Consider exponential function h.
h(x) = 3x + 4

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

A baseball player has a batting average (probability of getting on base per time at bat) of 0.215

i.e

let x to be the random variable,

consider [tex]x_1 = \left \{ {{1} \atop {0}} \right.[/tex]  to be if the baseball player has a batting average or otherwise.

Then

p(x₁ = 1) = 0.125

What is the probability that they will get on base more than 6 of the next 15 at bats

So

[tex]\mathtt{x_i \sim Binomial (n,p)}[/tex]

where; n =  15 and p = 0.125

P(x>6) = P(x ≥ 7)

[tex]P(x>6) = \sum \limits ^{15}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=7} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 - \sum \limits ^{6}_{x=0} ( ^{15 }_x ) \ (0.215)^x \ (1 - 0.215)^{15-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>6) = 1 -0.9735[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(x>6) = 0.0265}[/tex]

Answer: The value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:  x and y are two positive real numbers such that [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] .

Consider [tex](x-2y)^2=x^2-2(x)(2y)+(2y)^2\ \ \ [(a+b)^2=(a^2-2ab+b^2)][/tex]

[tex]=x^2-4xy+4y^2[/tex]

[tex]=x^2+4y^2-4(xy)[/tex]

Put  [tex]x^2+4y^2=17[/tex]   and [tex]xy= 2[/tex] , we get

[tex](x-2y)^2=17-4(2)=17-8=9[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow\ (x-2y)^2=9[/tex]

Taking square root on both sides , we get'

[tex]x-2y= \pm3[/tex]

Hence, the value of x- 2y is a. [tex]\pm 3[/tex].

Answer:

300%

Step-by-step explanation:

1 year = 12 months

percent = part/whole * 100%

percent = 12/4 * 100% = 300%

Answer:

please can u follow me I've started following you

Answer:

Yes.

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Hope it helps!

Answer:

It is 1.45 x 10^-7 or 0.000000145

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A. y + 2= x

Step-by-step explanation:

Which equation is represented by the graph shown in the image?

A. y + 2= x

B. y + 1= x

C. y - 1= x

D. y - 2= x

Please show ALL work! <3

The graph shown has a slope of +1 and a y intercept of -2.

All given answer choices have a slope of +1, so that's not the problem.

We need one that has a y-intercept of -2, or the equation should be

y = x-2, or equivalently y+2 = x

which corresponds to answer choice A.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to find the medians which is when you put the numbers in number order and find the one in the middle.

Class A: 60,65,70,70,75,80,80,85,90,90

=77.5

Class B: 75,85,85,85,90,90,90,90,95,100

=90

That the class B is more advanced, and they probably studied.

Answer:

B =

[tex]4x - 1 - \frac{4}{2x - 3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

In this type of questions the answers are required in the

[tex]quotient \: + \frac{remainder}{divisor} [/tex]

form.

First of all, the equations in question must be arranged properly

[tex](8 {x}^{2} - 14x - 1) \div 2x - 3[/tex]

Then you divide.

[tex]2x - 3 \sqrt{8 {x}^{2} - 14x - 1 } [/tex]

Answer

[tex]4x - 1 - \frac{4}{2x - 3} [/tex]

Answer:

126°

Step-by-step explanation:

If that angle is 27, so is angle a.

180-27-27=126

Answer:

The percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variable is 80 %.

Step-by-step explanation:

A coefficient of correlation of 0.8 means that dependent variable changes in 0.8 when independent variable changes in a unit. Hence, the percentage of such variation ([tex]\%R[/tex]) is:

[tex]\%R = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}\times 100\,\%[/tex]

Where:

[tex]\Delta x[/tex] - Change in independent variable, dimensionless.

[tex]\Delta y[/tex] - Change in dependent variable, dimensionless.

If [tex]\Delta x = 1.0[/tex] and [tex]\Delta y = 0.8[/tex], then:

[tex]\%R = 80\,\%[/tex]

The percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variable is 80 %.

Answer:

First find the number of Mango and oranges. 400 divided by 8 = 50. We use 8 because it is the whole part of the percentage. Since, there is 3/8 mangoes, multiply 50* 3= 150 mangoes and 50*5= 250 oranges.

2/3 of 150=100 mangoes. You would find this by dividing 150/3=50 then multiply by 2.

4/5 of 250= 200 oranges. You would find this by dividing 250/5=50 then multiply by 4.

$.40*100= $40.00 mangoes

$.60*200= $120.00 oranges

Mr. Mead would make $160.00

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

71°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of two interior angles in a triangle is equal to an exterior angle

m<x + m<y = m<z

4n - 18 + n + 9 = 151 - 5n

5n - 9 = 151 - 5n add like terms

10n = 160

n = 16

Since m<z = 151 - 5n we replace n with 16 and 151 - 5×16 = 71

Answer:

A. 71

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y = z

4n - 18 + n + 9 = 151 - 5n

5n - 9 = 151 - 5n

10n = 160

n = 16

Z = 151 - 5(16) = 71

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{50}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the initial temperature is 40 degrees and it increases by 10, add the two values together to get the final temperature.

40 + 10 = 50

Therefore, the final answer is 50 degrees.

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

If it starts at 40 degrees and increases 10 degrees, it is going to be 50 degrees.  Increases means adding, so it is asking you to add 10 to 40 which is 50.  If it asks decreases in the future you will have to subtract.

Answer:

0.9719

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the mean and standard deviation of the sampling distribution.

μ = 5.1

σ = 1.1 / √49 = 0.157

Find the z score.

z = (x − μ) / σ

z = (4.8 − 5.1) / 0.157

z = -1.909

Use a calculator to find the probability.

P(Z > -1.909)

= 1 − P(Z < -1.909)

= 1 − 0.0281

= 0.9719

The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

Probability is the branch of mathematics concerning numerical descriptions of how likely an event is to occur, or how likely it is that a proposition is true.

In statistics, the standard deviation is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values.

The arithmetic mean is found by adding the numbers and dividing the sum by the number of numbers in the list.

Given,

Mean = 5.1 inches

Standard deviation = 1.1 inches

Sample size = 49

New mean = 4.8

Z score = Difference in mean /(standard deviation / [tex]\sqrt{sample size}[/tex])

Z score = [tex]\frac{4.8-5.1}{1.1/\sqrt{49} }=-1.909[/tex]

Z score = -1.909

Then the probability

P(Z>-1.909)

=1-P(Z>-1.909)

=1-0.0281

=0.9719

Hence, The probability of the randomly used item mean length is greater than 4.8 inches is 0.9719

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[tex]\displaystyle\\(a+b)^n\\T_{r+1}=\binom{n}{r}a^{n-r}b^r\\\\\\(x+2)^7\\a=x\\b=2\\r+1=5\Rightarrow r=4\\n=7\\T_5=\binom{7}{4}x^{7-4}2^4\\T_5=\dfrac{7!}{4!3!}\cdot x^3\cdot16\\T_5=16\cdot \dfrac{5\cdot6\cdot7}{2\cdot3}\cdot x^3\\\\T_5=560x^3[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{560x^3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](x+2)^7[/tex]

Expand brackets.

[tex](x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2) (x+2)[/tex]

[tex](x^2 +4x+4) (x^2 +4x+4) (x^2 +4x+4)(x+2)[/tex]

[tex](x^4 +8x^3 +24x^2 +32x+16)(x^3 +6x^2 +12x+8)[/tex]

[tex]x^7 +14x^6 +84x^5 +280x^4 +560x^3 +672x^2 +448x+128[/tex]

The fifth term is 560x³.

Hi

35/100= 140/ X

X = 100*140 /35

X= 14000/35

X= 400

There are 400 computer in the compagny.

Answer:

a. 0.06166

b. 0.9447

Step-by-step explanation:

15 percent is the probability it will rain on any given day. P = 0.15

lets define x as the number of days it will rain in one week.

this solution will follow a binomial distribution.

p(X=x) = nCxP^x(1-p)^x

n = 7

x = 3

1-p = 0.85

p =0.15

inserting these values into the formula

p(X=3)=7C3(0.15)^3(0.85)^4

= 7!/4!3! × 0.003375 × 0.5220

= 35 × 0.003375 × 0.5220

= 0.06166

sd = √np(1-p)

= √7 × 0.15(0.85)

= 0.9447

Answer:

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

2 cups: 2/3 cups

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Take and divide each by the smaller number

15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

First put in improper fraction form

15/2 : 5/2

Divide each by 5/2

15/2 ÷ 5/2  : 5/2 ÷5/2

15/2 * 2/5  : 1

3 :1   yes

1 cup: 1/4 cups

Divide each by 1/4 ( which is the same as multiplying by 4)

1*4  : 1/4 *1

4 : 1    no

2/3 cups: 1 cup

Divide each by 2/3  ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2/3 * 3/2  : 1 * 3/2

1 : 3/2   no

3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

Change to improper fraction

( 4*3+3)/4  : 2

15/4    : 2

Divide each side by 2

15/8  : 2/2

15/8   : 1    no

2 cups: 2/3 cups

Divide each side by 2/3 ( which is the same as multiplying by 3/2)

2 * 3/2 : 2/3 *3/2

3  : 1   yes

2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

Change to an improper fraction

( 2*2+1)/2 : 5/6

5/2  : 5/6

Divide each side by 5/6( which is the same as multiplying by 6/5)

5/2 * 6/5  : 5/6 * 6/5

3  : 1   yes

The 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

It is defined as the comparison between two quantities that how many times the one number acquires the other number. The ratio can be presented in the fraction form or the sign : between the numbers.

For checking: 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups

= (15/2)/(5/2)       [2(1/2) = 5/2]

= 3

For checking:  1 cup: 1/4 cups

= 1/(1/4)

= 4

For checking: 2/3 cups: 1 cup

=(2/3)/1

= 2/3

For checking: 3 3/4 cups: 2 cups

= (15/4)(2)

= 15/8

For checking: 2 cups: 2/3 cups

= (2)/(2/3)

= 3

For checking: 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups

= (5/2)/(5/6)

= 3

Thus, the 15/2 cups: 2 1/2 cups, 2 cups: 2/3 cups, and 2 1/2 cups: 5/6 cups have a unit rate of 3

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Answer:

  a) position 22

  b) 26

  c) shuffle 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the shuffling occurs so that the bottom card of the top half of the deck (card 26) becomes the bottom card (card 52), while the top card of the bottom half (card 27) becomes the top card (card 1), the sequence of card 1 positions with successive shuffles is ...

  {2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 11, 22, 44, 35, 17, 34, 15, 30, 7, 14, 28, 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, 43, 33, 13, 26, 52, 51, 49, 45, 37, 21, 42, 31, 9, 18, 36, 19, 38, 23, 46, 39, 25, 50, 47, 41, 29, 5, 10, 20, 40, 27, 1}

That is, after the first shuffle, card 1 is at position 2; after the second shuffle, it is at position 4; and so on.

(a) Hence the position of card 1 after the 7th shuffle is 22.

__

(b) The top card is in position 52 after 26 shuffles.

__

(c) The top card is in position 26 after 25 shuffles; the bottom card is in position 27 after 25 shuffles. That is when they first touch. (They touch again after 51 shuffles.)

Answer:

35°

Step-by-step explanation:

If BCD is 75, then BCA is 105.

105+40=145

180-145=35

So ABC is 35°

Answer:

So (1,3) is a vertex (out of two) of the hyperbola.

Step-by-step explanation:

The vertices are marked by the dot on the hyperbola.

They are (1,3) and (1,-7).

However, (1,-7) is not on the list of answer choices, but (1,3) is.

So (1,3) is a vertex (out of two) of the hyperbola.

So (1,3) is a vertex (out of two) of the hyperbola.

a plane curve generated by a point so moving that the difference of the distances from two fixed points is a constant : a curve formed by the intersection of a double right circular cone with a plane that cuts both halves of the cone.

According to the question

The vertices are marked by the dot on the hyperbola.

They are (1,3) and (1,-7).

However, (1,-7) is not on the list of answer choices, but (1,3) is.

Hence , (1,3) is a vertex (out of two) of the hyperbola.

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Answer:

f-4

Step-by-step explanation:

f-4  cannot be simplified

This is the simplest form

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{f-4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f-4[/tex]

[tex]\sf f \ is \ a \ nonzero \ number.[/tex]

[tex]\sf The \ expression \ cannot \ be \ simplified \ further.[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sqrt{65}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Magnitude is solved with the following equation: [tex]\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}[/tex]

Therefore, just plug in your x and y-values and solve.

[tex]\sqrt{4^{2}+7{^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{16 + 49}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{65}[/tex]

Because [tex]\bold{\sqrt{65}}[/tex] cannot be simplified further, this is the magnitude of the vector.

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

First, move all the variables to one side by subtracting 5x on both sides:

5x + 2 = 12x - 5

2 = 7x - 5

Add 5 to both sides:

7 = 7x

1 = x

Answer:

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

5x + 2 =12x- 5

Subtract 5x from each side

5x-5x + 2 =12x-5x- 5

2 = 7x-5

Add 5 to each side

2+5 = 7x-5+5

7 = 7x

Divide each side by 7

7/7 = 7x/7

1 =x

Answer: it says that if two different paths connect the same two points.

Step-by-step explanation:

It says that is two different paths connect the same two points, and a function holomorphic everywhere in between the two paths, then the two path integrals of the functions will be same.

Answer:

102 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-0.3, 2.3)

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1.8+1.2)/2 = -0.3

(1.9+2.7)/2 = 2.3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the points be A and B

A ( - 1.8 , 1.9 ) ⇒( x₁ , y₁ )

B ( 1.2 , 2.7 )⇒ ( x₂ , y₂ )

Now, let's find the midpoint:

[tex] \mathsf{ (\frac{x1 + x2}{2} \: , \frac{y1 + y2}{2} )}[/tex]

Plug the values

[tex] \mathsf{ = (\frac{ - 1.8 + 1.2}{2} \: , \frac{1.9 + 2.7}{2} )}[/tex]

Calculate

[tex] \mathsf{ = ( \frac{ - 0.6}{2} \: , \frac{4.6}{2} )}[/tex]

[tex] \mathsf{ = (- 0.3 \:, 2.3)}[/tex]

Hope I helped!

Best regards!

====================================================

Explanation:

Both AB and XY are the first two letters of ABC and XYZ respectively. So we have one fraction of AB/XY = 2/7.

AC and XZ are the first and last letters of ABC and XYZ respectively. We can form another fraction AC/XZ. I'm dividing in the same order of small over large to keep things consistent. As you can probably guess, the order of the letters ABC and XYZ are important so we see how the angles match up and how the proportional sides match up.

Because the triangles are similar, the two fractions formed earlier are equal to one another.

The equation we need to solve is AB/XY = AC/XZ

-----

AB/XY = AC/XZ

2/7 = 3/N ... plug in given values

2N = 7*3 .... cross multiply

2N = 21

N = 21/2 .... divide both sides by 2

N = 10.5

ZX is 10.5 units long.

Answer:

42  headbands per dancer

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling 1260 headband

Divide by the three coaches

1260/3

420 per coach

Divide by each dancer under a coach

420/10 = 42

Each dancer must sell 42 headbands

Answer:

C, 39.3 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets first find the area of the rectangle part of the house.

To find the area of a rectangle its base × height.

So its 6×4=24 in².

Now lets find the area of the top triangle.

Area for a triangle is (base × height)/2.

The height is 3 inches, because its 7-4. While the base is 6 inches.

(6×3)/2=9 in².

To find the area of the half circle the formula, (piR²)/2.

The radius of the circle is 2 because its half of the diamter which is 4.

(pi2²)/2=6.283 in².

Now we just need to add up the area of every part,

24+9+6.283=39.283in²

Complete Question

Find the​ mean, variance, and standard deviation of the binomial distribution with the given values of n and p. ​, The​ mean, ​, is nothing. ​(Round to the nearest tenth as​ needed.)

    p =  0.6   n =  18

Answer:

The mean   [tex]\mu = 10.5[/tex]

The standard deviation [tex]\sigma = 2.08[/tex]

The  variance   [tex]var = 4.32[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The probability of success   is  [tex]p = 0.6[/tex]

      The  sample size is [tex]n = 18[/tex]

  Generally given that the distribution is binomial, then the probability of failure is mathematically represented as

              [tex]q = 1- p[/tex]

substituting values

              [tex]q = 1- 0.6[/tex]

              [tex]q =0.4[/tex]

Generally the mean is mathematically evaluated as

             [tex]\mu = np[/tex]

substituting values

             [tex]\mu = 18 * 0.6[/tex]    

             [tex]\mu = 10.5[/tex]

The  standard deviation is evaluated as

              [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{npq}[/tex]

substituting values

               [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{18 * 0.6 * 0.4}[/tex]

              [tex]\sigma = 2.08[/tex]

The variance is evaluated as

               [tex]var = \sigma^2[/tex]

substituting value

              [tex]var = 2.08^2[/tex]

              [tex]var = 4.32[/tex]