Don’t know answer help!!!

Answer:

$0.76 per serving of pumpkin pie

Step-by-step explanation:

the total cost of the ingredients needed to prepare a pumpkin pie = $1.50 + ($2.59 / 6) + ($5.99 / 6) + $1.25 + ($3.79 / 2) = $6.075

if we cut 8 servings per pie, then the cost per serving = total cost of the pie / number of servings = $6.075 / 8 = $0.759375 ≈ $0.76 per serving of pumpkin pie

We want to find the cost of each slice of a pie given that we know the price of the ingredients that we use to make the whole pie. We will see that the cost of a single slice is $0.75.

First, we must get the cost of the whole pie. We have:

The total cost is then:

C = $1.50 + $0.43 + $0.89 + $1.25 + $1.90 = $5.97

Now we know the total cost of the pie, and it has 8 slices, then each slice costs: $5.97/8 = $0.75

If you want to learn more, you can read: https://brainly.com/question/20005135

Answer: 0.43

Step-by-step explanation: divide

Answer:

A. 4 7/24

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 15 - 11 which equals 4

then do 5/15 - 1/8 =7/24

Answer:

23

Step-by-step explanation:

Basically I did it backwards & opposites:

-28 divided by -7 = 4

4 + 19 = 23

I checked btw and it worked.

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles are equal to eachother so 4x-26 = 3x+14

Answer:

Y is equals to negative 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 2x + 3

y =2(-2)+ 3

y =-4+ 3

y=-1

Answer:

answer for y=2/3x+2: y=2/3x+2

answer for -2x+3y=6: x=3/2y-3

pls give brainliest

Answer:

There are infinitely many solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are infinitely many solutions because if you solve the equations, you will find that both of the equations are actually the same, so there is infinitely many solutions.

Showing that both equations are equal:  y=2/3x+2       -2x+3y=6

y=2/3x+2  Multiply by 3 on both sides

3y=2x+6 Rearrange (-2x on both sides)

3y-2x=6 More rearrangement

-2x+3y=6 Now, if you look back at the second equation, you will see that they are both the same.

Step-by-step explanation:

Make a point P that will be the vertex of the new angle.

From P, draw a ray PQ. ...

Place the compasses on point A, set to any convenient width.

Draw an arc across both sides of the angle, creating the points J and K as shown.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

A. 61.82°;

15.64°

B. 33.37°

Step-by-step explanation:

A.

✍️Angle of elevation from 15 ft:

A right triangle is formed. Apply trigonometric ratios formula to find the angle of elevation from 15 ft.

Thus,

Length of the side Opposite to reference angle = 22 + 6 = 28 ft

Adjacent length = 15 ft

Thus, we would have:

[tex] tan(\theta) = \frac{opp}{adjacent} = \frac{28}{15} [/tex]

[tex] tan(\theta) = 1.8667 [/tex]

[tex] \theta = tan^{-1}(1.8667) [/tex]

[tex] \theta = 61.82 [/tex] (2 d.p)

✍️Angle of elevation from 100 ft:

Thus,

Length of the side Opposite to reference angle = 22 + 6 = 28 ft

Adjacent length = 100 ft

Thus, we would have:

[tex] tan(\theta) = \frac{opp}{adjacent} = \frac{28}{100} [/tex]

[tex] tan(\theta) = 0.28 [/tex]

[tex] \theta = tan^{-1}(0.28) [/tex]

[tex] \theta = 15.64 [/tex] (2 d.p)

B.

✍️Distance you'd be from the screen if you lie on the ground and make an angle of elevation of 40° to the top of the screen:

Adjacent length = your distance from the screen = x

Opposite length = 22 + 6 = 28 ft

Angle of elevation = 40°

Tge trigonometric ratios formula to use would be:

[tex] tan(\theta) = \frac{opp}{adjacent} [/tex]

Plug in the values

[tex] tan(40) = \frac{28}{x} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by x

[tex] x*tan(40) = 28 [/tex]

Divide both sides by tan(40)

[tex] x = \frac{28}{tan(40)} [/tex]

[tex] x = 33.37 [/tex] (2 d.p)

Answer:

y=-6/5x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

y-3=-6/5(x+5)

y=-6/5x-3

Answer:

The total mass is 4 * 10^12 grams

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the total mass of all ants,

We simply multiply the average mass of an ant by the population

That will be;

4 * 10^-3 * 10^15

= 4 * 10^12 grams

Answer:

What is the constant variation of Y =- 2 3x?

The constant of variation, k , is 23 .

Step-by-step explanation:

When x is zero in a direct variation equation y will also be zero. That means that the y-intercept of all direct variation equations is always zero.

Answers:

c=0.25p

p=4c

c=.25p

c=1/4p

Hope I' not too late -w-'

Answer:

B and D if not sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b and d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't like Football...

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: My fav is the New York Giants

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 40 ?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B   -------   DE ≅ RS

it's B because DE and RS both contain the equal angles.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Eddie deposits $1090 in an account that earns 6% interest compounded annually for 3 years. What is the total interest earned after 3 years? Round to the nearest cent.

A: 196.20

B: 208.20

C: 1286.20

D: 1298.20

Answer: 35.4 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

Height of the roof = 24 feet

Height of the ladder = 26 foot

Solution:

c^2 = a^2 + b^2

a = 24

b = 26

c^2 = 24^2 + 26^2

c = √576 + 676

c = √1252

c = 35.4 feet

The foot of the ladder is 35.4 foot away from the top of the ladder.

Answer:

The distance between the base of the ladder and the building is 10 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to calculate the distance between the foot of the ladder and the building

To get this, we need to have a pictorial representation. Please check the attachment for this

From the pictorial representation, we can see a right angled triangle with a hypotenuse of 26 feet and the other side being 24 feet. We now need to get the third side of this triangle which represents the distance we want.

Mathematically, we can calculate the distance using Pythagoras’ theorem which states that the square of the length of the hypotenuse is equal the sum of the squares of the two other sides of the triangle.

Let the distance we are looking for be D

26^2 = 24^2 + D^2

D^2 = 26^2 - 24^2

D^2 = 100

D^2 = 10^2

D = 10 feet

Answer:

x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=1/2x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the lines are parallel, this means that the slopes will be the same, only the y-intercept will change. I graphed this out to find the answer.  

Answer:

658.8 so 659

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8 correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

80 / 100 = x / 40    (Since he got 80% INCORRECT you will subtract the value of x from 40)

100x = 80 x 40

x = 3200 / 100

x = 32

40 - 32 = 8

Answer:

y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

there is no slope therefore dont place it. however there is a Y intercept.

Answer:

cous of the negative or positive symbol

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

because AC and BD bis => AX = XC; BX = XD

ΔAXD ≅ ΔCXB (SAS) because: AX = CX

                                                    DX = BX

                                                    m∠AXD = m∠BXC ( 2 opposing angles)

because ΔAXD ≅ ΔCXB (SAS)

=> AD = BC and m∠DAX = m∠BCX

because m∠DAX = m∠BCX => AD//BC

ABCD has AD = BC and AD//BC => ABCD is a parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is -8

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because when you subtract four from negative four you add the negative four and it becomes 8 but since it'snegative it would be -8

Answer:

i got 8

Step-by-step explanation:

ur questions range on so many level, ngl