Non-Mendelian inheritance is any pattern of inheritance in which the traits do not segregate in accordance with Mendel's laws. These include epistasis, codominance, incomplete dominance, polygenic inheritance, etc.
What is Non-Mendelian inheritance?Non-Mendelian inheritance are the inheritance patterns in which the genes do not segregate in accordance with the Mendel's laws.
Multiple genes influence a phenotype: Epistatic interaction.
In A and B blood types: Codominance. This means that when an organism has two different alleles (i.e., is a heterozygote), it will express both at the same time.
When two different alleles are inherited, both traits are expressed at the same time, but the traits produce an intermediate phenotype rather than a dominant trait masking a recessive trait: Incomplete dominance.
Traits are controlled by many genes instead of traits controlled by alleles from one gene: Polygenic inheritance.
Two alleles are both expressed equally rather than a dominant allele taking complete control over a recessive allele: Codominance.
Two genes can interact to produce a phenotype, such that one gene can override another: Epistatic interaction.
Familial hypercholesterolemia: Autosomal dominant inheritance.
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describe how two medical conditions might be helped by biofeedback therapy.
Biofeedback therapy is a type of treatment that involves using electronic monitoring equipment to provide patients with real-time feedback about their physiological responses.
By gaining awareness and control over their bodily functions, patients can learn to manage symptoms associated with certain medical conditions. Here are two examples of how biofeedback therapy can help with specific medical conditions:
Migraine headaches: Biofeedback therapy can help reduce the frequency and severity of migraine headaches. During biofeedback sessions, patients are taught to recognize the physiological signs that often precede a migraine attack, such as muscle tension and increased heart rate. By learning to recognize and control these responses, patients can reduce the intensity and frequency of migraines.
Urinary incontinence: Biofeedback therapy can help people who have difficulty controlling their bladder muscles. During biofeedback sessions, patients are taught to recognize and strengthen the pelvic floor muscles that are responsible for bladder control. By gaining control over these muscles, patients can improve bladder function and reduce urinary incontinence.
In both cases, biofeedback therapy can help patients gain greater awareness and control over their physiological responses, leading to improved symptom management and overall quality of life.
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the characteristics of an organism are rooted in the activities of cellular encoded by genes.
It is TRUE that the characteristics of an organism are rooted in the activities of cells, which are in turn encoded by genes.
Genes are sections of DNA that contain instructions for making proteins, which serve as the skeleton of cells. Gene expression and protein synthesis are influenced by a variety of variables that control the activity of genes, including internal signaling pathways and external signals. The interactions between several genes and their byproducts, as well as different environmental conditions, result in complicated biochemical processes that drive cellular activities. The morphology, physiology, behavior, and reaction to the environment of the cell and the organism as a whole are all determined by these processes.
The properties of the organism can vary as a result of changes in cellular activities brought on by changes in the genetic code, such as mutations or changes in gene expression. As a result, an organism's traits are dictated by the actions of its cells, which are governed by the genes that are encoded in its DNA.
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The actual question is:
True, or False,
The characteristics of an organism are rooted in the activities of cellular encoded by genes.
a bacterium or other particle taken up by phagocytosis is
A bacterium or other molecule is taken up by phagocytosis directed to lysosomes for debasement. Phagocytes are capable of ingesting not only apoptotic cells but also microbial pathogens.
The process of phagocytosis involves the recognition and ingestion of particles larger than 0.5 m into a phagosome, a vesicle derived from the plasma membrane.
The recognition and ingestion of microbial pathogens larger than 0.5 m into a phagosome-derived vesicle mark the beginning of phagocytosis. Several receptors that recognize specific microorganism-associated molecular patterns enable this recognition.
Phagocytosis is a process that phagocytic cells use to identify invading microbes and kill them once they have entered the body. It is a receptor-driven process that dates back to evolution. The bacterial infection's survival depends on the expression of the phagocytosis receptor Eater, which is only found in Drosophila phagocytes.
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what effect does ligand binding have on receptor tyrosine kinase proteins?
Ligand binding to an RTK protein induces a conformational change in the protein, activates the kinase associated with it, and initiates a signaling cascade that transmits the signal to the target cell.
Ligand binding has a number of effects on RTK(Receptor tyrosine kinases) proteins such as it induces a conformational change in the protein, activating it which is achieved through a process known as dimerization, in which the ligand binds to the extracellular domain of the protein, bringing the two halves of the protein together to form an active state. Ligand binding also triggers the autophosphorylation of the RTK protein, which is the addition of phosphate groups to specific amino acid residues. It activates the enzyme associated with the RTK protein, which then initiates a signaling cascade.
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The main finding of the Human Microbiome Project was that
everyone has essentially the same types of microorganisms residing in their bodies.
healthy adults should be free from viruses and bacteria.
bacterial cells far outnumber human cells in healthy adults.
bacteria cannot reproduce unless inside a host cell.
The main finding of the Human Microbiome Project was that bacterial cells far outnumber human cells in healthy adults.
What is the Human Microbiome Project?The Human Microbiome Project is a five-year project launched by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to improve our understanding of the microorganisms that live in and on us and to develop new ways of protecting and restoring human health based on this understanding. Its goal was to identify the types of microbes that live in or on our bodies, figure out what they do, and investigate how they interact with each other, with us, and with our environment.
What did the Human Microbiome Project find?The human microbiome is a complex community of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microorganisms that live on and in the human body. Researchers have discovered that bacterial cells outnumber human cells by a factor of ten to one in the average adult. The microbiome plays a critical role in maintaining our health by helping us digest food, produce essential vitamins, and regulate our immune system. It also appears to play a role in a wide range of diseases, including obesity, cancer, and autoimmune disorders.
The Human Microbiome Project's main finding was that everyone has essentially the same types of microorganisms residing in their bodies, regardless of age, gender, or ethnicity. However, the abundance and diversity of these microorganisms can vary significantly from person to person depending on a variety of factors, such as diet, lifestyle, and genetics.
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what elements would likely be found in a portein funcitoning in signlaing through a receptor tyrosine kinase
Proteins that function in signaling through a receptor tyrosine kinase are likely to contain SH2 domains.
SH2 domains are domains that can interact with phosphorylated tyrosine residues on other proteins. The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in the phosphorylation of specific tyrosine residues in the intracellular domain of the receptor, as well as other tyrosine residues in downstream signaling molecules. SH2 domains in signaling proteins can interact with phosphorylated tyrosine residues on the receptor and downstream signaling proteins, allowing them to be recruited to the site of tyrosine phosphorylation and participate in downstream signaling events.
In addition to SH2 domains, proteins involved in signaling through receptor tyrosine kinases may also contain other domains, such as PTB domains, which can also bind to phosphorylated tyrosine residues, as well as domains that are responsible for enzymatic activity, such as kinases or phosphatases.
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Identify the correct orientation of amino acid side chains in the tertiary structure of a protein in an aqueous environment. o The hydrophobic side chains will be on the exterior where they can avoid interacting with water molecules in the aqueous environment. o The hydrophilic side chains will be on the interior where they can avoid interacting with water molecules in the aqueous environment o The hydrophilic side chains will be on the exterior where they can interact with water molecules in the aqueous environment. o The hydrophobic side chains will be on the interior where they can interact with water molecules in the aqueous environment.
The hydrophilic side chains will be on the exterior where they can interact with water molecules in the aqueous environment. Option B
What is the correct orientation?The correct orientation of amino acid side chains in the tertiary structure of a protein in an aqueous environment is that the hydrophilic (polar) side chains will be on the exterior where they can interact with water molecules in the aqueous environment, while the hydrophobic (nonpolar) side chains will be on the interior where they can avoid interacting with water molecules in the aqueous environment.
This orientation is due to the hydrophobic effect, which causes the nonpolar amino acid side chains to cluster together in the interior of the protein, away from the surrounding water molecules
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why do we dye our gels with ethidium bromide or gel red dyes?
Ethidium bromide and gel red dyes are commonly used to stain DNA in agarose gel electrophoresis.
These dyes intercalate between the base pairs of DNA, allowing the DNA fragments to be visualized under UV light.
Ethidium bromide is a mutagenic compound and can be hazardous to handle. It is also a potential environmental pollutant. Gel red is a safer alternative that provides comparable staining efficiency to ethidium bromide.
The use of these dyes allows researchers to identify and analyze DNA fragments that have been separated by size using electrophoresis. By staining the DNA fragments, researchers can visualize and quantify the DNA bands, allowing them to identify the presence, absence, or quantity of a specific DNA fragment of interest. This is useful for a wide range of applications, including genotyping, DNA sequencing, and gene expression analysis.
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the acid-fast cell wall contains large amounts of mycolic acid. this glycolipid multiple select question. makes the cells less resistant to enzymatic destruction. makes the cell wall less permeable to chemicals. makes the cell wall resistant to decolorization with acid-alcohol. makes the cells less resistant to osmotic lysis.
The mycolic acid makes the cell wall resistant to decolorization with acid-alcohol and makes the cell wall less permeable to chemicals. It is a waxy material. Thus, the correct options are a and b.
What is an acid-fast cell wall?An acid-fast cell wall is a type of bacterial cell wall that resists decolorization by acids after being stained. The reason for this is that the cell wall contains a waxy material called mycolic acid, which makes it tough and impermeable to water-soluble stains. The acid-fast stain is used to distinguish between the acid-fast and non-acid-fast bacteria. The acid-fast bacteria are colored red, while the non-acid-fast bacteria are colored blue/green. The acid-fast bacteria include species of Mycobacterium, Nocardia, and Rhodococcus.
Mycolic acid is a lipid molecule that is found in the cell wall of some bacteria. It is a waxy material that is composed of fatty acids and carbohydrates. It is responsible for making the cell wall of these bacteria resistant to many types of chemicals and stresses. Mycolic acid is a critical component of the cell wall of acid-fast bacteria. It is essential for the survival of these bacteria and is involved in the pathogenicity of some of these species.
Therefore, the correct options are a and b.
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) identify both the cellular component and the location of the component that is responsible for producing the luciferase protein from mrnas transcribed in the plasmid-containing t lymphocytes. explain what dictates to the lymphocytes the correct order in which amino acids should be linked to form the luciferas
To identify the cellular component responsible for producing the luciferase protein from mRNAs transcribed in the plasmid-containing T lymphocytes, it is essential to understand the structure of the eukaryotic gene.
The luciferase protein in T lymphocytes is produced in ribosomes, which are the cellular components. The ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of the T lymphocyte cell. These ribosomes help in decoding the genetic information and then using that information to synthesize proteins.
In eukaryotes, translation occurs in the cytoplasm, where ribosomes bind to the mRNA and use it as a template to link amino acids together in a specific order dictated by the genetic code. The genetic code in DNA determines the sequence of nucleotides in the mRNA molecule, which, in turn, dictates the sequence of amino acids in the luciferase protein.
In simpler terms, the sequence of amino acids in the luciferase protein is dictated by the genetic code in DNA, which then gets translated into mRNA. The mRNA molecule acts as a template for the ribosomes to synthesize the luciferase protein by linking amino acids together in a specific order.
Thus, the correct order of amino acids in the luciferase protein is dictated by the genetic code in DNA, which is then transcribed into mRNA, which is translated into protein by ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the T lymphocyte cell.
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Which structure in the plant produces pollen for plant reproduction? O anther ovary O stigma O style
Stamen: The portion of a flower that produces pollen and typically has a thin filament supporting an anther.
An anther releases pollen (male reproductive cells). The anther is supported by the filament. A tube that develops down a style and into the ovary after pollen contacts the stigma during fertilisation. The ovule is fertilised by male reproductive cells that go down the tube and combine with it. Pollen, which like inconsequential yellow dust, contains the male sex cells of a plant and is an essential component of the reproductive cycle. Wildflowers can reproduce & produce enough seeds during dispersal and propagation with sufficient pollination. keep a population's genetic diversity high.
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what cell process produced the sperm in the male flies and egg in the female flies?
The process that produces sperm in male flies and eggs in female flies is called meiosis.
Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that produces haploid gametes, which have half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. In male flies, meiosis occurs in the testes and produces haploid sperm cells. In female flies, meiosis occurs in the ovaries and produces haploid egg cells or ova. During meiosis, the DNA in the parent cell is replicated and then undergoes two rounds of division, resulting in four genetically diverse haploid cells. The haploid gametes produced by meiosis in flies and other organisms are essential for sexual reproduction and the continuation of the species.
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Count up the oxygen (O) atoms in Chlorophyll a. How many oxygen atoms are in Chlorophyll a?
Count up the oxygen (O) atoms in Chlorophyll b. How many oxygen atoms are in Chlorophyll b?
Count up the oxygen (O) atoms in Beta Carotene. How many oxygen atoms are in Beta Carotene?
Count up the oxygen (O) atoms in Xanthophyll. How many oxygen atoms are in Xanthophyll?
Chlorophyll a contains 6 oxygen (O) atoms.Chlorophyll b contains 6 oxygen (O) atoms.Beta Carotene contains 0 oxygen (O) atoms. Xanthophyll contains 4 oxygen (O) atoms.
Chlorophyll is the molecule responsible for photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria. It is a vital pigment that helps in converting light energy into chemical energy. Chlorophyll is composed of a porphyrin ring and a phytol chain. The porphyrin ring contains nitrogen, magnesium, and oxygen.
Chlorophyll a has a methyl group at the 3-position of the ring and a formyl group at the 7-position of the ring. Chlorophyll b differs from chlorophyll a in having a formyl group at the 8-position of the ring and a methyl group at the 3-position of the ring.
Beta Carotene is a type of carotenoid that does not contain any oxygen atoms. It is an organic compound that is made up of isoprene units. Beta Carotene is a yellow-orange pigment that is used as a precursor of vitamin A in animals.Xanthophyll is another type of carotenoid that contains four oxygen atoms. It is a yellow pigment that is found in leaves and other plant parts. Xanthophyll is similar to beta-carotene, but it contains oxygen atoms.
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after a major event at 120 generations, an allele was lost from the population. in terms of diversity, this left the population with:
After a major event at 120 generations, an allele was lost from the population. In terms of diversity, this left the population with less genetic diversity.
What is an allele?An allele is a variant form of a gene that appears as a result of mutation. An allele is one of the possible alternative forms of a gene that can be present at a given locus (position) on a chromosome. A gene locus refers to a specific location on a chromosome where a particular gene is found.
What is genetic diversity?Genetic diversity refers to the variety of genes and alleles that exist within a population. When a population has high genetic diversity, it implies that it has a wide range of genetic variability, making it easier for the population to adapt to environmental changes. It can also protect the population from disease or predation, increase its chances of survival and persistence, and give it greater resilience against genetic drift, inbreeding, and other factors that can reduce genetic diversity.
Therefore, losing an allele from a population results in a decrease in genetic diversity, which is a disadvantage for the population.
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what is the term for the part of a dna strand that produces a protein that causes a stem cell to differentiate?
The term for the part of a DNA strand that produces a protein that causes a stem cell to differentiate is differentiation-inducing factor or differentiation signal.
What is differentiation-inducing factor?This protein is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of genes involved in cell differentiation, leading to development of specialized cell types.
Cell fate means that stem cell makes a decision to differentiate into mature cell type. Signals from environment—chemicals, extracellular proteins/hormones/factors, neighboring cells, physical environment—converge on the cell, activating a signaling cascade that leads to gene expression.
Cell that differentiates into all cell types of adult organism is known as pluripotent and such cells are called meristematic cells in higher plants and embryonic stem cells in animals.
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a scientist immerses actively dividing human cells in a medium containing a drug that blocks the dna replicating enzyme. which stage of the cell cycle is directly affected by the drug?
The drug that blocks the DNA replicating enzyme affects the S-phase of the cell cycle, during which DNA replication occurs.
In actively dividing human cells, the cell cycle progresses through several stages, including interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. The S-phase is a critical stage during interphase, in which the cell's DNA is replicated in preparation for cell division. Blocking the DNA replicating enzyme would halt DNA synthesis and prevent the cell from proceeding to the next stage of the cell cycle, resulting in cell cycle arrest. This technique is often used in research to study the effects of blocking DNA replication on cellular processes and to investigate potential treatments for cancer and other diseases.
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why was the of rate of co2 per minute so low for 1% galactose when compared to 1% glucose?
Because yeast needs nearly an hour to reach the stage of utilising galactose, whereas glucose occurs immediately, the rate of CO2 per minute for 1% galactose was much lower than that for 1% glucose.
Although yeast and galactose can substitute glucose, it is usually the substrate for anaerobic respiration. Glucose's isomer is galactose. Only their atoms' arrangement is different between them. Stereoisomers of each other exist between glucose and galactose. The hydroxyl group's (OH) orientation at carbon 4 is the primary structural variation between galactose and glucose. As a result of the seedlings' photosynthesis, which uses up CO2, less CO2 is being measured.
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Rank the hereditary components from smallest at the top to largest at the bottom.
1. Nucleotide
2. Gene
3. Chromosome
4. Gamete
The hereditary components from smallest at the top to largest at the bottom are Genome, Chromosome, Gene, and Nucleotide and Gamete.
The set of genes that the offspring inherits from both parents, the combination of genetic material from both parents, is called the genotype of an organism. Genotype is opposed to phenotype, which is the appearance of an organism and the result of the development of its genes.
Genome, chromosomes, genes, nucleotides and gametes is the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest.
There are five basic modes of inheritance for monogenic diseases: autosomal dominant inheritance, autosomal recessive inheritance, X-linked dominant inheritance, X-linked recessive inheritance, and mitochondrial inheritance.
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What is feedback regulation of endocrine system?
To ensure that these processes are properly regulated, the endocrine system employs a feedback mechanism to regulate hormone levels.
What is Feedback regulation?Feedback regulation is the process by which hormone levels are regulated in the endocrine system. Hormones are chemical messengers that travel throughout the body to regulate various physiological processes. This feedback mechanism operates through a series of feedback loops that monitor hormone levels in the blood and adjust hormone secretion accordingly.
Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by the endocrine glands and secreted into the bloodstream. These hormones travel to target cells in the body, where they bind to specific receptor proteins on the surface of the cell. The binding of a hormone to its receptor triggers a series of signaling pathways within the cell that ultimately lead to changes in gene expression and other cellular processes.
Feedback regulation is critical to maintaining proper hormone levels in the body. When hormone levels become too high or too low, the feedback mechanism responds by adjusting hormone secretion to restore balance. This ensures that the body's physiological processes remain properly regulated and functioning efficiently.
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Under fasting conditions (ratio of insulin to glucagon <1), elevated glucagon will activate which of the following enzymes?
a. glycogen synthase
b. lipoprotein lipase
c. hormone sensitive lipase
d. pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Under fasting conditions (ratio of insulin to glucagon <1), elevated glucagon will activate hormone sensitive lipase enzymes. The correct option is c.
How does the glucagon hormone work in the body?The hormone glucagon is produced by the pancreas, which aids in regulating glucose levels in the blood. Glucagon is the hormone that raises blood sugar levels in the body. Glucagon stimulates the liver to convert glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. Glucagon causes the liver to break down glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. The liver produces glucose through a process known as gluconeogenesis, which helps to raise blood sugar levels.Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that aids in the absorption of glucose into the body's cells. When insulin levels are low, the hormone glucagon is released to counteract the effects of insulin by raising blood sugar levels in the body.
Hormone-sensitive lipase is an enzyme that aids in the breakdown of stored fat into free fatty acids and glycerol when activated by elevated glucagon levels in the bloodstream. This aids in providing energy for the body when glucose levels are low. When the ratio of insulin to glucagon is less than 1, the hormone-sensitive lipase enzyme is activated, and glycogen synthesis is inhibited. This results in the release of fatty acids from adipose tissue into the bloodstream. This process aids in providing the body with energy during fasting or exercise periods.
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what types of bonds are occurring at the origin between the enzyme and the dna backbone
The origin is the site on DNA where replication begins. During DNA replication, enzymes such as DNA helicase and DNA polymerase must bind to the DNA backbone at the origin to initiate the process.
The bonds occurring between the enzyme and the DNA backbone are primarily hydrogen bonds and electrostatic interactions.
The negatively charged phosphate backbone of DNA interacts with positively charged amino acids in the active site of the enzyme, such as lysine and arginine. These electrostatic interactions help to stabilize the enzyme-DNA complex.
Hydrogen bonds are also important in the interaction between the enzyme and DNA. Hydrogen bonds can form between the nitrogenous bases of DNA and amino acid residues in the active site of the enzyme, such as asparagine and glutamine. These interactions can help to ensure that the enzyme is correctly positioned to catalyze the necessary chemical reactions during DNA replication.
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which structure do the calcium ions bind to when muscle contraction is initiated?
In muscle contraction, calcium ions bind to the regulatory protein troponin, which is part of the thin filament of muscle fibers.
When a nerve impulse reaches a muscle fiber, it triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (a specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum) in the muscle cell. The calcium ions then bind to troponin, causing a conformational change in the protein complex that moves tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament.
This allows myosin heads to bind to actin and form cross-bridges, initiating the sliding of the actin and myosin filaments past each other, leading to muscle contraction. When the level of calcium ions in the cytosol decreases, troponin returns to its original conformational state, causing tropomyosin to block the myosin-binding sites and preventing further muscle contraction.
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The areas of the body most affected by deficiencies of B vitamins include the:
The areas of the body most affected by deficiencies of B vitamins include the... Digestive system and brain and nervous system.
The nervous system is a complex network of cells and tissues that coordinates and controls the functions of the body. It is composed of two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
The CNS consists of the brain and the spinal cord, which receive, process, and interpret information from sensory organs, such as the eyes, ears, nose, and skin, and send commands to muscles, glands, and organs through the PNS. The PNS, in turn, is made up of nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body and can be further divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
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the structure of the dna determines which amino acids are put together to form a specific protein which is used to carry out out the essential functions of life.
The statement in question "the structure of the DNA determines which amino acids are put together to form a specific protein which is used to carry out the essential functions of life" is true. So the answer to that statement is true.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is the biological molecule that carries genetic information. In living organisms, DNA is the genetic material that is passed down from one generation to the next. DNA has a unique structure that allows it to store and transmit genetic information in a specific order. DNA contains the genetic code that determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein. Each amino acid is coded for by a specific sequence of three nucleotides in DNA called a codon, the sequence of codons in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
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Which is the function of the exoskeleton in animals?
ITS NOT C!
Produces the sperm used in reproduction.
Protects against different weather.
Protects against their environment.
Works with muscles to allow movement.
Answer:
B. though I'm not too sure
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Protects against different weather.
why does the liver have two versions of hexokinase, one that is product inhibited and one that is not?
The liver has two versions of hexokinase enzyme, one of these is product inhibited and one is inhibited are glucokinase and hexokinase I, II, and III. These enzymes are encoded by different genes.
What are hexokinase?The liver has two versions of hexokinase because they are encoded by different genes. The one that is product inhibited is called hexokinase IV or glucokinase and the one that is not product inhibited is called hexokinase I, II, or III.
Hexokinase is a family of enzymes that catalyze the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate. This reaction is the first step in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. In mammals, there are four known hexokinase isozymes: hexokinase I, hexokinase II, hexokinase III, and glucokinase (hexokinase IV).
The product inhibition is a type of feedback inhibition in which the product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes one of the reactions in the pathway. Glucokinase (hexokinase IV) is product-inhibited. Glucokinase functions as a glucose sensor in liver and pancreatic beta-cells, while hexokinase I-III are mainly present in other tissues.
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Tonsils and alveolar macrophages are found within the respiratory system, but function as part of the
digestive system
muscular system
lymphatic system
nervous system
Answer:
lymphatic system
Explanation:
lymphatic system drains fluids and defends body from infections sooooo tonsils and alveolar macrophages stimulate defense and immunity
what happened to the r-strain bacteria when avery and his colleagues inactivated dna in the s strain bacteria?
Even in the absence of the RNA or proteins from the S-strain, the R-strain transformed the dangerous S-strain. The S-DNA strains were inactivated, but the R-strain did not change when the researchers did so. Hence, it was determined that DNA is what determines an organism's traits.
What is meant by r-strain bacteria?strain R. The R bacteria developed colonies, or groups of related bacteria, when cultivated in a petri dish, and these colonies had distinct borders and a rough look (hence the abbreviation "R"). The R bacteria were nonvirulent, which means that when administered to a mouse, they did not result in illness. In Frederick Griffith's experiment, Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) bacteria of the S-strain have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat while those of the R-strain have not. Consequently, S-strain bacteria create smooth, shiny colonies, whereas R-strain bacteria create rough, unappealing colonies. Griffith deduced from the data that S strain bacteria had changed R strain bacteria. The S strain bacteria were killed by heat, but the R strain inherited a "transforming principle" that gave them their virulence.To learn more about r-strain bacteria, refer to:
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The body obtains energy by breaking down carbohydrates into ______.ProteinsGlucosenutrient-denseAdditives
The body obtains energy by breaking down carbohydrates into glucose.
Together with lipids and proteins, carbohydrates are one of the three macronutrients that give the body energy. Digestive enzymes convert eaten carbs into simple sugars, of which glucose is the most significant. The body subsequently uses glucose as a source of energy for various cellular functions when it is absorbed into the bloodstream and delivered to cells there.
Cellular respiration is the process that occurs after glucose enters a cell and involves a series of metabolic events that release energy from glucose. The production of new molecules, muscle contractions, nerve impulses, and other cellular processes are all powered by this energy.
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The neurotransmitter released into the synapse between neurons and muscle cells that stimulate skeletal muscle cell isGABAepinerphrinenorepinephrineacetylcholine
The neurotransmitter that is released into the synapse between neurons and muscle cells that stimulates skeletal muscle cells is acetylcholine. Here option D is the correct answer.
Acetylcholine is a chemical messenger that is released from the axon terminals of motor neurons and diffuses across the neuromuscular junction to bind to acetylcholine receptors on the surface of skeletal muscle cells.
This binding triggers a series of biochemical reactions that lead to the contraction of the muscle fiber. The release of acetylcholine is essential for normal muscle function, and disruptions in the production or release of this neurotransmitter can lead to muscle weakness or paralysis.
For example, botulinum toxin, which is produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, blocks the release of acetylcholine from motor neurons and can cause muscle paralysis.
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Complete question:
Which neurotransmitter is released into the synapse between neurons and muscle cells that stimulates skeletal muscle cell?
A) GABA
B) Epinephrine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Acetylcholine
