cho hình thang vuông abcd vuông tại A và D có AD= a căn 3, DC=3,AB= 2a. chứng minh AC vuông góc với BD

Answer:

The midpoint of the data when it is arranged in order.

Step-by-step explanation:

Median can be described as the number that occurs in the middle of a set of numbers that are arranged either in ascending or descending order

For example, the median of the following set of numbers is 5

1, 2, 5, 10, 20

Range is the difference between the highest and lowest values of a set of observations

Range = highest value - lowest value

Mean is the average of a set of numbers. It is determined by adding the numbers together and dividing it by the total number

Mean = sum of the numbers / total number

In this question, a piece-wise function is asked to be graphed.

Piece-wise function:

A piece-wise function is a function that has different definitions, depending on the input.

In this question, the function has three different definitions:

When x is less than -2, the definition is:

[tex]g(x) = \frac{x}{2} + 3[/tex]

When x is between -2 and 3, inclusive, the function is:

[tex]g(x) = 2[/tex]

When x is greater than 3, the definition is:

[tex]g(x) = 2x - 3[/tex]

The graphic is given by the image at the end here, with the closed circle indicating the inclusive on the intervals.

For another example of a piece-wise graphic, you can check https://brainly.com/question/24324639.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

edge!

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

If u use calculator,u will get the ans as x¹=6 and x²= -2 but u have to change it to the opposite which means negatif to positive(-2=2) and positive to negative(6= -6).Hope u can understand...sorry,English isn't my first language

Answer:

x= 6 and x=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

find the two factors that when multiplied will get -12 and when summed up will get -4.

so -6 and 3

(xsquare-6) +(2x -12)=0

x(x-6)+2(x-6)=0

(x-6)=0 (x+2)=0

group like terms

x=6. x=-2

Answer:

Option 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Tan(X)=perpendicular/base

Tan(X)=48/14

X=arctan(48/14)=74

Answer:

b<4

Step-by-step explanation:

- 3b-5> - 8 or b - 4 < 0

Solve the first inequality

- 3b-5> - 8

Add 5 to each side

- 3b-5+5> - 8 +5

-3b> -3

Divide by 3, flipping the inequality

-3b/-3 < -3/-3

b <1

Then solve the second inequality

b-4<0

Add 4 to each side

b<4

Put them back together

b<1 or <4

Merge them since they overlap

b<4

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] In \:\triangle HGI[/tex]

HU = UG & HT = TI (Given)

Therefore, U and T are the midpoints of sides HG and HI respectively.

So, by mid point formula:

[tex] UT = \frac{1}{2} GI \\ \\ UT = \frac{1}{2} \times 38 \\ \\ UT = 19 [/tex]

Answer:

-38. I did something like this before

Answer:

(26/9 , -7/9)

Step-by-step explanation:

Here,

let the points be

X(-1,7) = (x1, y1)

Y(4,-3) = (x2,y2)

and let the ratio be...

m:n = 7:2

and.. let the point that divides the line be

P(x,y)

now using the section formula for internal division..

P(x,y) = ( m.x2 + nx.1 / m+ n , my2+ny2/m+n )

= ( 7.4+2.-1 / 7+2 , 7.-3 + 2.7/7+2 )

= ( 26/9 , -7/9 )

Solution :

Colored marble            Prize

     Red ----  10               20

    Blue --- 38                 10

   Green --- 26               5

P(red)  =  10/74  =  5/37

P(blue)  =  38/74  =  19/37

P( green)  = 26/74  =  13/37

Therefore,

 X      →     Red          Blue      Green

P(X)           5/37        19/37      13/37

The expected values are :

[tex]$20 \times \frac{5}{37} - 10 \times \frac{19}{37} - 5 \times \frac{13}{37}[/tex]

= -4.189

Thus it is not profitable to play the game.

Answer:

3/40 cup

Step-by-step explanation:

3 1/3 =10/3

10/3 to 1 is 1/4 to x

i then proceeded to use the butterfly method to find the answer

Given:

Amount = Rs. 9,144

Time = 3 years.

Rate of simple interest = 9%

To find:

The principal value.

Solution:

The formula for simple interest is:

[tex]I=\dfrac{P\times r\times t}{100}[/tex]

Where, P is principal, r is the simple rate of interest, and t is the number of years.

Putting [tex]r=9,t=3[/tex] in the above formula, we get

[tex]I=\dfrac{P\times 9\times 3}{100}[/tex]

[tex]I=\dfrac{27P}{100}[/tex]

[tex]I=0.27P[/tex]

We know that,

[tex]\text{Amount}=\text{Principal + Interest}[/tex]

[tex]9144=P+0.27P[/tex]

[tex]9144=1.27P[/tex]

Divide both sides by 1.27, we get

[tex]\dfrac{9144}{1.27}=P[/tex]

[tex]7200=P[/tex]

Therefore, the principal value is Rs. 7200.

Answer:

dont understand clearly

Step-by-step explanation:

dont understand clearly

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+1 = 5x-1

3x+2= 5x

2x= 2

x= 1

Answer:

3/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I would say it is D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Lateral surface area= circumference*height

120=12*h

h=10cm

Answer:

h=10 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

cicumference of a circle C=2πr=12

lateral surface area of cylinder=2πrh

120=12h

h=120/12=10 cm

Answer:

D. 14.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Use sin, opposite over hypotenuse.

sin67 = 13/X

solve for X

REASONS:-

1ST STEP

[tex]6x + 7 = 8x - 17 [/tex]

GIVEN LHS = RHS

2ND STEP

[tex]7 = 2x - 17[/tex]

Bez +ve 6x when move to another side will change to -ve so it reduces 8x to 2x

3RD STEP

[tex]24 = 2x [/tex]

Bez -ve 17 when move to another side will change to +ve so it increases 7 to 24

4TH STEP

[tex]12 = x[/tex]

Bez 2 in multiplication when move to another side will change to division so it reduces 24 to 12

5TH STEP

[tex]x = 12[/tex]

it the answer we obtained after solving

Please find attached photograph for your answer.

Answer: Rs 5000 sum of money amount to Rs 6000 in two years at the rate of 10% per annum.​

Step-by-step explanation:

Amount = Rs 6000

T = 2 year

R = 10%

So

I = A-P

so

I = PTR/100

or, A-P = (P*2*10)/100

or, 6000-P = 20P/100

or, 600000-100P = 20P

or, 600000 = 120P

or, P = 600000/120

so, P = Rs 5000

Answer:

The answer is "1223.42 gallons".

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

[tex]Diameter\ (d)= 7\ feet\\\\r=\frac{d}{2}=\frac{7}{2}=3.5\ feet\\\\h= 4\ feet\ 3\ inches\ = 4.25 \ feet \\\\[/tex]

Using formula:

[tex]Volume = \pi r^2h[/tex]

Put the value into the above formula:

[tex]= \pi (3.5)^2 (4.25)\\\\= 3.14 \times12.25\times (4.25)\\\\= 3.14 \times 52.0625 \\\\=163.47625\\\\= 163.56 \ feet^3\\\\= 163.56 \ feet^3[/tex]

[tex]\therefore \\\\1 \ foot^3 = 7.48051945\ US\ gallons\\\\[/tex]

Final answer:

[tex]\to (163.56)(7.48) = 1223.42\ gallons[/tex]

Answer:

33

45

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34

Answer:

2(l+b ) is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

ok mark me as markliest

Answer:

1beg-------------50kg

10beg------------x

x=500kg to grames 500×1000=500000grams

Answer:

500000g

Step-by-step explanation:

first of you multiply the 50kg with the 10 bags

which gives 500kg

then you convert 500kg to grams

which is 500kg/1×1000g/1kg

when you cancel out the kg what is left is to multiply both sides and then you get 50000g.

Page No 7.13:

Question 1:

Add the following:

(i) 3x and 7x

(ii) −5xy and 9xy

ANSWER:

We have

(i) 3x + 7x = (3 + 7)x = 10x

(ii) -5xy + 9xy = ( -5 + 9)xy = 4xy

Answer:

D. 7

Step-by-step explanation:

I guessed on it because i had the same problem and then i checked and it was right!

Answer:

y = 3x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Here m = 3 and c = 2 , then

y = 3x + 2 ← equation of line

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x) is larger than f(x) and not the same size so B and D are out of question because those are translation not dilation.

f(x) is stretched in the vertical direction to get g(x). So this means the scale factor has to be greater than 1. so A is wrong.

The answer is c

We shall proceed in hit and trial method

Find some nearest multiples of 252

Yes last one is square of 42

So smallest no is 7