Answer:
neurons are able to communicate through electrical impulses for example when a stimulus is detected the receptor cells transfer electrical impulses to the sensory neurons which is passed onto the relay neurons in the central nervous system and relayed to the motor neurons. the motor neurons travel with the electrical impulses which are transferred to the effectors to cause a response. However neurons travel and commu icate through synapses
Give four reasons why th toe operating system pivotal in teaching and learning
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
The four reasons why the operating system is pivotal in teaching and learning are the following.
1) Operating systems are the foundation of the computer. Without the operation system in place, you could not run any program.
2) The operating system presents an interface that allows users to perform many tasks at the same time, with all degrees of complexity.
3) The operating system permits the installation of all kinds of software so the user could work on practically anything.
4) Applications for sound, video, graphics, mathematics, and many other activities can be run due to the operating system.
In these times of digital education, the operation system of a computer allows users to do all the needed activities to fulfill the goals of teaching and learning. From video classes, team meetings, corporate dates, continuing training activities, and many more, the capacity of a good operating system is what makes it easy for you to accomplish your goals.
What are some of the main characteristics of skeletal muscle cells that make them distinct from the other two types of muscle cells Why are these characteristics important for understanding the function of skeletal muscle?
Answer:
They are voluntary , require force and fast.
Explanation:
Main characteristics of skeletal muscle cells are given below:
1) these muscles are voluntary which means it can be controlled by the human.
2) skeletal muscles requires force for its movement.
3) movement of skeletal muscle is fast.
Due to its structure, skeletal muscle provide support to the body and the body is able to move from one place to another. It also provide protection to the delicate organs of the body. It is also used as a storage of minerals and fats.
What complications might arise from genetic screens targeting an organ that differentiates late in development?
Answer:
No sign of testicular development in boys and breast development in girls.
Explanation:
Complications like no sign of testicular development in boys and breast development in girls occurs if an organ develop very late. There are many causes of this type of complications such as long term illness, eating improper food and disorder of sexual development. Sometime these complications also occurs due to genetically. These complications should be treated well with medication and use of nutritious food. These medicines increases the performance of sex hormones in order to initiate puberty.
What type of transmission occurs when a pathogen is spread though sneezing or coughing
Answer:
air transmission
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The anticodon (Select all that apply):
a. is a triplet of nucleotides in tRNA
b. determines the identity of the amino acid to be added to the peptide chain
c. is complementary to the codon
d. binds to the codon via hydrogen bonds
Answer:
choice A
Explanation:
An anticodon is a trinucleotide sequence complementary to that of a corresponding codon in a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence. An anticodon is found at one end of a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule.
Most adults should consume no more than 30 percent of their daily calories from fat. A person on a daily diet of 2,500 calories should get no more than how many calories from fat each day.
Answer:
750
Explanation:
30% of 2,500 is 750, therefore 750 calories is the maximum number one should get from fat each day.
Answer:
750 marry christmas break
The diagram represents a food pyramid. The concentration of the pesticide DDT in individual
organisms at level D is higher than the concentration in individuals at level A because DDT is
A. produced by organisms at level C ingested by
those in level D
B. passed through levels A, B, and C to organisms
at level D.
C. excreted by organisms at level A as a toxic
waste.
D. synthesized by organisms at level D.
Answer:
The answer is "Choice b".
Explanation:
In the given question diagram is missing. so first, we define the diagram after that we explain why the above given choice is correct.
In the attached file the food pyramid can be a divide into the level, in which the D pesticides use the "dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane ", which concentration is higher than its entities from the level of A because DDT is transferred with species at level D by levels A, B, and C, that's why the choice "b" is correct.
True or dalse. The cell that produces interferon is protected from the infectious agent.
Answer:
True
I hope this helps!
Describe at least 2 benefits and 2 drawbacks there might be for animal cells (including humans) to make their own food through photosynthesis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Benefits
Animals will not depend on plant source again for their food but have it produced directly by themselves because photosynthesis will allow animal produce their own food
Animal will get a direct source of energy for their activities. Energy is derived from food consumed after the food has been broken down in the body system of animal. Animal photosynthesis will give animals access to direct source of energy as the product their food.
Demerit
Animal lacks chlorophyll the green. Pigment in plant that light hit on absorption that will enable them to photosynthesis.
Animal lacks ways or mechanism of regulating Carbondioxide in take as in the case of C4 plant and crassulacean metabolic pathway (CAM).
Animals such as human will not have access to varieties of food but stick to photosynthate produced by them.
____________ a regulatory protein that may bind DNA to inhibit transcription. ____________ a DNA sequence that binds a regulatory protein. ____________a DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and regulates transcription. ____________a compound that interacts with another protein or compound to form an active repressor ____________a compound that induces or activates transcription, such as lactose.a. Repressorb. Operator c. Promoterd. Corepressore. Inducer
Answer:
A repressor is a regulatory protein that may bind DNA to inhibit transcription. An operator is a DNA sequence that binds a regulatory protein. A promoter is a DNA sequence that binds RNA polymerase and regulates transcription. A corepressor is a compound that interacts with another protein or compound to form an active repressor. An inducer is a compound that induces or activates transcription, such as lactose.
Explanation:
Repressor proteins bind to DNA and RNA to suppress target gene expression. A DNA repressor blocks transcription by inhibiting the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence, while an RNA repressor bind to the mRNA to block translation of the protein. An operator is a DNA sequence required for the attachment of transcription factors. The genes that are transcribed by the binding of a transcription factor to an operator sequence are collectively referred to as an operon. Operons are generally found in prokaryotes but they also can be found in some eukaryotes including Caenorhabditis elegans and Drosophila melanogaster. An inducer is a molecule that activates gene transcription either by binding to repressors/corepressors (thereby inactivating their functions) or by binding activators. For example, the allolactose act as an inducer of the lac operon.
Explain the relationship between a thriving civilization and it’s agriculture system? In a paragraph
Answer:
They use advance technologies in agriculture.
Explanation:
There is a direct relationship between thriving civilization and it’s agriculture system because they use advance methods and technologies in agriculture instead of traditional practices. They use heavy machinery for tillage in order to save the time, use high yielding varieties, use proper dose of fertilizers, use of pesticides and weedicides in order to protect the crop. They harvest the crop by using thresher in order to avoid post harvest losses. In short, they use all technologies available to make a higher yield in order to earn more profit.
A graduate student studying biology at the University of Nebraska has identified a new species of spider found only in Eastern Nebraska around Omaha. The graduate student determines that the spider has six homologous pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would a cell in that spider have during metaphase of mitosis?
Answer:
12 chromosomes
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells. The two daughter cells are genetically identical in the sense that they contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis involves four stages namely: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase.
In the metaphase stage as stated in this question, homologous chromosomes align at the equator of the cell called cell plate, before each chromatids are pulled apart by microtubules at the Anaphase stage.
According to the question, the spider being worked on has 6 pairs of chromosomes, which will align at the cell's equator during metaphase stage of mitosis. Since the replicated chromosomes (chromatids) are yet to separate to opposite poles of the cell, the cell will still contain 12 chromosomes at the metaphase stage.
N.B: Each chromosome contains 2 chromatids or replicated chromosome, which will be separated at the Anaphase stage. Each chromatid will be an individual chromosome after cytokinesis.
Which is a function of the cell membrane? performs photosynthesis controls what enters and leaves the cell produces proteins provides energy to the cell
Answer: controls what enters and leaves the cell
Explanation: it is a barrier keeping the constituents of the cell in and unwanted substansces out and is also a gate allowing transport into the cell of essential nutirnts and movement from cell of waste products.
The cell membrane is also referred to as the plasma membrane or cytoplasmic membrane of the cell. It lays various functions in the cell.
The correct answer is:
Option B. controls what enters and leaves the cell
Role of the cell membrane are:
The cell membrane is a biological membrane, which separates the interior of the cell from the external environment. The cell membrane is selectively permeable such that it allows certain molecules to pass through them. The cell membrane controls the entry and exiting of molecules from the cell.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.
To know more about cell membrane, refer to the following link:
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which of the following MOST directly influences a measurable outcome in an experiment?
Answer:
Hello. You did not enter the answer options, but the factor that most directly influences a measurable result in an experiment is the manipulation of the variables.
Explanation:
In an experiment, the manipulation of variables becomes highly important so that it is possible to measure, that is, evaluate the result. This is because it is the variables that express values that represent the characteristics that are being analyzed and studied within the experiment. Therefore, the manipulation between them must be done in a very rational and balanced way so as not to modify the values shown by them, changing the data and generating false or immeasurable data.
Transcriptional regulation of operon gene expression involves the interaction of molecules with one another and of regulatory molecules with segments of DNA. In this context, define and give an example of each of the following:
a. operator
b. repressor
c. inducer
d. corepressor
e. promoter
f. positive regulation
g. allostery
h. negative regulation
i. attenuation
Answer and explanation:
The operator is a DNA fragment localized between the promoter and structural gene sequences that are able to repress operon transcription. A repressor is a molecule that binds to the operator to inhibit transcription, while an inducer is a molecule that activates transcription by binding either to the repressors or to the activators. A corepressor is a molecule that binds to repressors in order to activate them. A promoter is a DNA sequence localized upstream structural genes which binds to a transcription factor in order to activate operon transcription. Positive regulation is the process by which operon transcription acts as a positive loop, thereby increasing its own transcription, while negative regulation is the process by which operon transcription inhibits its own expression. Allostery refers to the process by which a molecule regulates operon transcription by binding to distal (and therefore non-functional) sites of the operon. Attenuation is a process able to reduce operon transcription and also to block subsequent translation.
In a population of flowers growing in a meadow, C1 and C2 are autosomal codominant alleles that control flower color. The alleles are polymorphic in the population, with f (C1) = 0.8 and f (C2) = 0.2. Flowers that are C1C1 are yellow, orange flowers are C1C2, and C2C2 flowers are red. A storm blows a new species of hungry insects into the meadow, and they begin to eat yellow and orange flowers but not red flowers. The predation exerts strong natural selection on the flower population, resulting in relative fitness values of C1C1 = 0.30, C1C2 = 0.60, and C2C2 = 1.0.
Required:
a. What is the C1C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
b. What is the C2C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
c. What is the C2C2 genotype frequency among the progeny of predation survivors?
d. What is the equilibrium C2 allele frequency in the predation environment?
g The ____ ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the ______ bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Answer:
The purine ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the pyrimidine bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Explanation:
Purines are produced as bases attached to the ribose 5-phosphate (pentose sugar). The adenine and guanine nucleotides derive from inosine monophosphate (IMP), which is synthesized on an existing ribose-phosphate. Thus, purine bases are built on a ribose sugar that is directly attached to the pyrimidine ring. On the other hand, pyrimidines are produced from the carbamoyl phosphate precursor. In this case, the ribose-5-phosphate pentose sugar is attached after the pyrimidine ring is made.
g dGDP is made from ________ by the ribonucleotide reductase. This enzyme is inactive when ______ is bound to its master regulatory pocket.
Answer:
1. GTP dephosphorylation
2. hydrolyzed or removed
Explanation:
GDP, (Guanosine diphosphate) is a biological term, that is made of composition including pyrophosphate group, a pentose sugar ribose, and the nucleobase guanine and it is made from GTP ( Guanosine triphosphate ) dephosphorylation by the ribonucleotide reductase. This enzyme is inactive when hydrolyzed or removed, and then eventually bound to its master regulatory pocket.
Paleobiologists generally recognize the five most severe mass extinctions during the Phanerozoic Eon. Along with the other students in this class, determine when each of these “Big Five” mass extinctions occurred. Include in the discussion a brief list of which organisms went extinct during each of these events and which organisms radiated afterwards. You should use the information from this unit and from Internet searches to help you in this discussion. NO plagiarism will be permitted.
Extinction of the Ordovician: This extinction was responsible for the disappearance of about 60-70% of the species of oceanic life, This is because in that period most of the life on Earth was in the ocean. This extinction is believed to have been caused by an intense glacial period, although short that froze most of the planet's water. It is believed that the species most affected were sponges, algae, jawless fish, molluscs and cephalopods.
Devonian Extinction: Responsible for the disappearance of about 75% of marine species. This extinction was caused by the depletion of oxygen in the ocean, making life impossible for all aerobic marine organisms. This depletion of oxygen was caused mainly by the variation in the level of the ocean and climatic changes that may have been caused by asteroids.
Permian Extinction: Responsible for the death of 95% of life on earth. This extinction is known as the "mother of all extinctions" due to its destructive character, which devastated life on land and in the ocean. It is believed that this extinction was caused by volcanic activities triggered by the impact of asteroids. Almost all living species on earth were affected, such as insects, trilobites, sharks, boneless fish, reptiles, among others.
Extinction of the Triassic: It is not known exactly what caused this extinction, but it is estimated that it had the power to decimate 70-80% of terrestrial life, mainly arcosaurs and amphibians. The most accepted theory today is that the extinction was caused by recurrent volcanic activities that influenced huge volumes of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, generating intense heating.
Cretaceous extinction: It was caused by the impact of an asteroid with the earth. The impact had the power to exterminate 75% of terrestrial life. This is the most well-known extinction, since it was responsible for decimating dinosaurs, however, some animals survived this impact, such as most marine species, frogs, birds, reptile and mammals.
On April 26, 1986, Reactor 4 at the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Station in Ukraine exploded, releasing radioactive isotopes into the air. The majority of the isotopes that were released and spreading thousands of miles were of the element iodine. As a class, discuss what endocrine glands would be most affected and how it would become apparent in the nearby population.
Answer:
In the given case, the thyroid gland will be affected the most due to the exposure of the element iodine. For the synthesis of thyroid gland hormone, T3 and T4 iodine is required. As the exposure of the radioactive iodine element is taking place, therefore, it will result in the deterioration of the thyroid gland. Radioactive iodine is generally used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
However, in normal individuals, the exposure of the radioactive iodine element results in a decrease in the level of thyroid hormones below the normal level due to the destruction of the thyroid cells. The symptoms seen can be neck tenderness, swollen salivary gland, and loss in body weight.
The thyroid gland will be mostly affected in this case. The element Iodine is
the major precursor which is involved in the formation of two hormones.
Thyroid hormonesTriiodothyronine (T3)Thyroxine (T4).When an individual is exposed to radioactive iodine , it alters the production
of the hormones which leads to series of effects such as:
Decreased metabolismLow body weightGoitre etc.Read more about Thyroid hormones here https://brainly.com/question/2469666
why are g protein important for drug discovery?
Answer:
G protein - coupled receptors(GPCRs)n belong to a large family of signaling proteins that mediate cellular reponses to most hormones ,metabolites,cytokines and neuotransmitters and therefore serve as fritful targets for DRUGS DISCOVERYS.
Explanation: histamine(HRH1),serotonin dopamine,opiod and adrenergic receptors.
I HOPE IT'S HELPS YOU TO UNDERSTAND
PLEASE ANSWER QUICK!The Greek roots of the word prokaryote mean “before nucleus.” Describe the way that DNA is organized in prokaryotic cells without the help of a nucleus. How does this approach differ from the way that eukaryotic cells organizes their DNA
Answer:
Prokaryotic cells' DNA are located in the cytoplasm of the cell rather than in the nucleus, like in eukaryotic cells. DNA aids in protein synthesis and determines functions of the cell in cells, regardless of being within the membrane of a nucleus or not.
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I hope this helps a little.
The word prokaryote in Greek means before kernel (nucleus). Unlike the eukaryotic cells, the nuclear material is located in the cytoplasm of the cell in a nucleoid.
What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?The prokaryotic cells are the primitive karyons that are defined by the lack of the true nucleus and organelles. Unlike the eukaryotes, the organelles lack the membrane that covers them but has a tough cell wall.
The prokaryotes include archaea and bacteria which are unicellular and microscopic organisms that are simple and have their genetic material organized into nucleoids in the center of the cell. They have the ability to live in harsh conditions.
Therefore, the eukaryotes and prokaryotes differ in the arrangement of the genetic material.
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The main function of a cell membrane is to allow substances to enter and leave the cell. Which is a correct description of transport through a cell membrane
Answer:
The question is incomplete, below is the completed question:
The main function of a cell membrane is to allow substances to enter and leave the cell. Which is a correct description of transport through a cell membrane ?
a. Diffusion, or passive transport, occurs when molecules diffuse from a lower concentration to a higher concentration.
b. Facilitated transport occurs when proteins that extend through the cell membrane provide a channel through which certain substances can diffuse more rapidly than by passive diffusion.
c. The lipid bilayer opens up and allows the ions or molecules to enter the cell, then closes.
d. Active transport occurs when molecules diffuse from a higher concentration to a lower concentration.
Answer:
b. Facilitated transport occurs when proteins that extend through the cell membrane provide a channel through which certain substances can diffuse more rapidly than by passive diffusion.
Explanation:
Transport through cell membranes can be broadly classified as active transport or passive transport.
Active transport requires energy in the form of ATP for the transportation of substances across the cell membrane.
Option b correctly describes facilitated diffusion, which is a passive-mediated diffusion process, where channels in the cell membrane mainly composed of proteins called transmembrane integral proteins, allow for the movement of certain molecules (mostly polar/hydrophilic) molecules that will not otherwise be transported through simple diffusion because of the hydrophobic nature of the cell membrane.
The other options are wrong because:
a. diffusion or simple transport involves the movement of substances from regions of higher to a lower concentration not lower to higher as suggested here.
c. The lipid bi-layer does not allow ions or hydrophilic molecules because it is hydrophobic in nature, and it is not a channel, so it does not open and closes
d. In active transport, transfer of molecules is from regions of lower to higher concentration and not higher to lower concentration as suggested here.
ABO blood type is examined in a Taiwanese population, and allele frequencies are determined. In the population,
f (IA) = 0.30,
f(IB) = 0.15, and
f (i) = 0.55.
What are the frequencies of the various genotypes and various phenotypes in this population? Assume Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer and Explanation:
Due to technical problems, you will find the answer and explanation in the attached file.
Before using any chemical in the lab, why should one first read the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
The MSDS provides information on safe handling of the chemical.
The MSDS explains where the chemical can be purchased.
The MSDS provides the chemical formula for the substance.
The MSDS describes how the chemical will react with other substances.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Took test on Edge.
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information related to occupational safety and health. The MSDS provides knowledge on the safe handling of chemicals. Thus, option A is correct.
What is MSDS?Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is the data safety sheet that states the rules and details of handling and using the laboratory chemicals that are related to health. It is of great importance as it allows the learning of chemical hazards.
Before entering the lab and using the chemicals one should read the MSDS book so to get aware of the handling and precautions that have to be taken while performing any experiments. To work safely one should know its danger and should be prepared for emergencies.
Therefore, the MSDS provides knowledge on the handling of hazardous chemicals.
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What is the relationship between DNA mutation and sickle-cell anemia? (1 point)
O Sickle-cell anemia and DNA mutations are correlated without any causal relationship.
O Sickle-cell anemia causes a DNA mutation.
O A DNA mutation causes sickle-cell anemia.
O A DNA mutation is correlated with but does not cause sickle-cell anemia.
Answer:
A DNA mutation causes sickle-cell anemia.
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single code letter change in the DNA. This in turn alters one of the amino acids in the hemoglobin protein. Valine sits in the position where glutamic acid should be. The valine makes the hemoglobin molecules stick together, forming long fibers that distort the shape of the red blood cells, and this brings on an attack.
Studies of the relative efficacy or nonefficacy of a drug based on specific genotypes would be considered part of the field of
Answer:
Personalized genomic medicine
Explanation:
Personalized genomic medicine is a field that uses genomics data to develop personalized technologies and therapies for clinical care. All people share a sequence homology level higher than 99%; however a very small fraction of the genome (lesser than 1%) contains genetic polymorphisms among individuals, and this variation is associated with the likelihood of suffering diseases, either by increasing or by reducing disease susceptibility. Personalized genomic medicine first identifies genetic variations and then develops new strategies and personalized drugs to treat genetic disorders.
n your lab you are studying the genome of venomous rattlesnakes to find the gene which codes for their venom glands. You have two rattlesnakes, one rattlesnake has a mutation but can still produce venom. You compare his DNA to a normal rattlesnake. What type of mutation has occurred? Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Answer:
There are no options but the kind of mutation that occurred by carefully observing both sequences is:
POINT SUBSTITUTION MUTATION
Explanation:
Mutation is any change, whether small or big, in the nucleotide sequence of a gene (DNA). Mutation occurs from time to time in an organism either by a mistake during DNA replication or induced by a mutagen (mutation-causing substance). Mutation can be of different types depending on the effect on the mutant.
In this case of comparing the DNA sequence two rattle snakes, the sequences of the two snakes are:
Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
By carefully observing the two DNA sequences, one would realize that the only difference in the two sequences is the first nucleotide base. That is, in the normal sequence, th first base is Adenine (A) while in the mutated sequence, the first base is Thymine (T).
This type of mutation that involves only one nucleotide base is called POINT MUTATION. It can also be noticed that base "A" was changed "T". Hence, this is a type of SUBSTITUTION MUTATION because a single base was replaced by another in the sequence.
What are some pros and cons of using a dispersant versus bacteria to deal with a very large spill and how would each one impact the environment
Answer:
it is toxic to the health
Explanation:
Dispersants create a toxic environment for fish by releasing harmful oil break-down products into the water. ... Dispersants and dispersed oil have also been shown to have toxic effects on bird eggs that are similar or worse than from untreated oil.
somebody help me please A cross is performed between a bird that is homo for red feathers and a bird that is homo for blue feathers. Purple offspring result due to incomplete dominance. Then, two of the purple offspring are crossed. What proportion of the offspring from the second cross will be purple? 1 in 4 2 in 4 3 in 4 4 in 4
Answer:
2 in 4
Explanation:
Let PP are the gametes of red feather bird and pp are the gamete of blue feather bird. In the first cross they both will give purple feather bird because of incomplete dominance.
Consider Pp as the allele of purple offspring for the second cross. When two of the purple offspring are crossed, it will give the proportion of 2 in 4
F2: Pp X Pp
Offspring: PP, Pp,Pp, pp
So, only two offspring, Pp is with purple feathers while PP has red and pp has blue feathers.
Hence, the correct option is 2 in 4.
The proportion of the offspring from the second cross that would be purple will be 2 in 4.
Let us assume that the red feather color is controlled by allele A and that of blue feather color is controlled by allele B.
Homzygous red feather birds will have the genotype AA
Homzygous blue feather birds will have the genotype BB
Crossing the 2 birds:
AA x BB
AB AB AB AB
Thus, the purple offspring are AB.
Crossing 2 of the purple offspring:
AB x AB
AA AB AB BB
1 AA - red
2 AB - purple
1 BB - blue
Thus, 2/4 or 1/2 or 50% of the offspring from the second cross will be purple.
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