Cellular respiration is the process that resulted in the colour shift. In the presence of an acid, the bromothymol blue indicator turns yellow instead of blue. Thus, option A is correct.
What BTB used to indicate the amount of carbon dioxide?When acid is present, a dye known as bromothymol blue (BMB) turns yellow instead of blue. The pH of the solution decreases when carbon dioxide is introduced because it produces carbonic acid. When the pH is greater than 7.6, green, between 6.7 and 7.6, and yellow, less than 6, BMB is blue.
Therefore, The solution in the right test tube became more blue because the algae was doing more photosynthesis and using carbon dioxide.
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sometimes, plants will reward their pollinators with something that benefits them. what is an example of a plant attractant that is also a pollination reward?(1 point)
Animals that perform pollination while visiting the bloom are rewarded with floral nectar, which is placed inside the flower close to the reproductive organs.
The majority of people are aware that flowers frequently generate nectar, which is vital for promoting pollination and supplying food for hummingbirds and insects. Few people are aware of the extra-floral nectaries, nectar-producing glands that are structurally separate from the flower and found in more than 2,000 plant species in more than 64 families, though they exist in these plants.
Animals that perform pollination while visiting the bloom are rewarded with floral nectar, which is placed inside the flower close to the reproductive organs. Extra-floral nectar has a role in so-called indirect defense by luring predatory herbivores—usually ants—or by discouraging them from feeding on the plant.
Therefore, the two forms of nectar-producing partnerships between plants and animals have long served as textbook illustrations of symmetric mutualism, in which plants supply food or benefits to animals in exchange.
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Answer: Nectar
Explanation:
Which of the following is a characteristic of offspring produced by meiosis, and does not characterize offspring produced by mitosis?
A.
four haploid cells with chromosomes and alleles that are genetically different than the parents
B.
four haploid cells with chromosomes and alleles that are genetically identical to the parents
C.
two diploid cells with chromosomes and alleles that that are genetically different than the parents
D.
two diploid cells with chromosomes and alleles that are genetically identical to the parents
Answer:
the answer is B I did this last week
How do you do a Punnett square and how do you solve it?
which autonomic ganglion, located anterior to the ear, receives parasympathetic axons from the glossopharyngeal nerve (cn ix)?
Parasympathetic, sympathetic, sensory, and motor roots can all be found in the otic ganglion.
All branches of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve receive postganglionic parasympathetic secretomotor fibres from the otic ganglion. Additionally, the parotid gland receives sympathetic vasomotor fibres from it. The infratemporal fossa's medial side and the tiny parasympathetic ganglion known as the otic ganglion are both situated just below the foramen ovale. It functions as the glossopharyngeal nerve's functional partner and innervates the parotid gland to stimulate salivation. The auriculotemporal nerve most likely sends signals to the superficial temporal artery from the otic ganglia. Because migraine attacks involve the superficial temporal artery, this is clinically intriguing.
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what is the likely cause of the change in frequency of melanic moths in michigan (mustard-colored diamonds), in pennsylvania (blue squares), and at caldy common in england (red dots)?
Air pollution has decreased in all regions is the likely cause of the change in frequency of melanic moths in michigan (mustard-colored diamonds), in pennsylvania (blue squares), and at caldy common in england (red dots)
The peppered moth's evolution is an example of how air pollution during the Industrial Revolution caused directional colour changes in the moth population.
At that time, a manifestation of industrial melanism was the rise in the number of dark-colored moths. Later, as pollution levels dropped, the light-colored form once more took control. Charles Darwin's theory of natural selection underwent its first test with the industrial melanism in the peppered moth, which is still used as a standard illustration for explaining evolution.
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which of the following represents the most likely sequence of the evolution of plants? seedless vascular plants, angiosperms, gymnosperms, bryophytes, charophyceans charophyceans, seedless vascular plants, bryophytes, angiosperms, gymnosperms bryophytes, charophyceans, gymnosperms, seedless vascular plants, angiosperms bryophytes, charophyceans, seedless vascular plants, angiosperms, gymnosperms charophyceans, bryophytes, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, angiosperms
Unlike angiosperms, or flowering plants, whose seeds are encased by fully developed , or fruits, gymno, or any vascular plant, reproduce by the use of an exposed seed, or ovule. Many gymnobear their seeds in cones, which are known as " seeds" because they are not visible until they are fully developed.
Tracheophyte predecessors, Rhynia-type plants, Psilophyton, and Gymnosperms are all descendants of chlorophytes. This is the right order. Because they discovered a method of moving materials throughout the plant body, seedless vascular plants achieved a significant advancement in plant evolution. Phloem is used by plants to transport sugars from photosynthesis, and xylem is used to carry water and minerals throughout the plant body. About 420 million years ago, the first vascular plants began to emerge. They most likely descended from bryophyte ancestors that resembled mosses, but their life cycle was dominated by the formation of diploid sporophytes. Early vascular plants changed over time, becoming more like plants in other ways as well.
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Passive transport is the movement of molecules across the cell membrane without requiring an input of cellular energy. identify which of these options are examples of passive transport.
a. do not require cellular energy to allow molecules to pass through the cell membrane.
b. do not require cellular energy because the kinetic energy of the molecules' movement will drive the movement down the concentration gradient.
c. do not require cellular energy because the molecules are small enough to fit through the membrane.
d. All of the above.
e. a and b
f. None of the above.
Answer:The correct answer is D. None of the above
Explanation:
5. Pick one food chain (with at least 3 organisms) and draw a trophic pyramid below. Include the organism
name, trophic level name and number, and the percentage of energy available at each level.
A trophic level is a place, level, or position within a food web, a food chain, or an ecological pyramid. The producers create the first trophic level as they generate food.
The main consumers make up the second trophic level.
The secondary consumers make up the third trophic level.
The tertiary consumers make up the fourth trophic level.
A food chain example is:Sun, grass, a grasshopper, an owl, a shrewThe grass is the producer in this instance, and the grasshopper is the main consumer.The shrew, or secondary consumer, further consumes the grasshopper.The owl, or the tertiary consumer, in turn eats up the shrew.For more information on food chain kindly visit to
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Which of these shows an example of an insertion mutation?
The figure 3 shows an example of an insertion mutation.
What do you mean by insertion mutation?
An insertion is the addition of one or more nucleotide base pairs into a DNA sequence. This can often happen in microsatellite regions due to the DNA polymerase slipping.
Moreover, an insertion changes the DNA sequence by adding one or more nucleotides to the gene. As a result, the protein made from the gene may not function properly.
An insertion mutation occurs when an extra nucleotide is added to the DNA strand during replication. This can happen when the replicating strand "slips," or wrinkles, which allows the extra nucleotide to be incorporated.
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after a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement?
Remodeling, When does new bone get restructured into its original structural configuration throughout the stage and phase or bone healing after fracture?
New bone: What is it?Fundamentally, "fine bone china" is made with the addition of bone ash. Although new bone products are not as light or translucent as fine bone china, they are whiter, finer, and more enduring than porcelain or fine china due to their calcium oxidecalcium oxide in them.
What making new bone called?The process by which bones are formed is known as osteogenesis or bone ossification. The start of this process occurs during the sixth and seven weeks early embryonic development, and it lasts until roughly age twenty-five, however the exact age varies slightly depending on the person.
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epidemiologists have specialized expertise directly applicable to policy development. accordingly, which of the statements) about epidemiologists is/are correct?
1. They can provide quantitative evidence for proposed health strategies.
2. Can take an objective approach to data collection
3. Can provide comments on the need for health policy efficacy
Who are epidemiologists?Epidemiologists are on the field assessing disease outbreaks and other potential threats. Epidemiologists, sometimes known as "Disease Detectives," seek out the cause of a disease, identify those who are at risk, and determine ways to control or stop the spread of the disease or prevent it from occurring again. "Disease Detective" training is regularly provided to physicians, veterinarians, biologists, and other health professionals.
What exactly do epidemiologists do?Disease detectives, like investigators at a crime scene, begin by looking for clues. They collect information in a systematic manner, asking questions such as:
Who is sick?What are their signs and symptoms?When did they become ill?Where may they have gotten caught?Epidemiologists study the answers to these questions using statistical analysis to identify how a particular health problem originated.
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The founder effect is an example of _______.
Answer:
The founder effect is an example of genetic drift
explanation:A population has members with the same appearance and features, such members encounter similar problems in the environment they live in. Some members of the population start living in a different place due to some reason. In that new area, they form a colony and start to adapt to different environments. This is called the founder effect. This brings change into sets of genes causing genetic drift.
how to proteins with nuclear localization signals, that are bound to nuclear import receptors enter the nucleus question 3 options: by hydrolyzing a molecule of atp to adp and phosphate by interacting with the phenylalanine-glycine (fg) repeats on the fibril proteins of the nuclear pore complex by cleaving the nuclear localization signal from the cargo protein by binding a molecule of ran-gdp
Proteins with nuclear localization signals, that are bound to nuclear import receptors enter the nucleus through nuclear pore complex.
How does proteins with nuclear localization signals enter the nucleus?Proteins having nuclear localization signals are transported inward through the nuclear pore complexes, whereas RNA molecules and newly made ribosomal subunits contain nuclear export signals that direct the active transport outward through pore complexes.
Nuclear proteins are transported actively through nuclear pores by a selective and mediated process. The process is mediated by nuclear localization signal and can be divided into two steps, that are : targeting to the pores and translocation through the pores.
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A primary difference between transcription and replication is that transcription
Answer: Replication is the duplication of two-strands of DNA.
Explanation:
Transcription is the formation of single, identical RNA from the two-stranded DNA.
the process during meiosis that mixes genetic material in both the fathers and mothers germ cells is called
the process during meiosis that mixes genetic material in both the fathers and mothers germ cells is called recombination.
What do independent assortment and recombination in meiosis mean?Recombination, a process that breaks and recombines bits of DNA to create new combinations of genes, takes place during meiosis. Maternal and paternal genes are fragmented during recombination, ensuring that genes assort independently of one another.
What is the recombination process?DNA fragments are broken and recombined during the recombination process to create novel allele combinations. The genetic variety that results from this recombination process at the gene level reflects variations in the DNA sequences of various species.
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do all living things have the same number of genes?
The end outcome is the biodiversity we are familiar with today. However, it is impossible to directly compare species because their genes are varied and they do not all have the same number of genes.
Does each individual possess the same number of genes?Does everyone share a genome? Most people have a similar human genome. The genome does, however, contain variants. Differences in look and health are a result of this genetic variation, which makes up roughly 0.001 percent of each person's DNA.
Do all forms of life have genes?All plants and animals are composed of cells, and those cells contain genetic material in the form of genes and chromosomes (usually in the nucleus).
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Why are the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation of mRNA useful to humans?
For the regulation of genes during nutritional shortage and stress, development and differentiation, nervous system function, aging, and illness, translational control in eukaryotic cells is essential. Prokaryotes are able to respond quickly to environmental cues because transcription and translation happen simultaneously in the cytoplasm.
what are Prokaryotes ?Any organism without internal membranes is referred to as a prokaryote, usually written procaryote. These organisms lack a defined nucleus and other organelles.
what is eukaryotic ?eukaryotic can be explained as a living things with nuclei in their cells. Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures.
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Normal cells have a contact inhibition feedback mechanism that prevents the cells
from replicating when other cells are touched. A diagram of cells with contact
inhibition and cells without contact inhibition is shown.
Which statement best describes what will happen to cells in an organism that lack
contact inhibition?
ANSWER CHOICES
The cells will stop replicating once one layer is produced as other body cells will crowd them out.
The cells replicate into the food supply for each cell is used, causing each cell to die
The cells will continue to grow causing a tumor in the body
The cells will replicate normally replacing body cells that die
The statement that best describes what will happen to cells in an organism that lacks contact inhibition is that the cells will continue to grow to cause a tumor in the body.
The correct option is C.
Contact inhibition refers to a process by which cells that are growing when they come in contact with each other will stop the growth of more cells.
Contact inhibition is a form of feedback inhibition mechanism that enables cells to prevent the excessive growth of cells in the body.
Normal cells have a contact inhibition feedback mechanism. However, some cells lack this feedback mechanism of regulation. Hence, the cells have excessive growth resulting in the formation of tumors.
Examples of cells that lack this feedback mechanism of regulation are cancer cells.
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Remote sensing data helps scientists improve their understanding and predictions about climate change.
a. True
b. False
Remote sensing data helps scientists improve their understanding and predictions about climate change. This is a true statement.
It allows for the monitoring of Earth's surface, oceans, and atmosphere at various spatiotemporal scales, enabling the study of processes or long- and short-term events related to the climate.
Remotele sensing photos, which are captured with specialised cameras, are used by scientists to "feel" the Earth. Examples include: We can see considerably more from the air and space than we can from the ground because of the cameras on satellites and aircraft that snap photographs of large swaths of the Earth's surface.
For example, isotope ratios, elemental analysis, biomarkers, and biogenic silica are examples of chemical proxy records. When combined, these proxies allow us to recreate the climate from hundreds of millions of years ago.
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which division of the piriform cortex produces representations of the features of odorant molecules?
The anterior division of the piriform cortex produces representations of the features of odorant molecules.
Piriform cortex is a region of the brain also called as pyriform cortex, situated in the cerebrum region. Its function is to regulate the mechanisms of the olfactory experiences. It is at the junction of the temporal and frontal lobes.
Odorant molecules are the ligands that bind to the odorant receptors present at the neurons of the body involved in the olfactory responses. They are names odorants because they perceive smell. The receptors of the odorant molecules are GPCRs. Odorants are of various types based on the type of functional group they possess.
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Which of the following can lead to cancer?
A. a disruption in the cell cycle
B a cell entering the G0
C. A cell never leaving G0
D. The death of a cell
The option that can lead to cancer is a disruption in the cell cycle (option A).
What causes cancer?Cancer is a disease in which the cells of a tissue undergo uncontrolled (and often rapid) proliferation.
Cell cycle is the life cycle of eukaryotic cells from a quiescent beginning, growth, duplication of DNA followed by mitosis and division. The period of time in the cell cycle when nothing is happening is known as the G0 phase i.e. inactivity.
Cancer is a genetic disorder. It happens when genes that manage cell activity mutate and create abnormal cells that divide and multiply, eventually disrupting how the body works.
Therefore, disruption or alteration in the normal procedure of the cell cycle can lead to cancer.
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in multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results. how does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential? i) action potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon. ii) action potentials move more slowly along the axon. iii) no action potentials are transmitted. in multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results. how does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential? i) action potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon. ii) action potentials move more slowly along the axon. iii) no action potentials are transmitted. only i only ii only iii only ii and iii request answer
This attack causes inflammation and injury to the nerve sheath and ultimately to the surrounding nerve fibers. The process can result in multiple areas of scarring.
When the myelin sheath is damaged, the nerves do not conduct electrical impulses normally. Sometimes nerve fibers are also damaged. If the sheath can be repaired and regenerated, normal nerve function can return. However, if the sheath is severely damaged, the underlying nerve fiber may die. Your bodys immune system produces inflammatory substances that damage myelin and eventually kill the cells, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells that produce myelin. Where the myelin is attacked determines your symptoms. The destruction of the myelin sheath is called demyelination. Axonal demyelination leads to an increase in the refractory period for propagation of the action potential. Computer simulations were used to investigate the mechanism by which changes in the passive properties of the internodal membrane increase the refractory period.
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Select all true statements regarding gamma decay.
Gamma rays are the spectral particles with the highest energy and shortest wavelength. This form of decay does not result in the release of any particles from the nucleus.
What is a nucleus, and what does it do?The spindle holds the alleles, which are the structures that house the genetic traits, and governs and regulates the functions of the cell. The nucleoplasm is the gel-like membrane that contains the nuclear parts are suspended.
Why is the nucleus the most significant cell?Due to its role in the storage, retrieval, and copying of genetic material, the nucleus is regarded as among the most significant components of eukaryotic cells. The genetic material is housed in an organelle with two membranes.
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an oversimplified or exaggerated generalization used to describe or distinguish a group is called
Answer: An oversimplified or exaggerated generalization used to describe or distinguish a group is called a stereotype.
which of the following will increase the rate of transcription? histone acetylation leading to chromatin decompaction d. histone methylation leading to chromatin compaction removal of rna polymerase
Option C. is correct, Gene expression levels have long been known to be significantly influenced by the state of chromatin, the packaging of DNA in eukaryotes. Several chromatin-altering techniques, such as ATP-dependent remodelling.
The cell uses histone modification to control the transcription of certain genes. Since several histone acetyltransferases have been discovered and further studied in recent years, histone acetylation is one of them that is most thoroughly understood. chromatin remodelling and histone acetylation A restrictive barrier to transcription is represented by chromatin. This molecular barrier is a highly dynamic structure that can fit the complete genome's DNA inside the limits of a nucleus while yet allowing access to the genetic material stored inside.
Which of the following will increase the rate of transcription?
a. Activation of a transcriptional repressor
b. Inhibition of a transcriptional activator
c. Histone acetylation leading to chromatin decompaction
d. Histone methylation leading to chromatin compaction Removal of RNA polymerase
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Write a testable question that could be used to further investigate the topic of stimulus-response time.
Does muscle memory facilitate quicker reaction times? is a a testable question that could be used to further investigate the topic of stimulus-response time.
Define reaction time.
Reaction time is the amount of time it takes for someone to react to a stimuli. Since it takes time for the information to travel from your hand to your brain, where it is processed, and then a response is started, there may be a brief delay between touching something that is really cold and taking your hand away.
Your arm should be extended as you hold the ruler's top. You should have your fingers on the largest measurement. Ask a buddy to hold the ruler between their fingers with their thumb and index finger placed at the bottom. Drop the ruler, then mark the distance on it where the other person's fingers are. Repeat this for every participant. Allow three tries for each person, then calculate the average.
The individual who reacts most quickly is the one who successfully catches the ruler at its lowest measurement because the sooner the ruler is caught, the less time it has had to fall. Our eyes see that the ruler has been dropped, alerting the brain, which then instructs the arm and hand muscles to grab the ruler. These messages move really swiftly because to our body's advanced intelligence.
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How many of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode worm from an annelid worm?
1. type of body cavity
2. number of muscle layers in the body wall
3. presence of segmentation
4. number of embryonic tissue layers
5. shape of worm in cross-sectional view • a) one of these
• b) two of these
• c) three of these
• d) five of these
Answer: three of these
Explanation: hope this helps :)
Answer:
C: Three of these
Explanation:
I looked it up.
Which of the following best describes the result of meiosis? Select 3 that apply.
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
The result of the process of meiosis is that it produces increased genetic diversity due to crossing over.
The correct option is C.
What is meiosis?Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the production of gametes or sex cells. Hence. meiosis is a form of cell division that occurs only during sexual reproduction.
During meiosis, the cells of the parent organism which have a pair of chromosomes or diploid number or 2n of chromosomes divide to produce the gametes which have the haploid number or n number of chromosomes.
Hence, the sex cells or gametes produced can fuse to form a zygote that has a pair of chromosomes or diploid number or 2n of chromosomes.
The process of meiosis results in genetic variation as it allows for the crossing over of genes, such that the genes of the offspring show a variation to that of the parents as well as among the offspring.
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The otter allele is found in Lane 2. To which population does it belong
DNA fingerprints are all the genetic markers used to differentiate individuals or populations. In the exposed example, the otter from lane two belong to population 2, Esther passage, because its band is 890 PB in length.
What is DNA fingerprint?
We can refer to DNA fingerprint as the group of genetic markers that differentiate an individual from another individual, or a population from another population.
Genetic markers are unique DNA fragments that are not identical in all individuals or populations. These fragments provide unique information about the individual or the population, so they are usually used to analyze differences, identify a progenitor, or solve a crime.
DNA prints are used to identify the population origin of an individual, or filial relationships, among others.
In the exposed example, we have DNA samples of 8 individuals belonging to three different populations.
Two alleles are used as markers to identify the individual belonging to each group.
Population 1 ⇒ Unakwik inlet ⇒ 610 and 890 bp band length ⇒ both allelesPopulation 2 ⇒ Esther passage ⇒ 890 bp band length ⇒ one allelePopulation 3 ⇒ Wells bay ⇒ 610 bp band length ⇒ the other alleleTo identify individuals belonging to each group, we just need to count the number of band they express.
In the case of individual number 2 (lane 2), there is only one band. So we can dismiss population 1 (because this population has the two alleles).
The expressed band is approximately 890 pb length. It means that it belongs to population 2, Esther passage.
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the archenteron of a mesolecithal embryo with holoblastic cleavage eventually develops into which structure?
The archenteron of a mesolecithal embryo with holoblastic cleavage eventually develops into digestive tract.
What do you mean by archenteron?The archenteron (gastrocoel) is a hollow within an animal embryo there at gastrula stage of development. The anus, or , and the blastopore, which serves as the animal's entrance and entry to the outside world, are both formed by this opening. The stomach cavity is finally formed, in whole or in part, by the archenteron.
Where may one find archenteron?The growing embryo's primitive gut, known as the archenteron or digestive tunnel, develops during gastrulation. It is the core cavity inside an embryo at the gastrula stage of development.
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