A wave has a frequency of 5 Hz and a wavelength of 0.5 m, what is the speed of this wave?

Answer:

D) The force F is perpendicular (normal) to both velocity V and magnetic field B.

Explanation:

When a charged particle enters a magnetic field, it experiences a force which changes its direction of travel. The direction of motion of the charged particle, the magnetic field direction, and the direction of the force, are all perpendicular to one another. According to Lorentz right hand rule, hold the right hand parallel to the ground, with the palm facing up, and the thumb held out at right angle to the other fingers. If the direction of the other fingers represents the magnetic field line and direction, and the thumb represents the direction of motion of a positively charged particle, then, the palm will push up in the direction of the force. For a negatively charged particle, the force will push down in the direction of the back of the hand.

Answer:

The energy that can be stored in the capacitor is 239 nJ

Explanation:

We first calculate the capacitance of each material. Let C₁ be the capacitance of pyrex glass and C₂ be the capacitance of polystyrene.

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d where κ₁ = dielectric constant of pyrex glass = 5, A = area of plates = L² where L = length of square plate = 7.40 cm = 7.40 × 10⁻² m and d = thickness of pyrex slab = 1.60 mm = 1.60 × 10⁻³ m and ε₀ = permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d = κ₁ε₀L²/d = 5 × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (7.40 × 10⁻² m)²/1.60 × 10⁻³ m = 2424.2252/1.60 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 1515.14 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F = 15.2 nF

C₂ = κ₂ε₀A/d where κ₂ = dielectric constant of polystyrene = 3, A = area of plates = L² where L = length of square plate = 7.40 cm = 7.40 × 10⁻² m and d = thickness of polystyrene slab = 1.60 mm = 1.60 × 10⁻³ m and ε₀ = permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d = κ₁ε₀L²/d = 3 × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (7.40 × 10⁻² m)²/1.60 × 10⁻³ m = 1454.5351/1.60 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 909.08 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F = 9.09 nF

Since the capacitors are in series, we find their effective capacitance C from

1/C = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂

C = C₁C₂/(C₁ + C₂)

= 15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F × 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F/(15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F + 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F)

= 138.168 × 10⁻¹⁸/24.29 × 10⁻⁹ F

= 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F

The amount of electrical energy stored in a capacitor is given by W = 1/2CV² where C = capacitance and v = voltage applied. Now C = 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F and V = 84.0 V for this capacitor

So W = 1/2 × 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F × 84.0 V

= 238.98 × 10⁻⁹ J

≅ 239 × 10⁻⁹ J

= 239 nJ

So the energy that can be stored in the capacitor is 239 nJ

Answer:

The correct option is energy levels

Explanation:

Rutherford's model of an atom suggests that an atom has a tiny positively charged central mass (now called the nucleus) which is surrounded by electrons (negatively charged) in a cloud-like manner.

Bohr's model went a bit further than the Rutherford's model in describing an atom by suggesting that the electrons which surrounds in the nucleus travel in fixed circular orbits. This description by Bohr was able to describe the energy levels of orbitals which assumes that smallest orbitals have the lowest energy while the largest orbitals have the highest energy.

Answer:

energy levels

hope this helped!

Explanation:

Answer:

13.6 cm

Explanation:

From Snell's law:

n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂

In the air, n₁ = 1, and light from the horizon forms a 90° angle with the vertical, so sin θ₁ = sin 90° = 1.

Given n₂ = 4/3:

1 = 4/3 sin θ

sin θ = 3/4

If x is the radius of the circle, then sin θ is:

sin θ = x / √(x² + 12²)

sin θ = x / √(x² + 144)

Substituting:

3/4 = x / √(x² + 144)

9/16 = x² / (x² + 144)

9/16 x² + 81 = x²

81 = 7/16 x²

x ≈ 13.6

Answer:

a. 26.7 cm. b. 11.4 cm.

Explanation:

a. We know h'/h = d'/d where h' = image height = + 2 cm (since it is a real image), h = object height = + 1.5 cm, d' = image distance from mirror and d = object distance from mirror = 20 cm

So, from h'/h = d'/d

d = h'd/h

= 2 cm × 20 cm/1.5 cm

= 40/1.5 cm

=  26.67 cm

≅ 26.7 cm

The position of the image is 26.7 cm from the mirror

b. Using the mirror formula

1/d + 1/d' = 1/f where d = object distance from mirror = + 20 cm, d' = image distance from mirror = + 26.7 cm (its positive since its a real image) and f = focal length of mirror.

So, 1/d + 1/d' = 1/f

⇒ f = dd'/(d + d')

= 20 cm × 26.7 cm/(20 cm + 26.7 cm)

= 534/46.7

= 11.43 cm

≅ 11.4 cm

The focal length of the mirror is 11.4 cm

Answer:

the elastic constant of the spring=1.715

the length of the spring=0.28

Explanation:

we know that according to hooks law

F=-k x

F= force

k= elastic constant

x= extension or compression

given

length change from 35cm to 55 cm so delta x = L2-L1= 55-35=20 cm

now to find k we need F and F =ma

M for part a is 3.5 kg

so F=3.5 kg *9.8=34.3

now k=F/x

k=34.3/20=1.715 N/cm=171.5 N/m

now to find length given mass is 5 kg so

F= ma

F=5*9.8=49 N

so x =F/k

x=49/171.5

x=0.28

Answer:

D:rarefactions and compressions

Explanation:

Longitudinal waves are readily formed in materials such as a stretched spring. Longitudinal waves are waves which travel in a direction parallel to the vibrations of the medium.

Longitudinal waves are characterized by a series of compressions and rarefactions. The compressions are areas of clusters while rarefactions are areas of expansions. The same can be observed in a sound wave.

Answer:

I guess i would say the microscope

Explanation:

Because of the microscope, we can see the cells.

Answer:

Principle Archimedes is applied in building a ship and submarine using the manipulating that buoyancy, is controlled the ballast tank system.

Explanation:

Submarine is rather had they focused on main parts of the submarine,he is complex and long process implementation,the most submarine design like submarine stability.

Submarine stability is complete and the fundamental Archimedes principle to arrive the weight of submarine is equal to buoyancy force.

Submarine into the parts and components of ballast tank the sequence in diving and surfacing,there two vital parts:-  flood parts and air vents

flood parts:- at the bottom position and allow water to enter or leave that tank.

air vents:- air vents at the top of the pressure hall,and that they submarine dive.

this time submarine is most modern system is depth is 300 to 450 meters,high pressure  air is 15 bar is tank air valve.

submarine is basic of the effective volume of all the submarine surfaced condition,submarine minus to the free water flood is equal to the fully pressure hull,submarine is the surfaced condition.

Answer:

here I am just giving an idea of how the graph will be like ...

In the pic..

Hope it helped u if yes mark me BRAINLIEST!

Tysm!

:)

Answer:

v = 60 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

A wave is represented by the equation :

[tex]y=0.2\sin [0.4\pi (x-60)t][/tex]

We need to find the velocity of the wave

The general equation of a wave is given by :

[tex]y=A\sin (kx-\omega t)[/tex] ....(1)

Equation (1) can be written as :

[tex]y=0.2\sin (0.4\pi x-24\pi t)[/tex] ...(2)

If we compare equation (1) and (2) we get :

[tex]k=0.4\pi[/tex]

[tex]\omega=24\pi[/tex]

The velocity of a wave is given by :

[tex]v=\dfrac{\omega}{k}\\\\v=\dfrac{24\pi}{0.4\pi}\\\\v=60\ m/s[/tex]

So, the velocity of the wave is 60 m/s.

Answer:

proton:18

neutron:39-18=21

Answer:

A dark fringe

Answer:

5000 N/m².

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Density (d) = 1000 kg/m³

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 N/kg

Height (h) = 50 cm = 50/100 = 0.5 m

Pressure (P) =.?

Pressure is related to density and height by the following equation:

P = dgh

Where

P is the pressure.

d is the density.

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

h is the height.

With the above formula, we can obtain the pressure at the bottom of the cup as follow:

P = dgh

P = 1000 x 10 x 0.5

P = 5000 N/m²

Therefore, the pressure at bottom of the cup is 5000 N/m².

Answer:

Rounded to three significant figures:

(a) [tex]2 \times 575\; \rm nm = 1150\; \rm nm = 1.15\times 10^{-6}\; \rm m[/tex].

(b) [tex]\displaystyle \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) \times (575\;\rm nm) \approx 863\; \rm nm = 8.63\times 10^{-7}\; \rm m[/tex].

Explanation:

Consider a double-slit experiment where a wide beam of monochromatic light arrives at a filter with a double slit. On the other side of the filter, the two slits will appear like two point light sources that are in phase with each other. For each point on the screen, "path" refers to the length of the segment joining that point and each of the two slits. "Path difference" will thus refer to the difference between these two lengths.  

Let [tex]k[/tex] denote a natural number ([tex]k \in \left\lbrace0,\, 1,\, 2,\, \dots\right\rbrace[/tex].) In a double-split experiment of a monochromatic light:

The path difference is at a minimum (zero) at the center of the screen between the two slits. That's the position of the first maximum- the central maximum, a bright fringe where [tex]k = 0[/tex] in [tex]\text{Path difference} = 0[/tex].

The path difference increases while moving on the screen away from the center. The first order maximum is at [tex]k = 1[/tex] where [tex]\text{Path difference} = \lambda[/tex].

Similarly, the second order maximum is at [tex]k = 2[/tex] where [tex]\text{Path difference} = 2\, \lambda[/tex]. For the light in this question, at the second order maximum: [tex]\text{Path difference} = 2\, \lambda = 2 \times 575\; \rm nm = 1.15\times 10^{-6}\; \rm m[/tex].

The dark fringe closest to the center of the screen is the first minimum. [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(0 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda = \frac{1}{2}\, \lambda[/tex] at that point.

Add one wavelength to that path difference gives another dark fringe- the second minimum. [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda[/tex] at that point.

For the light in this question, at the second order minimum: [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\times (575\; \rm nm) \approx 8.63\times 10^{-7}\; \rm m[/tex].

Answer:

  2.4583 ± 0.0207 seconds

Explanation:

The time period of a pendulum is approximately given by the formula ...

  T = 2π√(L/g)

The maximum period will be achieved when length is longest and gravity is smallest:

  Tmax = 2π√(1.51/9.7) ≈ 2.47903 . . . seconds

The minimum period will be achieved for the opposite conditions: minimum length and maximum gravity:

  Tmin = 2π√(1.49/9.9) ≈ 2.43756 . . . seconds

If we want to express the uncertainty using a symmetrical range, we need to find half their sum and half their difference.

  T = (2.47903 +2.43756)/2 ± (2.47903 -2.43756)/2

  T ≈ 2.4583 ± 0.0207 . . . seconds

__

We have about 2+ significant digits in the given parameters, so the time might be rounded to 2.46±0.02 seconds.

Answer:

D!!!!!

Explanation:

A hypothesis is a supposition or proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation.

Answer:

D. An educated guess about the outcome of an experiment.

Explanation:

Hypothesis is an educated guess about the outcome of an experiment.

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Explanation:

this is it. hope u understand

Answer:

 w = -101 rad / s

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use Faraday's law

          E = - dФ / dt

where the magnetic flux is

          Ф = B. A = B A cos θ

In this case, the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the disk is zero, cos 0 = 1, they indicate that the field is constant, let's find the area

The area rotated by the disk is

         A = ½ r s

if we express the angles in radians

         θ = s / r

         s = r θ

where is the arc supported

         A = ½ r (r θ)

let us substitute in the Faraday equation

          E = - d (B ½ r² θ) / dt

          E = - ½ B r² dθ/dt

the definition of angular velocity is

          w = dθ/dt

          E = - ½ B r² w

           w = - 2E / B r²

let's calculate

         w = - 2 3.86 / (0.0314 1.56²)

         w = -101 rad / s

Answer:

usa

Explanation:

Answer:

is the last one, a magnetic wave and electrical current moving in opposite directions

Explanation:

opposite directions always attract in magnetic waves and fields

realtion between applied force.and pressure is more force exerts more pressure whereas less force exerts less pressure

confused in another one

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

1) Applied Force and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Area

This shows that Applied force and pressure are in direct relationship. This means that If the Applied force is more, the Pressure is also More and vice versa.

2) Surface Area of Contact and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Surface Area of Contact

This shows that Pressure and Surface area of contact are inversely related. This means that if pressure is increased on an object, the surface area of contact decreases and vice versa.

Answer: Some of the ways to control noise pollution are as follows: (1) Control at Receiver's End (2) Suppression of Noise at Source (3) Acoustic Zoning (4) Sound Insulation at Construction Stages (5) Planting of Trees (6) Legislative Measures.

Answer:

You have to:

a) Improve your insulation.

b) Install a fence

c) Use modern Acoustic wall panels

d) Plant trees

e) Reduce electronic volumes,e.t.c.

Explanation:

okay.

Explanation:

SI is the international system of units

It was developed to express magnitudes and quantities

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

234/92U--------> 230/90Th + 4/2He

230/90Th----->226/88Ra + 4/2He

There are various modes of radioactive decay. One of them is alpha decay.

Alpha decay involves the loss of an alpha particle from a nucleus. When this occurs, the mass number of the daughter nucleus is four units less than that of the parent while the atomic number of the daughter nucleus is two units less than that of its parent as shown in the equations above.

An alpha particle is akin to a helium nucleus in terms of mass and charge

Answer:

The answer is 29 AU

Hoped I helped

mark me as brainliest

Answer:

29

Explanation:

Answer:

B for BIG

Explanation:

carbs and fats is energy, if not being use or burned off, it'll be becomes body fat.

You haven't told us what any of those letters represents.

I'm going to assume that ...

-- ' P ' = power

-- ' I ' = circuit current

-- ' V ' = circuit voltage

-- ' E ' = energy

-- ' t ' = time.

Now I'm ready to answer the question that I just invented.

P = I / V

V = P x I

Both of these are false statements, and can't be used to calculate anything.

P = I x V   is the correct equation to calculate electrical power.

E = P x t   is the correct equation to calculate electrical energy.

Answer:

Oxygen-Symbol-O Potassium Symbol-K

A) Valency is the combining capacity of any element. Valence electrons refers to the electrons found in the outermost shell of the atom of the element.

B) Symbol and valency:

C) The reaction would be:

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \rm{2Mg + O_2 \longrightarrow \: 2MgO}}}[/tex]

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \rm{Magnesium + Oxygen \longrightarrow Magnesium oxide.

}}}[/tex]

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

Answer:

The ending pressure is R.

Explanation:

This is Recreational scuba diving (R). According to standards, this diving has prescribed depth limit of 130 ft. This means that the limit must include a depth that is not greater than 130 ft while using only compressed air and not even requiring a decompression stop.

Now, from the question, we can see that that there was a prescribed limit of 60ft of water with a planned bottom time of 30 minutes.

Thus, the ending pressure is R.