Answer:
I am secondary level student and this doesn't belongs to my coure till yet however..i have written this through google.....you may search there as well..
Explanation:
Enzyme activity occurs within a narrow range of temperatures compared to ordinary chemical reactions. As you have seen, each enzyme has a certain temperature at which it is more active. This point is called the optimal temperature, which ranges between 37 to 40C°...
The data shown above is a life table for the female Belding ground squirrel in the Sierra Nevada
Mountains.
Calculate the mortality rate (per thousand) between the ages of 1-2.
You must show your work in order to receive credit for your answer!
Answer:
377
Explanation:
you plus 252and 125 together and you will get 377
g Cell autonomous genes affect only those cells in which they are expressed. Which group of early developmental genes are not cell autonomous?
Answer:
The options are not given..
Here are the options.
A. segment polarity genes
B. gap genes
C. coordinate genes
D. homeotic genes
The correct option is A.
segment polarity genes
Explanation:
Segment polarity genes is a group of early developmental genes that are not cell autonomous because their expression helps to define anterior and posterior polarities within each embryonic parasegment. They are the genes that help to function for the polarity within each parasegment of the embryo
which of the following would differ if you compared the same reaction taking place with and without an enzyme
a. the chemical energy of the reactants
b. the chemical change of the product
c. the energy required to the reaction
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Chemical energy is the energy that every substance or chemical have and its not affected by the presence or absence of the enzyme, while the activation energy is the required energy to initiate for a chemical reaction. If the energy of the chemical reaction is less than the activation energy reaction will not take place.
Presence of a enzyme lowers the amount of the energy for the initiating the reaction which is activation energy and the chemical reaction takes place.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
Which submersible vessel has been used deep-sea research
Answer:
The challenger
Explanation:
Used to explore the south pacific, mainly the Mariana trench
Answer:
Which submersible has been used for deep sea research? Alvin Alvin (DSV-2) is a crewed deep-ocean research submersible owned by the United States Navy and operated by the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution (WHOI) in Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
Explanation:
The ____ ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the ______ bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Answer:
The purine ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the pyrimidine bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Explanation:
In the de novo synthesis of nucleotides, their metabolic precursors such as aminoacids, ribose-5-phosphate, CO₂ and NH₃ are used as starting materials.
In purine nucleotide synthesis, the ring structure is built up on ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP by addition of one or a few atoms one at a time starting with the amino group donated by glutamine until the first intermediate inosinate is synthesized.
In pyrimidine ring synthesis, orotate is first synthesized from carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate, and then is attached to ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP, before it is then converted to the common pyrimidine nucleotides starting from uridylate.
Have you ever noticed that aside from zoos, you don't see kangaroos, wombats, and koala bears outside of Australia? This is because there is a trench that is a "biogeographical transition zone between Asian and Australian flora and fauna". What is the name of that trench?
Answer:
Wallace Line
Explanation:
Wallace Line is a boundary line which is a transitional zone between Asia and Australia. This boundary drawn by the British naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace in 1859. This boundary restricts the transferring organisms such as flora and fauna from Australia to Asia. So that's why kangaroos, wombats, and koala bears are only present in Australia not in the continent of Asia.
To study the fate of carbon during glycolysis under aerobic conditions, cultured cells are fed with 14C-glucose labeled in various positions. You use a radiolabeled form of glucose where the radioactive 14C occupies position 1. Which of the following is correct?a. The carboxyl group of acetyl-CoA and CO2 become radiolabeledb. The methyl group of acetyl CoA and CO2 become radiolabeledc. The carbonyl group of acetyl-CoA becomes radiolabeledd. The methyl group of acetyl CoA becomes radiolabelede. CO2 becomes radiolabeledf. I don’t have enough information to conclude
Answer:
D. The methyl group of acetyl CoA becomes radio-labeled
Explanation:
During the steps in glycolysis, the carbon at position 1, becomes C-1 in dihydroxyacetone phosphate during the cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. Subsequently on isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, C-1 of dihydroxyacetone phosphate becomes C-3 of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
Furthermore, in pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, C-3 is converted to a methyl group which then becomes the methyl group in the acetyl-CoA molecule produced from the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate.
Since the radioactive 14-C of radio-labeled glucose occupies position 1, it will become the methyl group of acetyl-CoA.
PLS ANYONE IT'S URGENT Explain eubacteria ?
Answer:
Eubacteria are PROKARYOTIC organisms characterized by the lack of membrane and have peptidoglycan on cell wall when present.
Explanation:
They include most of the familiar bacteria such as E.
Hope it helps.
In a laboratory experiment with three groups of students, one group drinks pure water, a second group drinks an equal amount of beer, and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution, all during the same time period. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. Which groups are expected to have the greatest and least amounts of urine, respectively
Answer:
beer is the greatest and salt solution would be least
Explanation:
o help create these gradients, there are a series of capillaries, branching from the peritubular capillaries and associated with the loop of Henle, collectively called the
Answer:
Vasa recta.
Explanation:
Vasa recta are a group of capillaries, branching from the peritubular capillaries and moves parallel with the loop of Henle. Vasa recta is responsible for the supply of blood to renal medulla in order to purify the blood from the waste materials such as salts, excess water and nitrogenous waste etc. Due to its movement with the loop of Henle, it slows down the blood flow which helps in the re-absorption of water.
For this task, you will imagine that you are a reporter for a scientific magazine. Your task is to explain the process of protein synthesis to someone who does NOT have a science background. Therefore, the explanation needs to be in simple enough terms for anyone to understand. You will organize your article in the following way: Structure and Function of DNA and RNA Transcription and RNA processing Translation Protein modification (general) You must also include the following terms: Double helix Helicase Codon Polymerase 5’ cap Poly (A) tail Introns Exons Splicesomes rRNA, tRNA, Mrna Ribosomes Anticodons E site, P site, A site Initiation Elongation Termination
Answer:
Please find the explanation below
Explanation:
Our nucleus is made up of a genetic material called deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which is a double-helical structure that stores the genetic information needed for the optimal functioning of any organism. DNA, alongside RNA are nucleic acids that are composed of NUCLEOTIDES subunits. The nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
However, the genetic information stored in the DNA molecule needs to be expressed in order to form useful products (proteins). This genetic expression is done in two stages viz: transcription and translation. Transcription, which is catalyzed by an enzyme called RNA polymerase is the process whereby the information stored in the DNA is used to synthesize a mRNA molecule. However, this mRNA molecule is considered pre-mature until it is processed. RNA processing occurs in three stages viz: 5' capping, polyadenylation, and splicing.
5' capping involves adding a 5' cap to the marks molecule. Polyadenylation involves adding a poly(A) tail to the mRNA molecule while splicing is the removal of introns (non coding regions) with the aid of Spliceosomes and joining of the exons (coding region). After processing, the mRNA becomes matured and ready to be translated.
Translation is the process whereby the mRNA transcript is used to synthesize a protein molecule. It occurs in the ribosomes (organelles for protein synthesis, a complex of rRNA and proteins) where the mRNA is read in a group of three nucleotides called CODON. The reading is done by the Anticodon of a transfer RNA (tRNA), which is complementary to the codon.
Translation occurs in three stages: initiation, elongation and termination. The mRNA attaches to the P site of the ribosomes (initiation) where it is attached to by a tRNA's anticodon complementary to it. The anticodon carries the amino acid corresponding the codon and shifts to the A-site. The addition of amino acid to the polypeptide chain continues (elongation) until a stop codon is encountered, which signals the end of the translation process i.e. termination. This causes the polypeptide (protein) to be released from the E-site.
The synthesized protein undergoes packaging and modification in the Golgi apparatus.
#1 Multiple choice: A. The highest temperatures are on land B. High ocean temperatures form a band in the tropics and subtropics that does not everywhere follow the equator C. Temperatures generally are higher on land than over adjacent oceans D. All of these are valid
Answer:
d all of these are valid generalizations
how gravity plays a role in the parts of the water cycle shown in this model.
Answer:
look dear i will explain
Explanation: It pulls precipitation down from clouds and pulls water down hill . gravity also moves air and ocean water. Gravity pulls denser air and water downwards,forcing less dense air and water o move upwards.
okay hope it works
Hit like
Answer:
Gravity causes precipitation in the clouds to fall to Earth. On the ground, gravity influences surface runoff, as water travels from higher to lower elevations. Gravity also influences groundwater because it pulls elements toward the center of Earth. Water, under the influence of gravity, seeps into the ground to form groundwater.
Explanation:
there u go guys thats the sample answer but change it up please. have a good day
During cellular movement which filaments will be the ones that are responsible for attaching and pulling the other filaments along?
Answer:
Myosin
Explanation:
Myosin are the major components of both muscle and non muscle cells in striated muscles which is responsible for contraction or movement that convert chemical energy (ATP) into mechanical work thereby generating force and movement.
During cellular movement , myosin filament will be the ones that are responsible for attaching and pulling the other filaments along because Myosin binds to actin at a binding site on the globular actin protein,it also have ATP binding sites which hydrolyses ADP to ATP , ATP binding causes myosin to release actin, which make actin and myosin to detach from each other thereby causing attachment and contraction of other filaments
Carbon first enters the food web in Multiple Choice humans. vertebrates. invertebrates. green plants. soil bacteria
Answer:
Green Plants
Explanation:
Carbon enters all food webs, both terrestrial and aquatic, through autotrophs, or self-feeders.
Identical twins are formed from one fertilized egg, but fraternal twins form from two different fertilized eggs. Apply your knowledge of mitosis and meiosis to explain the genetic differences between identical and fraternal twins.
Answer:
Identical twins share the exact same DNA while fraternal twins do not.
Explanation:
Mitosis is the type of cell division that results in 2 individual cells that have the exact genetic material.
Meiosis is the division of reproductive cells, eggs and sperms, which results in new cells with half the amount of genetic material and that makes them unique.
Identical twins are twins developed from a single egg that has been fertilized with a single sperm, meaning they have the same DNA.
Fraternal twins are twins from two different eggs that have been fertilized by two different sperms and grow in the womb at the same time with no additional cell division. So they have different DNA's.
I hope this answer helps.
The formation of fraternal twins takes place when the female generates two eggs and identical twins takes place when the female generates one egg and the zygote divides into two spontaneously.
• In identical twins case, the zygote goes through cleavage, that is, cell division by mitosis, when embryo is at the stage of two cell.
• The separation of two blastomeres may take place and then each act as an independent zygote.
• This each dissociated blastomere give rise to a novel independent individual.
• The production of both the organisms takes place due to mitosis, thus, both would possess identical genetic makeup and are known as identical twins.
• Identical twins would be either males or would be either females.
• In case of fraternal twins, the female generates more than one eggs. And all the eggs get fertilized independently by the sperm.
• Thus, formation of two or more zygotes takes place, and each zygote give rise to new offspring.
• These offsprings possess distinct genetic combinations, and such offspring are known as fraternal twins.
• They are produced sexually, and fraternal twins can possess different genders as they do not possess similar genetic recombination.
Thus, identical twins is formed from one egg and the zygote gets divide into two, while fraternal twins formation takes place when two eggs are generated by the female.
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Which element would you expect to have a higher electronegativity than nitrogen (N)?
O Fluorine (F)
Cesium (Cs)
O Boron (B)
O Phosphorous (P)
Answer:
flourine ( F)
Explanation:
flourine has higher electronegativity than nitrogen (N)
Explain how deforestion can lead to water pollution.
Hello I am new here can help.Thanks
Answer:
Although loss of forest cover can increase runoff, the increased runoff can accelerate soil erosion and increase the sediment load and turbidity of water sources, thus decreasing the water quality.
Explanation:
Explanation:
although loss of forest cover can increase runoff the increased runoff can accelerate soil erosion and increase the sediment load and turbidity of water source does decreasing the water
function of carbohydrates
Answer:
Alongside fat and protein, carbohydrates are one of the three macronutrients in our diet with their main function being to provide energy to the body. They occur in many different forms, like sugars and dietary fiber, and in many different foods, such as whole grains, fruit and vegetables.
Explanation:
Which of the circumstances below most accurately describes conditions that are likely to permit a robust anti-tumor adaptive immune response?
a. A tumor with high expression of proteins that have mutations in sequences encoding HLA-binding peptides.
b. A robust acute inflammatory response to PAMPs expressed specifically by tumor cells.
c. Anti-tumor T lymphocytes that have high expression of CTLA-4.
d. A tumor with high expression of PD-L1.
Did you ever figure out the answer to this question?
The study of PAMP-DAMP complexes is vital to the advancement of knowledge regarding inflammatory disorders in general and cancer in particular. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
What is PAMP-DAMP complexes?Increasing evidence links inflammation to cancer, and at the root of inflammation are PAMPs and DAMPs (DAMPs). Microorganisms contain PAMPs, which are detected by pattern recognition receptors on monocytes and DCs (PRRs). PRR activation produces pro-inflammatory cytokines.
A robust immune response requires endogenous chemicals that pose 'risk' to self-tissues and are created by injured or stressed cells; these are DAMPs, which also trigger inflammation. PAMPs and DAMPs each have about 100 receptors. PAMPs and DAMPs interact; a PRR can bind to both. In this system, PAMPs and DAMPs affect each other's activation threshold. Thus, PAMP-DAMP relationships describe inflammation in a predictable 'inflammatory code'
PAMP-DAMP complexes are key to understanding inflammatory disorders and cancer.
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Applying ACh to the small intestine will cause a smooth muscle ______, which is through activation of ______ receptors.
Answer:
The correct answer is - Excitation; and Gi receptors.
Explanation:
ACh or acetylcholine is a secondary messenger that cause excitation by propagate the signal to the muscles from neurons. It is helps in transport the signal from the motor neurons to the muscles.
ACh release from the parasympathetic neurons and can directly excitation to the smooth muscle by binding to the Gi receptors or muscarinic receptors and activate them for excitation and contraction.
Thus, the correct answer is - Excitation; and Gi receptors.
g Riboswitch is a mechanism of gene activity regulation by mRNA conformation. Riboswitch can regulate ______.
Answer: c. both transcription and translation
Explanation:
Riboswitchs are mRNA elements that influence the activity of genes certain genes by regulating same and are found in other organisms apart from humans such as bacteria, plants and fungi.
They regulate activity by binding to specific small molecules known as ligands thus causing a structural rearrangement that enables either transcription or translation to be modulated in the gene.
A container on the counter labeled "ground beel" is not properly date marked. The cook tells the Person in charge (PIC) that it was
prepared recently. The Person in charge (PIC) should
Ouke the ground beer in temperature is alr(**) or lower
O ada the ground beer to chilor Noup.
O discard the ground beer
O use the ground beef on pizza prepared for immediate service.
Answer:
Correct Answer:
O discard the ground beer
Explanation:
When it comes to anything edible whether food or drink, safety and precaution is always taken. This is to prevent poisoning when an expired or harmful food or drink is taken. In the case of the undated "ground beer" on the counter, the best action would be to discard it entirely.
In the given case, The Person in charge (PIC) should - discard the ground beer
All foods that require time and temperature control (TCS) should be labeled with the following:
Common name of the food Date the food was made.Use by date.Date marking is a process assuring the food is discarded before these bacteria can cause foodborne illness.anything edible whether food or drink, safety and precaution is always taken.If something not marked properly should be discardedprevent poisoning when an expired or harmful food or drink is taken.Thus, In the case of the undated "ground beer" on the counter, the best action would be to discard it entirely.
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You decide to focus first on Mutation 1 and Mutation 2.
The F' plasmid appears to "rescue" mutant strain 1 by restoring wild-type inducible expression.
The F' plasmid does not change the phenotype of mutant strain 2; there is still no expression of the lac operon.
There are three possible mutations that could lead to lack of expression: a super-repressor (Is), a promoter mutation (P-) or a mutation in the lacZ gene (Z- ). To determine the effect of introducing a wild-type F' plasmid into a bacterial cell with each of these mutations, you draw out the three possible scenarios.
F' l+ cap+
Determine the expression of the lac operon for each possible partial diploid and for the "unknown" mutation partial diploids (Mutation 1 and Mutation 2).
1. F' lac+/ ts
2. F' lac+/ P
3. F' lac+/ Z
4. F' lac+/ Mutation 1
5. F lac+/ Mutation 2
A. Inducible (wild type)
B. No expression (mutant)
Answer:
Super-repressor (Is) - Uninducible dominant
Binding region is modified by the protein called repressor which prevents the lactose to bind with it. Thus, even the lactose is present the repressor protein is bound to the promoter and can not be detach from it. Transcription is not inducible.
Promoter mutation (P)- - Uninducible recessive
Mutated promoter region inhibits the binding of RNA polymerase that leads to trranscription.
The lacZ gene ( Z-) is mutated - recessive while the normal LacZ gene (Z +) - dominant .
Inducible (Wild type) No expression (Mutant)
F' lac+/ Is No Yes
F' lac + / P- Yes No
F' lac + / Z- Yes No
F' lac +/ Mutation1 Yes No
F' lac+ / Mutation2 No Yes
Mutation 1 and F' plasmid - Inducible wild type
Mutation 2 and F' plasmid - Mutant no expression
Galactosemia is a metabolic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize the sugar galactose. People with galactosemia suffer from liver, kidney, and brain damage among other symptoms. A gene mutation underlying galactosemia was identified by sequencing the genome of a person with galactosemia. What additional evidence would support the hypothesis that the mutation in the candidate gene causes the disease
Answer:
Genetic mapping for unequivocal identification of the potentially causative mutation
Explanation:
Galactosemia is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the Galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT) gene, which encodes an enzyme involved in the metabolism of galactose. Gene mapping is a technique widely used in genetics to identify the position of one locus a chromosome by using molecular markers to estimate genetic distances. Genetic mapping provides useful evidence in order to identify when a disease that is transmitted from parent to offspring can be associated with one or more genes and then determine which gene/s is/are responsible for this condition.
In the image, the arrow Is pointing to a celestial object. Which attribute disqualifies the object from being a planet?
A. It appears to have no moons.
B. It is spherical in shape.
C. Its neighborhood is not clear.
D. It has horizontal bands on its surface.
The correct answer is C. Its neighborhood is not clear.
Explanation:
One of the key features of a planet is that it clears its neighborhood; this means the planet gravitational force is strong enough that there are no other celestial bodies on its orbit or next to it except by its moons or satellites. This does not occur in the image presented because there are smaller celestial bodies near to the main or bigger celestial body. This likely occurs if the celestial body is not big enough to clear its neighborhood, and therefore it is not a planet.
Squamous cells specialize in what function? A) the secretion of enzymes B) diffusion of gasses C) the absorption of nutrients D) none of the above
Answer:
The abosbton of nutrients
Tissue found in leaf stalks below the epidermis is________.
Explaination
Collenchyma is the tissue found below the epidermis of a leaf stalk. These are simple permanent tissue, perform photosynthesis when chloroplast is present.
All the living organisms in an area and the non-living components of the environment with which they interact is termed a(n):
Answer:
Ecosystem
Explanation:
An ecosystem can be described simply as the collection of all living and non-living components in a particular area. The living components of the environment are known as biotic factors. Biotic factors include plants, animals, and micro-organisms.
If the two chromosomes of a homologous pair carry the same allele for a particular gene, the individual is said to be:_____.
Answer
H0m0zygous
Explanation
The answer to the question is in the attachment. Please open the attachment
