However, based on a general understanding of the history of female prison reform in the 19th century, option d. "Making female prisons decidedly 'female institutions'" is unlikely to be a principle that guided reformers.
As different reformers and reform movements may have emphasized different principles at different times. Instead, many reformers sought to make prisons more humane, with an emphasis on rehabilitation and education rather than punishment. They also recognized the particular needs and vulnerabilities of women prisoners, such as the need for medical care, protection from abuse by male guards, and opportunities for child care and family visitation. Separating women prisoners from men and employing female staff were also important goals for many reformers.
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Correct question:
During the 19th century, which of the following was not a principle that guided female prison reform?
a. The separation of women prisoners from men
b. The provision of care in keeping with the needs of women
c. The management of women's prisons by female staff
d. Making female prisons decidedly "female institutions"
fill in the blank. the risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a firearm.
The risk of a car bomb attack is very low, but it is still possible. It is important to be aware of the potential threat and take appropriate safety measures, such as installing protective barriers and surveillance systems.
Additionally, bank staff should be trained to be aware of suspicious activity and report it to the authorities. Finally, individuals should also take safety precautions such as parking in well-lit areas, avoiding leaving valuables in plain sight, and being aware of their surroundings.
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The complete question is:
Fill in the blank.
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a ________.
the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
The following are the penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations do not impose:
An honest mistake or inadvertent error made by a tax return preparer will not result in a penalty. In this case, a tax return preparer may rectify the mistake and file the correct return or refund within a specified time period.
Tax return preparers are not penalized for failing to file an amended return or refund claim after rectifying an error or mistake made in a prior return or refund claim. However, if a tax return preparer is paid for the preparation of an amended return or refund claim, the preparer may be subject to a penalty if the claim or return is incorrect.
The Internal Revenue Code and regulations do not require tax return preparers to register or obtain a preparer tax identification number (PTIN) if they do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation. The penalty for non-compliance with this requirement will not be imposed on tax return preparers who do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation.
The penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations impose are as follows: Failure to comply with the due diligence requirements, which include checking the validity of Social Security numbers, can result in a penalty of up to $100 per failure. The penalty for failing to sign a tax return or refund claim is $50 per failure.
The penalty for understating the tax liability on a tax return or refund claim is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income from the preparation of the return or refund claim. The penalty for the use of abusive tax shelters or any other illegal tax avoidance schemes is $1,000 per taxpayer per year. A taxpayer may also sue a tax return preparer for damages if the preparer engages in fraudulent or deceptive conduct in the preparation of the return or refund claim.
the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
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TRUE/FALSE. in the derivation of the michaelis-menten equation, the rate at which es is formed is given by which of the following?
Systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics are,An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction,the enzyme ATCase. Thus correct Option (b, d)
Michaelis-Menten kinetics is a broad theory that explains the velocity and overall mechanism of enzyme-catalyzed processes. It is based on the quick reversible creation of a complex between an enzyme and its substrate, which was first proposed in 1913. (the substance upon which it acts to form a product).
What can we learn from the Michaelis-Menten equation?The equation states that at extremely low concentrations, the enzyme's rate is directly proportional to the concentration of substrate; conversely, at very high concentrations, the enzyme's rate approaches a maximum quantity known as maximum velocity.
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Full Question: Which of the following systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
(Select all that apply.)
a. A simple enzyme with [S] > KM.
b. An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction.
c. The enzyme chymotrypsin.
d. The enzyme ATCase.
You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:
For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.
We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.
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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.
When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.
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The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state
infringement in the _________ case.
a. Schenk v. United States
b. McCulloch v. Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. Gitlow v. New York
The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the d. Gitlow v. New York case.
What is Gitlow v. New York case?Gitlow v. New York is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case, decided on June 8, 1925, which upheld the constitutionality of the Espionage Act of 1917, which made it illegal to advocate the overthrow of the United States government by force or violence.
The majority of the justices ruled that the First Amendment didn't prohibit states from suppressing or punishing speech that posed a serious danger to national security, even if it didn't immediately incite an illegal act.
What is the Fourteenth Amendment?The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed by Congress on June 13, 1866, and ratified by the states on July 9, 1868. It granted citizenship to all individuals born or naturalized in the United States and prohibited states from denying any person "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.
The correct option is option d.
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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F
The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
The correct answer is true.
The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.
Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.
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true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio
One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.
The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).
In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.
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In 100 words or more, discuss what the different options are for sketch perspectives and what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation.
Sketch perspectives are an essential part of crime scene investigation, as they provide a visual representation of the scene and help investigators to accurately document and interpret the evidence collected. There are different options for sketch perspectives, including hand-drawn sketches, computer-generated sketches, and 3D modeling.
What is investigation?Investigation refers to the process of gathering information or evidence to establish facts and solve problems. It involves systematic and thorough inquiry or examination of a particular issue or event.
Forensic labs play an important role in crime scene investigation as they analyze and interpret the evidence collected by investigators. Forensic lab technicians use specialized equipment and techniques to analyze physical evidence, such as fingerprints, DNA, and ballistics, to identify suspects and provide evidence for criminal cases.
They work closely with investigators to provide accurate and timely results, which can help to solve crimes and bring perpetrators to justice. The forensic lab is a crucial component of the criminal justice system and plays an essential role in the investigation and prosecution of crimes.
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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is 0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X
1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015
Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.
2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).
Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.
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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.
A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.
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. The ______ test is used if the classification involves either a suspect class or a fundamental constitutional right.
A. minimum rationality
B. quasi-strict scrutiny
C. rational basis
D. prior restraints
E. strict scrutiny
What part should intent play in determining the punishment for crime? (For instance, if a man attempts to kill another man but fails to kill him and, instead, only wounds him, should he receive any lighter a sentence than the man who intends to kill another man and succeeds in doing so?)
Answer:
Intent is an important factor in determining the punishment for a crime. In the case of attempted murder versus actual murder, the intent to kill is the same in both cases, but the outcome is different. The person who attempted to kill but failed may still be held responsible for their actions and face punishment, but the punishment may be less severe than that of the person who successfully killed another person.This is because the severity of a crime is often determined by the harm caused, as well as the intent behind the action. However, the specific circumstances of the crime, including the intent of the perpetrator, the harm caused, and other factors, should all be taken into account when determining an appropriate punishment.Overall, while intent should be considered when determining the punishment for a crime, it should not be the only factor taken into account. The severity of the harm caused and other relevant factors should also be considered to ensure that the punishment fits the crime.U.S. firms, their foreign subsidiaries, or foreign firms that are licensees of U.S. technology cannot sell a product to a country in which the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect theoverall balance of payments of the United States.national security of the United States.relationship of the U.S. with the world community.competitive balance of world trade.competitive balance of free competition inside the U.S.
U.S. technology cannot sell a product without an export licence to a country in the sale is considered by the U.S. government to affect the overall balance of payments of the United States is; National security of the United States.
What is an export license?
An export license is a government document issued by a country's export control agency, authorizing the export of certain goods in specific quantities to a particular destination. An export license is usually required for any items that are controlled, regulated, or banned by national and international export control laws.
The export control agency is responsible for regulating and overseeing all activities related to the export of goods, including granting export licenses and enforcing export regulations.
Why are export licenses necessary?Export licenses are necessary for a variety of reasons, including to: Prevent the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction Protect national security Ensure compliance with international laws and regulations Combat terrorism and other criminal activities Promote economic development and stability.
There are different types of export licenses, and the specific requirements and regulations will depend on the type of goods being exported and the destination country. However, in general, the purpose of an export license is to ensure that the export of certain goods does not pose a threat to national security, international relations, or other important interests.
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in which of the following ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
The British democracy differs from the majority of other parliamentary democracies in Europe in that the ruling party may adopt policies with essentially no checks from other levels of government.
The Westminster Parliament represents the idea of full power to legislate on all topics, free from any restrictions from underlying principles of international law or human rights, and now also from EU legislation.
The UK is a parliamentary democracy in europe. After the passage of the First Reform Act in 1832, which gave the vote to 7% of males and reallocated house seats for fairer representation, the UK became a democracy. This was the initial reform in a series that aimed to increase the electorate.
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Correct Question:
In what ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
fill in the blank. expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to and the interest rate to .
Expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to increase and the interest rate to rise.
Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government spending and/or reducing taxes, which increases aggregate demand in the economy. This increased demand can lead to higher economic growth and an increase in gross domestic product (GDP).
However, an increase in demand can also lead to higher inflation, which can cause the central bank to raise interest rates in order to cool down the economy and control inflation. As interest rates rise, this can reduce investment and consumption, which can partially offset the positive effects of expansionary fiscal policy on GDP growth.
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the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.True or false
In the United States, the answer is partially true. In most states, there are laws restricting the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. However, these laws can vary from state to state, and not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18.
It is important to note that these laws are intended to improve road safety, as the use of wireless devices while driving can significantly increase the risk of accidents. Driver distraction is one of the leading causes of traffic accidents, and the use of wireless devices can increase distraction and the likelihood of accidents.
In summary, in the United States, many laws restrict the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. While not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18, many laws are designed to improve traffic safety and reduce the risk of accidents caused by driver distraction.
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It is true that the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.
According to the law it is illegal for anyone under the age of 18 to use any type of wireless device while driving. This also includes talking on the phone, texting, or surfing the internet. Some states have laws that specifically prohibit texting while driving regardless of age. It would be an only exception in case it is an emergency situation, such as calling 911. If anyone use any type of wireless device while driving, sometimes it may lead to dangerous situations like accidents where they put themselves and others also in danger.
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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)
According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-
For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.
Education mean today?Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.
The renowned definition of education?Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.
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What did the 13th 14th and 15th amendments do during reconstruction?
The Reconstruction Amendments, sometimes known as the 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments to the Constitution, played a significant role in granting African Americans citizenship rights and protections.
Slavery was officially abolished by the 13th Amendment. African Americans were made equal citizens of the United States via the 14th Amendment.
The Dred Scott v. Sanford ruling, in which Chief Justice Roger B. Taney of the Supreme Court stated that black Americans were not citizens and as a result had "no rights which the white man was bound to respect," was reversed by this amendment.
Black American men now have the right to vote thanks to the 15th Amendment. Northern African Americans were steadfast supporters of these amendments, pushing for equality on behalf of both themselves and their recently freed colleagues.
Democrats in Pennsylvania's neighboring state of New Jersey resisted ratification, despite the fact that Pennsylvania was one of the first states to do so in February 1865.
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true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.
True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.
This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.
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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.
The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.
Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.
Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.
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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?
Explanation:
The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.
If you are making a left turn from a two way street into a one way street you must start the turn from the _____ abc hit may turn into any lane that is safely open
If you are turning left from a two-way street onto a one-way street, you should complete the turn into the left lane .
Once you have turned onto the one-way street, you may turn into any lane that is safely open and appropriate for your destination. It is important to check for other vehicles, pedestrians, and bicyclists before making the turn and to signal your intention to turn in advance.
If there is a center left turn lane, use it. turning left onto a two-way street from a one-way street. Starting in the far-left lane, make the turn. End the turn in the left lane closest to the middle of the street moving in the direction of your vehicle to lower the likelihood of a collision.
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the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .
The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.
The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.Learn more about Dred Scott v. Sandford case: https://brainly.com/question/28042544
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the initial responsibility of the first responding officer after they determine that a crime was committed is to crij
The initial responsibility of the first responding officer after determining that a crime was committed is to ensure the safety of the victim(s) and any witnesses.
The officer must secure the crime scene to prevent any contamination or destruction of evidence.
The first responder must assess the situation and determine the extent of any injuries or damage. If medical attention is required, the officer should immediately request medical assistance. If the offender is still on the scene or in the area, the officer should quickly apprehend the suspect and ensure that they are separated from the victim(s) and witnesses.
The first responding officer should also begin to gather information from witnesses and potential suspects. This may involve conducting interviews, collecting physical evidence, and taking photographs or videos of the crime scene. It is important for the officer to document as much information as possible to aid in the investigation of the crime.
The officer should also notify their supervisor and any necessary departments, such as detectives or forensics teams, to further investigate the crime. The officer may need to request additional resources, such as backup or a K-9 unit, depending on the severity of the crime and the situation.
In summary, the initial responsibility of the first responding officer after determining that a crime was committed is to ensure the safety of the victim(s) and witnesses, secure the crime scene, gather information and evidence, and notify necessary departments and resources to further investigate the crime.
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3 reasons why discrimanaton against gender is illegal in the South African Constitution
The reasons why discrimination against gender is illegal in the South African Constitution are equality dignity and non-discrimination.
The three reasons can be elaborated as -
Equality: The South African Constitution upholds the principle of equality, which states that everyone has a right to the same level of protection and advantage under the law and that no one may be subjected to unfair discrimination on account of any factor, including gender. Hence, discrimination based on gender is against the law and against the constitution.
Human dignity: The Constitution also affirms that every individual has intrinsic worth and forbids actions that lessen or undermine that worth. Discrimination against women or other genders is illegal because it frequently rests on presumptions and prejudices that violate their fundamental dignity.
Non-discrimination: The Constitution clearly forbids discrimination on the basis of gender in addition to racial, ethnic, and religious distinctions in a number of settings, such as the workplace, educational institutions, and public services. This means that discriminating against people based on their gender is prohibited by law for businesses and governmental organisations.
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______: When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Innovation : When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Those who pursue illegal activity while holding onto their dream of success, such as those who engage in illegal drug dealing to make money, are pursuing the "American Dream" in this way. Dr. Melton also made the argument that some people leave society and end up as drug addicts or drifters after realizing they cannot achieve the "American Dream," which can result in abnormal behavior.
Innovation: The acceptance of cultural goals by an individual or group but rejection of the accepted, established methods for achieving those goals. Families involved in organized crime are one example. They adhere to the "American Dream," but they go beyond the law to achieve their objectives.
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De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
a. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
b. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
c. the Supreme Court's busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
d. None of these answers is correct.
e. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).
Option A, that is affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
WHAT'S AFFIRMATIVE ACTIONAffirmative action is a public policy that was put in place to correct de jure discrimination that African Americans faced.
This policy was designed to increase the representation of historically marginalized groups in education, employment, and other sectors where they had been previously excluded. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 is a law that was put in place to address de facto discrimination in the form of voter suppression.
The act was passed to ensure that every citizen of the United States could vote without facing any discrimination. Together, affirmative action and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 are important policies designed to address both de jure and de facto discrimination.
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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?
Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson
Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.
Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.
Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.
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assume that print todays date is a function that uses no parameters. write a statement that calls (invokes) this function.
Assuming that print today's data is a function with no parameters, the statement that calls this function is: print_todays_date()
How to write the statement ?In programming, a function is a block of code that performs a specific task. Functions are often used to break down a program into smaller, more manageable pieces of code that can be reused throughout the program.
When you define a function, you give it a name and a set of parameters (if any) that it takes as input. In the case of the "print today's date" function, it doesn't take any parameters, so you can simply write the name of the function followed by a set of empty parentheses, like this: print_todays_date().
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