molecular scissors. These enzymes are named after the bacterium from which they are isolated.

They recognize and bind to specific sequences of DNA known as restriction sites, and they cut the DNA at or near these sites. When DNA is digested with a restriction enzyme, the resulting DNA fragments are called restriction fragments.

Therefore, correct option is C.

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(HELP QUICKLY PLEASE !!!)

Long hair in Irish Setters is dominant
(L) to short hair (I). A male homozygous
for long hair is crosses with a female
heterozygous for long hair

1.What genotypes and in what proportion could this cross produce ?

2.what phenotypes and in what proportions could this cross produce

Answers

Not really sure the answer for this but I tried, if it’s wrong please let me know in the comment.
The male is LL and the female is Ll.

The possible genotypes of the offspring are: LL and Ll, in a 1:1 ratio.

The phenotype is determined by the genotype, so the possible phenotypes of the offspring are:

Long hair (LL and Ll genotypes) - 100% or 1:1 ratio

No short hair (II genotype) will be produced because the short hair allele is recessive and not present in either parent.

What happens when a gene is expressed? the gene is mutated the gene dies the gene is able to specialize the gene duplicates exactly​

Answers

Binocular vision can be affected by a variety of eye diseases and anomalies. Visual disorientation, reduction, and diplopia are examples of these. These abnormalities can also cause blurred vision, headaches, and eye discomfort, among other things.

Both sideways-facing and forward-facing irises have drawbacks. Animals with eyes on the side of their skulls have a blind area directly in front of them, so nature provides many prey animals with an excellent sense of scent to compensate. Forward-facing irises have drawbacks as well.Furthermore, expressing only a fraction of genes in each cell saves room because DNA must be unwound from its closely coiled structure in order to be transcribed and translated. If every protein was produced in every cell all of the time, cells would have to be huge. The regulation of gene translation is exceedingly complicated.

The grand scheme of cellular gene control. The method of regulating which genes in a cell's DNA are released is known as gene regulation (used to make a functional product such as a protein). This website's material should not be used in place of expert medical care or advice. If you have any concerns about your health, speak with your doctor.

Answer:

A range of eye illnesses and anomalies can impair binocular vision. These include visual confusion, diminution, and diplopia. These anomalies can also cause blurred vision, headaches, and ocular pain.

Both sideways and forward-facing eyes have disadvantages. Because animals with eyes on the side of their heads have a blind region immediately in front of them, nature gives many prey animals with a keen sense of smell to adjust. Forward-facing pupils have some disadvantages as well. In addition, because DNA must be unraveled from its tightly coiled structure to be transcribed and translated, expressing only a portion of the genes in each cell saves space.

Explanation:

Brainliest pls :)

2.
PART B: Which TWO sentences from the article best support the answers to Part A?
"Fingerprints probably represent the best-known example of a feature
useful in biometrics." (Paragraph 5)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern ...
potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)
"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the
skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as
brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)
"Health officials tap into this file, using the fingerprint scanner, to
accurately identify which children still need vaccinating..." (Paragraph 40)
"Using biometrics to keep kids healthy, log onto electronic devices and
catch criminals are important applications." (Paragraph 42)
"We eventually want to use facial recognition in robots that can identify
who you are." (Paragraph 44)

Answers

Answer:

The best two sentences that support the answers to Part A are:

"Any feature of the body with a unique shape, size, texture or pattern potentially can be used to identify someone." (Paragraph 5)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it indicates that any unique feature of the body can be used for biometric identification, including features like the pattern of veins in the hand.

"It can be hard to get a good print from people who have worn down the skin on their fingers after years of working with rough materials, such as brick or stone." (Paragraph 32)

This sentence supports the answer to Part A because it explains that people who have worked with rough materials for many years may have worn down their fingerprints, making it more difficult to use fingerprints for biometric identification.

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Aldosterone is _____.
A)a steroid hormone that reduces the amount of fluid excreted in the urine
B)triggers the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin II
C)a protein hormone that decreases blood pressure without changing blood volume
D)decreases water reabsorption in the kidneys
E)Is released in great quantities when ethanol intoxication takes place

Answers

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that reduces the amount of fluid excreted in the urine. The correct answer is Option A.

What is Aldosterone?

Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex in the zona glomerulosa region, whose main function is the homeostatic regulation of the blood pressure, plasma sodium, and plasma potassium levels.

Aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water while excreting potassium, resulting in an increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Aldosterone is necessary for the maintenance of blood pressure and blood volume, as well as the regulation of electrolytes such as sodium and potassium in the bloodstream.

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Do the following statements describe actin, myosin, both of the proteins or neither of the proteins?
____contains a binding site for calcium
____ found in the I band ____exists in a globular (G) form and a filamentous (F) form ____Contains a binding site for ATP ____is a component of the thin filament ____is a component of the thick filament A. actin B. myosin C. neither actin nor myosin D. both actin and myosin

Answers

The following statements describe actin, myosin, both of the proteins or neither of the proteins.

Actin contains a binding site for calcium. Myosin is found in the I band. Both of the proteins exist in a globular (G) form and a filamentous (F) form. Myosin contains a binding site for ATP. Actin is a component of the thin filament. Myosin is a component of the thick filament.

Thus, the answer is D. both actin and myosin.Actin and myosin are the most abundant proteins in muscle cells. The thin filaments of muscle cells are made up of three types of proteins: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin, whereas the thick filaments are composed of myosin molecules.The thin filaments are anchored at their opposite ends to a complex of proteins called the Z lines. Meanwhile, the thick filaments are connected at their opposite ends to form the M lines. When a muscle contracts, the thin and thick filaments slide past one another in a process known as the sliding filament model.

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Which 2 organisms in the picture are most closely related? How do you know?

Answers

Answer:

I would say a whale and a bat

Explanation:

because they both have curved wing/flipper

In which part of a cell would a receptor that binds to one of these Signalling molecules be found?

Answers

A receptor that binds to one of these signaling molecules would be found in the plasma membrane of a cell.

The receptor molecule is the membrane-bound protein that binds to signaling molecules. The receptor is usually a transmembrane protein that spans the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

Signalling molecules, also known as ligands, are molecules that bind to specific receptors on the surface of a target cell, resulting in a biochemical reaction in the cell.

In this way, signaling molecules play a vital role in cell communication and the regulation of physiological processes.

The binding of a signaling molecule to a receptor on the surface of a target cell causes a biochemical reaction within the cell. This reaction could be to trigger the release of a second messenger, activate or deactivate an enzyme, or cause a structural change in the receptor.

Signaling molecules are synthesized by one cell and then released into the extracellular fluid, where they bind to specific receptors on the surface of target cells, initiating a signaling cascade.

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Oxidative production in photosynthesis involves what?

Answers

Answer:

Oxidative production in photosynthesis involves the following:

1. Light absorption: Photosynthesis begins with the absorption of light energy by pigments, such as chlorophyll, in the chloroplasts of plant cells.

2. Electron transport: The absorbed light energy is used to excite electrons in chlorophyll molecules, which are then transported through a series of electron carriers in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.

3. Generation of ATP and NADPH: As electrons move through the electron transport chain, they release energy that is used to pump protons across the thylakoid membrane, generating a proton gradient. The energy stored in this gradient is used to produce ATP and NADPH, which are used as energy and reducing power in the next stage of photosynthesis.

4. Water splitting: The electrons that are passed down the electron transport chain are replaced by electrons extracted from water molecules in a process called water splitting. This releases oxygen gas as a byproduct.

5. Carbon fixation: The ATP and NADPH generated during the light-dependent reactions are used in the light-independent reactions to fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules, such as sugars.

Overall, the oxidative production in photosynthesis involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH, which are then used in the production of organic molecules from carbon dioxide.

select all of the following that are typically or always heterotrophs.

Answers

Animals, fungi, and certain bacteria are typically or always heterotrophs.

The following that are typically or always heterotrophs are organisms that rely on other organisms for energy and nutrients. They are unable to produce their own food and must consume organic material produced by other living organisms. Examples of heterotrophs include animals, fungi, and some bacteria. Animals are typically heterotrophs, relying on plants or other animals for food. Fungi are also heterotrophs and obtain their energy from decaying organic matter. Certain species of bacteria, such as those in the genus Vibrio, also rely on organic matter for their energy needs. Photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and some bacteria, are typically autotrophs, meaning they can synthesize their own organic compounds using energy from sunlight or inorganic substances.

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The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called _____ neurons. sensory contractile inhibitory → motorassociation

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The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons. Neurons are specialized cells that communicate with one another and transfer information from one region of the brain to another.

In the nervous system, these cells are the building blocks. Neurons are responsible for transmitting electrical and chemical signals in the body, and they make up the nervous system. When it comes to transmitting signals, neurons are divided into three categories. They are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.Motor neurons:Motor neurons are a type of neuron that helps in the transmission of signals from the brain or spinal cord to muscles or other organs. They are responsible for sending messages from the central nervous system (CNS) to the body's effector organs (muscles and glands).

The neuron that stimulates muscle contraction is known as a motor neuron. Motor neurons are involved in generating voluntary or involuntary movement of muscles. The central nervous system's motor neurons are involved in activities such as movement and posture control, while the peripheral nervous system's motor neurons control muscle contractions. In conclusion, the neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons.

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What are considered small intestine brush border enzymes participating in carbohydrate digestion? Dextrinase, Lactase, and Sucrase.

Answers

The small intestine brush border enzymes participating in carbohydrate digestion are Dextrinase, Lactase, and Sucrase.

What is digestion?

Digestion is the process of breaking down food into small molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream. Digestion starts when food is consumed and enters the mouth. The digestive system comprises the mouth, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, small intestine, and large intestine.

Small intestine brush border enzymes

Small intestine brush border enzymes are a group of digestive enzymes that are synthesized and secreted by enterocytes (epithelial cells lining the intestine) on the brush border surface of the intestinal lining.

The small intestine brush border enzymes are divided into three groups, depending on the type of nutrients they digest:

Carbohydrate-digesting enzymes: Sucrase, Lactase, Maltase, and Dextrinase are small intestine brush border enzymes participating in carbohydrate digestion.

Peptidase: They are enzymes that break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids.

Lipase: They are enzymes that break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol.Therefore, Dextrinase, Lactase, and Sucrase are small intestine brush border enzymes that participate in carbohydrate digestion.

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although it is an essential nutrient, the body is able to synthesize niacin to meet some body needs from the amino acid tryptophan. this reaction requires which two other b vitamins as coenzymes?

Answers

For the body to produce niacin from tryptophan, enough quantities of vitamins B6 and B2 are required.

Which two B vitamins are required for the conversion of tryptophan to niacin?

In healthy individuals, the kynurenine pathway converts less than 2% of the dietary tryptophan they consume into NAD (40). NAD is only partially synthesized from tryptophan and is dependent on enzymes that need riboflavin, vitamin B6, and heme (iron).

Which of the following answer options is necessary for the conversion of tryptophan to niacin?

Vitamin B2 riboflavin, which is crucial for cell growth, development, and function in the body, aids in the release of energy from food. Moreover, it aids in the production of niacin from the amino acid tryptophan, which is a component of protein.

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Why is an action potential an all-or-none response

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An action potential is an all-or-none response because it is triggered when the membrane potential of a neuron reaches a certain threshold level, at which point an action potential is initiated and propagated down the axon.

The threshold level is a specific voltage that must be reached in order to trigger an action potential. Once the threshold level is reached, the action potential will always be the same size and duration, regardless of the strength of the stimulus that triggered it. In other words, the response of the neuron is "all-or-none" - it either fires an action potential or it does not, and the size and duration of the action potential are constant.

This is because the initiation and propagation of an action potential depend on the opening and closing of ion channels in the neuron's membrane. When the membrane potential reaches the threshold level, voltage-gated ion channels open, allowing positively charged ions (such as sodium) to rapidly flow into the neuron, depolarizing the membrane and initiating an action potential.

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Use the oxygen binding curve to complete the information about data points at various sites in the graph. Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. When the environment is a system with a partial pressure of oxygen at 10 mm Hg, the approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin is between 0.0 to 0.2 The approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin when near the lungs is 0.8 to 1.0 and when near the resting tissues is 0.4 to 0.6. The approximate partial pressure of oxygen is 20 to 40 mm~Hg when oxygen has bound 50% of the available hemoglobin binding sites, and is 40 to 60 mm~Hg when oxygen has bound 90% of the available hemoglobin binding sites.

Answers

The oxygen binding curve can be used to complete the information about data points at various sites in the graph.

The following are the corresponding blanks that match the words on the left column to the appropriate sentences on the right: When the environment is a system with a partial pressure of oxygen at 10 mm Hg, the approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin is between 0.0 to 0.2.

The approximate partial pressure of oxygen is 20 to 40 mm Hg when oxygen has bound 50% of the available hemoglobin binding sites and is 40 to 60 mm Hg when oxygen has bound 90% of the available hemoglobin binding sites.

The approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin when near the lungs is 0.8 to 1.0 and when near the resting tissues is 0.4 to 0.6. The oxygen binding curve represents the relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and the saturation of hemoglobin. It is a sigmoidal curve with a plateau region that represents a fully saturated hemoglobin.

The curve is used to determine the fractional saturation of hemoglobin under different conditions. For example, when the environment has a partial pressure of oxygen at 10 mm Hg, the approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin is between 0.0 to 0.2.

This indicates that hemoglobin has a low affinity for oxygen in low-oxygen environments, such as at high altitudes or during exercise.

The approximate partial pressure of oxygen is 20 to 40 mm Hg when oxygen has bound 50% of the available hemoglobin binding sites and is 40 to 60 mm Hg when oxygen has bound 90% of the available hemoglobin binding sites. This indicates that hemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen in high-oxygen environments, such as near the lungs.

The approximate fractional saturation of hemoglobin when near the lungs is 0.8 to 1.0 and when near the resting tissues is 0.4 to 0.6. This indicates that hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily in tissues with lower oxygen levels than in oxygen-rich environments.

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How Brucella establishes infection within a hostArrange the following statements in chronological order:1) Infected macrophages can then traffic the bacteria to the lymph nodes and other sites within the body.2) The Brucella organism invades the GI tract by migrating through M cells.3) The Brucella organism is phagocytized by macrophages of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.4) Once internalized, the organism survives within the phogolysosomes and establishes an intracellular existence.5) The Brucella organism enters the host through exposure of the skin and mucosa or by ingestion.

Answers

The chronological order is

1) The Brucella organism enters the host through the exposure of the skin and mucosa or by ingestion.

2) The Brucella organism invades the GI tract by migrating through M cells.

3) The Brucella organism is phagocytized by macrophages of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.

4) Once internalized, the organism survives within the phagolysosomes and establishes an intracellular existence.

5) Infected macrophages can then traffic the bacteria to the lymph nodes and other sites within the body.

How Brucella establishes infection within a host? The following are the ways in which Brucella establishes infection within a host: Brucella organism enters the host through the exposure of the skin and mucosa or by ingestion. The Brucella organism invades the GI tract by migrating through M cells.

The Brucella organism is phagocytized by macrophages of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. Once internalized, the organism survives within the phagolysosomes and establishes an intracellular existence. Infected macrophages can then traffic the bacteria to the lymph nodes and other sites within the body.

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Most atmospheric oxygen comes from photosynthesis. From which of the following molecules is oxygen derived?
A. water
B. carbon dioxide
C. glucose
D. chlorophyll a
E. chlorophyll b

Answers

Most atmospheric oxygen comes from photosynthesis , chlorophyll a is molecule from which  oxygen derived.

What is photosynthesis ?

Although different species perform photosynthesis in different ways, the process always starts with light energy being absorbed by proteins called reaction centres, which contain green chlorophyll (and other coloured) pigments/chromophores. These proteins are held inside chloroplasts, which are most abundant in leaf cells in plants, whereas they are embedded in the plasma membrane in bacteria. Some energy is used in these light-dependent reactions to strip electrons from suitable substances such as water, resulting in the production of oxygen gas. The hydrogen liberated by water splitting is used to create two additional compounds that serve as short-term energy stores, allowing it to be transferred to drive other reactions: these compounds are reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the "energy currency."

What are chloroplasts ?

Chloroplasts are chlorophyll-containing organelles in plant cells; they play a vital role for life on Earth since photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts. Chloroplasts develop from proplastids, as do chromoplasts, leucoplasts, and other plastids

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Sieve plates:
A. do not contain plasmodesmata.
B. are modified cell walls that connect sieve elements.
C. dissolve at sieve tube maturity.
D. have solid, impermeable surfaces.
E. contain mitochondria and chloroplasts.

Answers

The correct answer is B - Sieve plates are modified cell walls that connect sieve elements. Sieve plates are formed from the merging of two adjacent sieve elements and are made up of primary and secondary cell walls.

These plates have pores or sieve areas that allow materials to pass through and are not solid, impermeable surfaces. Sieve plates do not contain plasmodesmata, dissolve at sieve tube maturity, or contain mitochondria and chloroplasts. Plasmodesmata are channels that link adjacent plant cells, allowing for communication and transfer of substances between them. They are like "channels" in plant cells that allow the transport of organic molecules between cells. The cell wall is penetrated by plasmodesmata, which connect the cytoplasm of one cell to that of the next.

This helps to transport water, minerals, and nutrients between cells without the need for transport via the xylem or phloem. Plasmodesmata are permeable to ions and proteins, and their size is regulated to allow certain substances to pass through the cell membrane in limited quantities.

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What are the strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Answers

There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

Strain gravisStrain intermediusStrain mitisStrain Belfanti

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pathogenic gram-positive bacterium that causes diphtheria in humans. It is rod-shaped, non-motile, non-sporing, and non-capsulated. There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, each characterized by the type of toxin produced:

Strain gravis: Produces the most potent diphtheria toxin and is responsible for the most severe cases of diphtheria.Strain intermedius: Produces an intermediate amount of toxin and can cause moderate to severe diphtheria.Strain mitis: Produces the least amount of toxin and generally causes milder cases of diphtheria.Strain belfanti: A rare strain that has been isolated from a single case of diphtheria and produces a unique toxin that differs from those produced by the other strains.

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please choose the statement which best describes the goal(s) of antimicrobial susceptibility testing. multiple choice a. antimicrobial susceptibility testing can accomplish all of these goals b. to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent c. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause allergic reactions d. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause toxicity e. to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to

Answers

The goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is: option (B) states that "to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent".

This is because antimicrobial susceptibility testing tests the ability of an antimicrobial drug to inhibit or kill a particular type of bacteria or microorganism. It helps determine which drug will work the best to treat an infection.

This is important because it can help doctors choose the most effective drug for the particular infection. It also helps determine the least likely drug to cause allergic reactions, toxicity, or other adverse effects in the patient.

Ultimately, the goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to, so that the most effective treatment can be used.

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