Cell body with a single process that divides into two branches and functions as an axon only the receptor ends of the peripheral process function as dendrites is called as biphasic neuron.
The receptor ends of the supplemental( distal) process function as dendrites, while the proximal process functions as an axon. Biphasic neurons are set up in the supplemental nervous system and are involved in the transmission of impulses from the sensitive receptors to the central nervous system.
The main function of biphasic neurons is to bear electrical signals from one neuron to another. Biphasic neurons have an important part in controlling muscle movement, regulating hormonal concealment, and transmitting sensitive information from the body to the brain.
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Some plants reproduce asexually through a process called vegetative propagation. If the climate in a tropical area suddenly becomes arid, what would happen to the plants that reproduced asexually?
If the climate in a tropical area suddenly becomes arid, the plants that reproduce ase-xually would be at risk of drying out and dying.
This is because asexual reduplication doesn't involve the exchange of inheritable material, and so the shops aren't suitable to acclimate to the new environment and come more tolerant of the thirsty climate. Without the exchange of inheritable material, the shops can not evolve to come more resistant to extreme conditions.
As a result, the shops may struggle to survive in the new environment, and may ultimately die due to lack of water and nutrients.
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17. Which Of These Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile? A. Gly-Gly-Pro-Arg-Arg-Cys-Cys-Gly B. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro C. Pro-Pro-Arg-His-Pro-Pro-Pro-Gly D. Met-Gly-Cys-Pro-Arg-Arg-Pro-Arg
Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile is Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro. The correct answer is B.
This partial protein was most likely assembled by a thermophile because it contains amino acids that have the ability to resist denaturing at high temperatures. At high temperatures, proteins are more stable and have increased thermodynamic stability.
For example, Taq polymerase, which is utilized in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), was isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
The amino acid sequence of a protein can be used to infer its function, conformation, and origin. The amino acid sequence determines the protein's 3D structure, which is critical for its function. The protein's origin, on the other hand, is determined by the organism that produced it.
Therefore, the correct option is B. i.e. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro .
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Which of these directly bind(s) to the promoter?
"The figure shows the operon. Letters from A to D indicates definite structures. Letter A indicates a region of the DNA which is bound by proteins to activate the transcription of a gene. Letter B indicates a region of DNA that initiates transcription. Letter C indicates an enzyme that produces primary transcript RNA. Letter D indicates different structures which control the rate of transcription."
The factors that bind directly to the promoter are RNA polymerase and transcription factors. A promoter is a DNA sequence that controls the rate of transcription of a gene by giving a binding site for RNA polymerase and transcription factors.
The term "promoter" applies to DNA sequences that are situated upstream of (toward the 5′ region of the sense strand) of the transcription initiation site, which is typically a few hundred base pairs upstream of the transcription start site in eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Promoters are a vital component of gene transcription regulation.
The mechanism of transcription initiation in eukaryotes is complex and necessitates the involvement of numerous protein factors. The following are the factors that bind to the promoter region directly: RNA polymerase, Transcription factors.
In bacteria, the operon is a series of contiguous genes that are transcribed under the control of a single promoter, which generates a single mRNA molecule, which is subsequently translated into individual polypeptides. The term "operon" is utilized to describe the entire transcriptional unit, which comprises an operator region, a promoter region, and a series of genes that are regulated by the operator.
Thus, the correct option is (C) RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind directly to the promoter region.
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Someone help me please
Hypersecretion of thyroxine in the thyroid gland results in suppression of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) from the pituitary gland.
Hyposecretion of cortisol in the adrenal glands results in an increase in the secretion of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the anterior pituitary gland.
What is function of adrenocorticotropic hormone?Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in the brain. Its primary function is to stimulate the production and release of cortisol, a steroid hormone, from the adrenal cortex, which is the outer layer of the adrenal glands located above the kidneys.
ACTH is released in response to stress, low blood sugar levels, and other factors that signal the need for increased cortisol levels in the body. It acts on the adrenal cortex to increase the synthesis and release of cortisol into the bloodstream, which then helps the body cope with stress, regulate blood sugar levels, and maintain normal immune function.
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based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, which is likely to be flammable?
Flammability is the ability of a substance to ignite and burn when exposed to fire or flame. Many factors contribute to a substance's flammability, including its chemical composition.
Based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, the one that is most likely to be flammable is Ethanol (C2H6O). Ethanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. It contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon chain. Ethanol is highly flammable, which means that it can easily catch fire and burn. It has a low flash point, which is the minimum temperature at which a substance can ignite and produce a flame. The low flash point of ethanol makes it highly flammable and potentially dangerous. Ethanol is commonly used as a fuel for internal combustion engines, such as in cars, boats, and airplanes. It is also used in the production of alcohol-based products such as hand sanitizers, perfumes, and colognes. However, its high flammability means that it must be handled and stored carefully to avoid accidents or fires.
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what is the function of the palatine process of the maxilla?
Between the maxillae and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone is the palatine bone, a pair of bones. It contributes to the construction of the three skull cavities; the orbits, nasal cavity, and oral cavity.
The components of the floor of the nasal cavity are provided by the horizontal plate of the palatine bone and the palatine bone's palatine process. Additionally, facial muscles can attach to the os palatinum.
The palatine cycle (Processus palatinus) of the maxilla is areas of strength for a cutting edge that emerges perpendicularly from the nasal surface of the maxilla, close to its ventral boundary; Through the palatine suture (Sutura palatine), it joins the opposing maxillary palatine process on the median plane.
The main functions of the maxilla include: ensuring the stability of the top teeth. reducing the skull's weight. boosting your voice's volume and pitch.
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the term (energy transfer mechanisms) that is most relevant to a body's use of perspiration to cool itself is .
The energy transfer mechanism most relevant to a body's use of perspiration to cool itself is the process of evaporation.
Evaporation is a process that allows the body to cool down by secreting fluids through sweat glands. Perspiration is a natural and critical process for maintaining a healthy body temperature. It is essential to maintain the body's natural thermal regulation, even when the external temperature rises above normal levels.
When the temperature of the human body rises above its normal range, the body initiates its natural cooling mechanism. The cooling mechanism is activated by the hypothalamus, a region of the brain that is responsible for maintaining the body's internal environment.
The hypothalamus sends a signal to the sweat glands, resulting in the release of sweat. When the sweat evaporates, it removes heat from the body, lowering its temperature.
The energy transfer mechanism most relevant to a body's use of perspiration to cool itself is the process of evaporation. When sweat evaporates, heat is removed from the surface of the body.
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The highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water. The most
important factor that influences this concentration of life is the
The highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water. The most important factor that influences this concentration of life is the availability of sunlight.
Sunlight is one of the most important factors in the ocean that affects life. It provides energy to the plants and phytoplankton, which are the primary producers of the ocean. Because of this, they require sunlight for photosynthesis, which is the process that enables them to convert carbon dioxide and water into food. In turn, the primary consumers (zooplankton) feed on these primary producers and convert them into energy, which can then be consumed by higher-level consumers (fish, mammals, etc.).Without sunlight, life in the ocean would not exist. Therefore, the highest concentration of life exists in the top 200 meters of ocean water where sunlight is abundant.
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Which of the following best illustrates the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and to future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1 ?
Future generations will have the same frequencies of the A and a alleles as generation 2. Individuals with the aa genotype could be produced.
Generation 1Generation 2Generation n AA.67 .87. 87 aa.33 .13 .13
Based on the given information, the best illustration of the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1, would be:
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
This means that the frequency of the A allele (represented by AA) increased from generation 1 to generation 2 and remains the same in future generations. The frequency of the a allele (represented by aa) decreased from generation 1 to generation 2 and also remains the same in future generations. This implies that there is no further change in allele frequencies beyond generation 2, and individuals with the aa genotype can still be produced in future generations.
Therefore, the correct answer is :
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
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Analysts recognize them as key layers to way of thinking. What are they?
Analysts recognize critical thinking skills as key layers to way of thinking. Critical thinking is a vital skill that allows individuals to evaluate information and make well-informed decisions about what to believe or how to act.
It is a way of thinking about problems or situations that requires careful and objective analysis of all relevant information before making a decision.
Interpretation: The ability to understand the meaning of information presented and how it can be applied to specific circumstances. It requires the ability to identify what is important and what is not important. It also requires the ability to distinguish between fact and opinion.
Analysis: The ability to break down complex information into smaller parts in order to better understand it. This layer of thinking involves looking at how individual pieces of information relate to one another and how they support or contradict one another.
Evaluation: The ability to make a judgment about the value or quality of information presented. This layer of thinking involves considering the strengths and weaknesses of various arguments and making a decision based on the weight of the evidence presented.
Inference: The ability to draw conclusions based on the available evidence. This layer of thinking involves taking the available information and using it to make logical conclusions about what is likely to be true.
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which type of organisms are prokaryotic and live in extreme environments such as hot springs, salt lakes, and deep ocean vents?
Archaea is a single-celled, prokaryotic form of life that is very different in form and function from bacteria.
Archaea are a group of microorganisms that are found in a wide range of habitats, including extreme environments such as hot springs, deep-sea vents, and salt flats. They are classified as one of the three domains of life, along with Bacteria and Eukarya.
Archaea are prokaryotes, meaning that they lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They are characterized by their unique cell membrane structure, which is made up of ether-linked phospholipids instead of ester-linked phospholipids found in other organisms. Archaea have diverse metabolic pathways and play important roles in various ecological processes, such as carbon cycling and nitrogen fixation.
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Which of the following data could best support the claim that species B arose from a speciation event in Lake I?a. All of the fish species occupy the same niches in their respective lakes
b. DNA analysis shows fever differences between species A and species B in lake I than between species B and the populations in Lake II
c. Species A and species B have similar body shapes due to convergent evolution in their habitats
d. Individuals of species A from Lake I can mate and produce viable offspring with individuals of species A from Lake II
The claim that species B originated from a speciation event in Lake I is best supported by DNA research, which reveals more differences between species A and species B in more so than between populations of species B in Lake II and Lake I.
Why does rRNA function so well in molecular systematics?It evolves fairly slowly, allowing comparisons to be drawn between creatures that are distantly related, such bacteria and eukaryotes. Comparisons of the DNA sequences in these genes are helpful for analysing relationships between taxa that have diverged hundreds of thousands of years ago since the DNA specifying ribosomal RNA (rRNA) changes fairly slowly.
What circumstances will cause changes in genotype and allele frequencies in populations?The mechanisms that alter allele frequencies are selection, mutation, migration, and genetic drift. The population deviates from Hardy-presumptions Weinberg's when one or more of these forces are at work, and evolution takes place.
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Many important root crop plants such as carrots, turnips, and rutabagas have a_______ strategy, which means they store energy the first year, then flower and complete their life cycle in the second year.
Many important root crop plants such as carrots, turnips, and rutabagas have a biennial strategy, this means they store energy. Biennial strategy is a part of life cycle.
What is life cycle?The life cycle of many plants can be divided into two categories: annual and biennial. The annual plants complete their entire life cycle in one growing season, while the biennial plants live for two growing seasons, and then flower and complete their life cycle in the second year.
Carrots, turnips, and rutabagas are the examples of the biennial plants which store energy in the first year and complete their life cycle in the second year. These plants are also root crops, which means they store energy in their roots rather than in the fruit or vegetable produced above the soil surface.
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True or false. All of your cells contain DNA molecules. What makes a brain cell different from a skin cell is that different genes are activated. 
Answer:
False
Explanation:
what is an important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele?
The important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele is that selection against a recessive allele reduces the frequency of the allele in the population.
Whereas selection against a dominant allele reduces both the frequency of the allele and the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population. To break it down further, a recessive allele will only produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is homozygous for that allele, meaning that two copies of the allele must be present for it to be expressed. Selection against a recessive allele will only act upon individuals that are homozygous for that allele. Therefore, the frequency of the allele will be reduced in the population, but the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype will remain unaffected.
In contrast, a dominant allele will produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is either homozygous or heterozygous for the allele. Therefore, selection against a dominant allele will act upon both individuals that are homozygous and heterozygous for that allele. This means that the frequency of the allele, as well as the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population, will be reduced.
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color processing is best described by which of the following statements? color processing occurs in the retina alone. the color receptors bypass the thalamus on their way to the visual cortex. together the young-helmholtz theory and the opponent-process theory explain color processing. the colors we see result from activity in the thalamus.
The correct statement for describing color processing is "Together the Young-Helmholtz theory and the opponent-process theory explain color processing."
Color processing is the interpretation of the wavelength information of the light that enters the eyes. In this process, the light is separated into three primary colors: red, green, and blue. Afterward, the eyes' photoreceptor cells capture the color signal and transfer it to the visual cortex in the brain. The two significant theories that explain color processing are the Young-Helmholtz theory and the opponent-process theory.
The Young-Helmholtz theory suggests that the human eye possesses three distinct color receptors. The receptors, which are sensitive to red, green, and blue, operate together to generate the range of colors that humans can see. The theory states that the color that individuals see is determined by the ratio of stimulation between the three different types of receptors. This theory is also known as the trichromatic theory.
The opponent-process theory explains the formation of the color vision, stating that the human visual system has four unique color channels, which work in opposing pairs. The pairs consist of red-green, yellow-blue, black-white, and light-dark. Each channel is composed of two different colors that cannot be sensed at the same time. The colors are red/green, blue/yellow, and black/white.The two theories explain the process of color vision and have contributed significantly to research in the field. Together, the Young-Helmholtz theory and the opponent-process theory explain color processing.
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Identify the signs that indicate an emergency exists in the video you just watched. Select 3 answers
The following are some typical indicators of an emergency. Unexpected or severe pain Violent pain going through a person, especially in the stomach, head, or casket, may indicate a medical emergency.
Urgent scenario may exist if someone is bleeding heavily and the bleeding won't stop. Having trouble breathing A person who is having problems breathing may be experiencing a medical emergency. This could be the result of an asthma episode, a sympathetic reaction, or other factors. loss of information Someone losing consciousness or losing their memory might be a symptom of an emergency.
Seizures A seizure might be an indication of a serious medical condition. stroke warning signs Sudden impassivity, weakness or chinking on one side of the body, speech difficulties, or unexpected bewilderment may be symptoms of a stroke.
Painful casket It may be an indication of a heart attack if someone is experiencing chest discomfort, particularly if it is accompanied with shortness of breath, nausea, or perspiration.
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what is different in the cell cycle in a cancer cell? group of answer choices gap 1 and gap 2 get skipped dna synthesis happens twice normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden the normal checkpoints inhibit cell division
The cell cycle in a cancer cell is different in the sense that normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden. Therefore, the correct option is the third option, "normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden."
What is the cell cycle?The cell cycle refers to the processes that take place between the formation of a eukaryotic cell and its division into two daughter cells. During the cell cycle, several events occur, including the replication of DNA and the distribution of chromosomes to the daughter cells. A typical cell cycle has two main phases: interphase and cell division (mitosis and cytokinesis).
What is the difference between the cell cycle in a normal cell and a cancer cell?During the cell cycle, there are several checkpoints in a normal cell that regulate progression from one phase to the next. These checkpoints ensure that the DNA has been correctly replicated and that the cell is in the correct state to proceed to the next phase.However, in cancer cells, these checkpoints may not function correctly, resulting in abnormal cell proliferation.
This may occur when tumor-suppressing genes are mutated or when oncogenes are activated. The abnormal proliferation of cells in cancer can result in the formation of tumors, which may spread to other parts of the body if left untreated.In summary, the major difference in the cell cycle of a cancer cell is that the normal checkpoints controlling each phase are overridden.
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19. In humans, a Widow's peak is dominant to having a straight hairline, and free earlobes are dominant to
having attached ones. A woman who is homozygous for her Widow's peak and heterozygous for her
earlobes marries a man that has a straight hairline and is also heterozygous for his earlobes. Determine
the phenotypic ratio. What is the probability that they have a child who looks like mom?
Answer:
Explanation:
there is a 50/100 chance that the child will look like its mom since the dad also has the same characteristics
Why might tortoises grow to such huge sizes on isolated islands, such as the Galapagos, but not elsewhere?
Tortoises are a collection of terrestrial reptiles that range from plains to woods and include species such as the Greek and Galapagos tortoises. Some species developed huge body proportions with shell lengths surpassing one metre, while others are only 6-8 centimetres long. Despite naturalists' keen interest since Darwin's time, the development of gigantism in turtles remains a mystery.
According to new study, giant tortoises may not be as large as originally thought due to their island lifestyle. The development of giant tortoises may not have been connected to islands as previously believed. Researchers from Argentina and Germany have given the most complete family tree of extinct and living tortoises to date in a first-of-its-kind study. Giant tortoises are now only located on a few exotic islands, most notably the Galápagos Islands, Aldabra Atoll in the Seychelles, and Mauritius. Some can develop to be 1.3m tall and weigh up to 300kg. The Galápagos giant tortoise has 14 recognised varieties, with one more yet to be identified. Thirteen of these species are still living today, while the Pinta Island turtle became extinct in 2012 due to habitat loss.
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during the sheep heart dissection, you were asked initially to identify the right and left ventricles without cutting into the heart. during this procedure, what differences did you observe between the two chambers?
During the sheep heart dissection, you were asked initially to identify the right and left ventricles without cutting into the heart. During this procedure, the differences observed between the two chambers are as follows:
Right ventricle: The right ventricle is located anteriorly or ventrally in the sheep heart. It is relatively thin-walled compared to the left ventricle, with a smaller volume than the left ventricle. It also has an irregular inner surface that contains a large number of irregular ridges known as trabeculae carneae. Its anterior surface is further divided by an outpouching known as the conus arteriosus, which leads into the pulmonary trunk.
Left ventricle: The left ventricle is located posteriorly or dorsally in the sheep heart. It is considerably thicker-walled than the right ventricle and has a larger volume. It has a smooth internal surface without any significant ridges or irregularities, allowing for efficient blood flow. Its posterior surface is further divided into a muscular ridge called the papillary muscle, which is attached to the bicuspid valve.
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T/F - Chemical digestion of protein begins in the mouth with enzymes found in the saliva.
False. With the help of salivary enzymes, protein is first chemically broken down in the mouth.
When you initially begin chewing, protein digestion starts. They mostly digest lipids and carbs. After a protein source enters your stomach, it is reduced to smaller amino acids chains by hydrochloric acid and proteases enzymes. Beginning in the mouth & continuing in the gastro intestinal tract, mechanical protein digestion takes place. Proteins are chemically broken down starting in the stomach and finishing inside the small intestine. The salivary amylase (ptyalin, or alpha-amylase) & lingual lipase, both found in saliva, are the only chemically digested substances in the mouth.
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Which of the following is the smallest biological structure that would most likely be visible with a standard research-grade light microscope?A. human cheek cellB. chloroplastC. ribosomeD. microfilament
The smallest biological structure that would most likely be visible with a standard research-grade light microscope is a human cheek cell. Thus, option A is correct.
A light microscope is a tool that magnifies the image of a specimen by bending rays of visible light. This microscope is also referred to as an optical microscope or a photon microscope. A light microscope's magnification capacity is around 1,000x.
Human cheek cells have a diameter of about 10 to 30 µm, which makes them visible under a light microscope. To observe these cells, a sample of the cheek is taken and a stain is applied. The sample is then placed on a slide and viewed under a light microscope.
In light of this, the smallest biological structure that would most likely be visible with a standard research-grade light microscope is the human cheek cell.
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Which of the following statements about automatic mimicry in NOT true? a. People tend to like those who mimic them more than those who do not b. People who have been mimicked tend to engage in more prosocial behavior afterwards C. People who have been mimicked tend to feel irritated with the person who mimicked them d. People tend not to mimic individuals toward whom they hold negative attitudes
Automatic mimicry is the unconscious imitation of another person's behavior.
It has been found to have several effects on social interactions. Option A is true because people who are mimicked tend to feel liked and connected to the person who is mimicking them. Option B is also true because people who are mimicked are more likely to engage in prosocial behavior such as helping others. Option D is true because people tend to avoid mimicking individuals they dislike or hold negative attitudes towards. Option C is the statement that is not true because people who are mimicked do not tend to feel irritated with the person who is mimicking them, but rather they tend to feel positive towards them.
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the _____ hypothesis states that long term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations. group of answer choices a. savannah b. turnover c. pulse variability d. selection aridity
The pulse variability hypothesis states that long-term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations.
What is the pulse variability hypothesis? The pulse variability hypothesis is a concept that describes how environmental variability affects life on earth. It states that changes in the natural environment may not always be gradual, but instead may occur in pulses, with periods of stability interrupted by short periods of intense variation.
Pulse variability hypothesis refers to the idea that the natural environment is not always in a state of gradual change but, rather, is subject to punctuated shifts where long-term environmental unpredictability results in morphological and behavioral adaptations.
The hypothesis provides an alternative perspective to the traditionally held view of gradual and constant environmental change.
What is environmental unpredictability? Environmental unpredictability refers to an event in which an ecosystem's climate changes abruptly and unpredictably due to environmental factors. Changes to the environment can lead to shifts in populations and in the composition of entire ecosystems.
This kind of environmental unpredictability is one of the major threats to biodiversity.
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The Turnover Pulse hypothesis states that _____ eaters faced high rates of extinction during the ice ages. a)Generalist b) insect c) fruit d) specialist
The Turnover Pulse hypothesis states that specialist eaters faced high rates of extinction during the ice ages. So the correct option is D.
The turnover pulse hypothesis is a scientific concept that hypothesizes the extinction of fauna during the Quaternary ice age as a result of climate change. The Turnover Pulse hypothesis proposes that climate change caused a higher rate of extinction throughout the Quaternary period, with the worst of these happening during the ice ages. This hypothesis states that there are several triggers that can cause extinction, including habitat loss, overhunting, disease, climate change, and others Specialists, according to the Turnover Pulse hypothesis, are among the most prone to extinction because they are limited to eating just one or a few types of food.
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how are animal, plant, and bacterial cells similar?
In a pond, algae (plant-like organisms) absorb
sunlight and the fish in the pond eat tadpoles.
These are both examples of how pond organisms
A get their energy
B escape their predators
C remove waste products
D produce new offspring
According to the question these are both examples of how pond organisms get their energy.
What is organisms?Organisms are living things that are made up of cells, have the ability to generate energy, and reproduce. Organisms are found in all different shapes and sizes and can be found on land, in water, and even in the air. All organisms are made up of one or more cells, the basic unit of life. Cells are able to take in energy and nutrients, and use these to produce energy and to grow and reproduce. Organisms use this energy to carry out activities such as moving, eating, and responding to the environment. Organisms can reproduce either through asexual or sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are identical to the parent, while sexual reproduction results in offspring with a combination of the characteristics of both parents. Organisms can be classified into different groups, such as plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria. All organisms interact with each other and the environment in which they live, and these interactions can affect their ability to survive and reproduce.
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structures on the tongue that contain groupings of taste buds are called
Structures on the tongue that contain groupings of taste buds are called Fungiform papillae.
Fungiform papillae are small, mushroom-shaped structures found on the surface of the tongue in mammals, including humans. They are one of several types of papillae on the tongue and are most abundant on the front two-thirds of the tongue. Fungiform papillae contain taste buds, which are sensory organs that enable the detection of different flavors.
Taste buds are composed of specialized cells called taste receptor cells, which are responsible for detecting different types of taste, such as sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. These receptor cells are connected to nerve fibers that transmit signals to the brain, where they are interpreted as taste sensations. The number and distribution of fungiform papillae can vary between individuals and can affect a person's ability to taste different flavors.
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Is someone really good in biology? If so can someone please help me with this I’m struggling with it!!
1. Replicated DNA code will be: TAA CGTGAT; 2. mRNA codons are therefore: UAA CGU GAU ; 3. tRNA anticodons are: AUU CGC CUA; 4. Amino acid sequence is: Stop - Arg - Asp
What is codon?Sequence of three consecutive nucleotides in DNA or RNA molecule that codes for specific amino acid is called as codon.
Assuming the original DNA code is the template strand, the replicated DNA code will be:
TAA CGTGAT
To determine the mRNA codons, we need to transcribe DNA code into mRNA by replacing T with U: UAA CGUGAU
mRNA codons are therefore: UAA CGU GAU
The anticodon for UAA is AUU, which pairs with the codon UAA via complementary base pairing. The anticodon for CGU is GCA, which pairs with the codon CGU via complementary base pairing. The anticodon for GAU is CUA, which pairs with the codon GAU via complementary base pairing.
Therefore, tRNA anticodons are: AUU CGC CUA
To determine the amino acid sequence, we need to use genetic code to translate the mRNA codons into their corresponding amino acids.
UAA = Stop codon
CGU = Arginine (Arg)
GAU = Aspartic acid (Asp)
Therefore, amino acid sequence is: Stop - Arg - Asp
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