A line has a slope of -2/3 and passes through the point (-3, 8). What is the equation of the line?
y= -2/3x + 6
y= -2/3x + 8
y= 6x- 2/3
y= 8x- 2/3

Answer:

2 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

7/8 is the same as 0.875 and therefore you need 0.125 also known as 1/8 to make it a whole number. When you add it to the already existing whole 2 you get three. Subtract three from five to make two which is what you need to add on top to finally get 5.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]2^{1/2} - 2^{-1/3} = 2^{1/2 + 1/3} = 2^{3/6} = 2^{1/2} = \sqrt{2}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt[6]{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

2 ^ 1/2 ÷ 2 ^ 1/3

We know that a^b ÷ a^ c = a^(b-c)

2 ^ (1/2 -1/3)

2^ (3/6 - 2/6)

2 ^ 1/6

[tex]\sqrt[6]{2}[/tex]

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 64/3

x = -119/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3х + 6у = 9 => 5*3x+5*6у = 9*5 => 15x+30у=45 (1)

5х + 7y = -49 => 3*5x + 3*7y = -49*3 => 15x+21y=-147 (2)

(1)-(2) => 9y = 192 => y = 64/3

x = -119/3

Answer:

(Y-3)/(3+12)

(Y-3)/(15)

Y-1/5

so the answer is

(Y-1)

Answer:

[tex]y - 3 \: over \: 3 + 12 \\ y - 3.3 + 12 \\ y - 3.3 + 12 = y + 8.7 \\ y - 33 + 12 \\ y + 8.7[/tex]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

12.8, pythagorean theorem.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

every thing looks good,  except the question says  "round"   and soooooo,  if you are rounding to the 2nd decimal place,  then the next two decimal places are  54,      or  50.2654   so, to round that, round up , so your final answer would look like   50.27   :)  see?

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  50.24 inches  (or 50.2 inches)

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for circumference in terms of radius is ...

  C = 2πr

Using the given values for radius and for pi, the circumference is ...

  C = 2(3.14)(8 in) = 50.24 in

__

Additional comment

If you use a more accurate value of pi, the rounded value is 50.27 in. That is not the value requested by this problem. It helps to follow directions.

If you like, you can round to 50.2, since only one decimal place is required in the result.

Answer:

continuous

rain does not fall in specific units like 1 inch , 2 inches etc... but 1.23456 etc..

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: [tex]t\in [\dfrac{1}{4},2][/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Inequality is [tex]4t^2\leq9t-2[/tex]

Taking variables one side

[tex]\Rightarrow 4t^2-9t+2\leq0\\\Rightarrow 4t^2-8t-t+2\leq0\\\Rightarrow 4t(t-2)-1(t-2)\leq0\\\Rightarrow (4t-1)(t-2)\leq0[/tex]

Using wavy curve method

[tex]t\in [\dfrac{1}{4},2][/tex]

Answer:

Old number = 150

Step-by-step explanation:

Given information;

Percentage decreased = 22%

New number obtain = 117

Find:

Old number

Computation:

Old number = New number obtain[100 / (100 - 22)]

Old number = 117[100 / (100 - 22)]

Old number = 117[100 / (78)]

Old number = 11,700 / 78

Old number = 150

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 4(1/2)^x

Let's find the value of the function for x = 0 and for x = 1.

f(0) = 4(1/2)^0 = 4(1) = 4

f(1) = 4(1/2)^1 = 4(1/2) = 2

The only graph that has both points (0, 4) and (1, 2) is the second graph.

Answer: B.

Answer:

D. 60

Step-by-step explanation:

Range is the difference between the maximum value and the minimum value.

The minimum value is at the extreme end of the whisker of the box plot to your left = 65

The maximum value is at the extreme end of the whisker of the box plot to your right = 125

Range = 125 - 65 = 60

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  the function has no finite limit at the left end of the interval (5, ∞)

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the function to be piecewise continuous, it must have finite limits at the endpoints of each of the subintervals. Here, the function goes to infinity as x → 5+, so has no finite limit there.

Answers:

==========================================================

Explanation:

Recall the following

N = set of natural numbers

N = {1,2,3,4,5,6,...}

W = set of whole numbers

W = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,...}

The sets N and W are nearly the same set, except for W has 0 involved, while N does not. The triple dots say that pattern goes on forever.

From those infinite sets, we form the two finite subsets A and B like so

A = {x : x < 6, x is in N}

A = {x such that x < 6 and x is a natural number}

A = {1,2,3,5}

B = {y : y < 4, y is in W}

B = {y such that y < 4 and y is a whole number}

B = {0,1,2,3}

-------------------------------------------------

In short, we have these two finite sets

The notation A-B indicates we'll start with set A and kick out members of set B that are also in set A. This is known as set subtraction.

So we'll write out set A to get {1,2,3,4,5}

Then we cross off 1,2,3 in this set because these values are found in set B

We're left with {4,5}

Therefore A-B = {4,5}

---------------------------------------------------

To compute B-A, we do the same idea but in reverse.

Start with set B

{0,1,2,3}

and erase the items 1,2,3 since they are found in set A

We then find that

B-A = {0}

Even though we have 1 item, don't forget about the curly braces to say we have a set. Any set that has exactly 1 item in it is considered a singleton set.

Keep in mind that the singleton {0} is not the empty set. The empty set would have nothing inside it and we would say { } instead.

Answer:

3x3x13 and 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

[tex]\widehat{A}=180^o-24.4^o-103.6^o=52^o\\\\\dfrac{sin(24.4^o)}{37.3} =\dfrac{sin(103.6^o)}{c} \\\\\\c=87.760246\approx{87.8}\\\\\\\dfrac{sin(52^o)}{a} =\dfrac{sin(24.4^o)}{37.3} \\\\\\a=71.1510189...\approx{71.2}\\[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B."5, -3, -4, 1, -1, 6, -4"

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

13,5,4,9,7,14,4

We have to find the deviation.

Mean=[tex]\frac{sum\;of\;data}{total\;number\;of\;data}[/tex]

Using the formula

[tex]Mean,\mu=\frac{13+5+4+9+7+14+4}{7}[/tex]

[tex]Mean,\mu=\frac{56}{7}=8[/tex]

Deviation=[tex]x_i-\mu[/tex]

         [tex]x_i-\mu[/tex]

13          5

5           -3

4           - 4

9            1

7             -1

14            6

4            - 4

Hence, option  B is correct.

Answer:

(a)So, there are 2 kings in red- one of hearts and the other of diamonds. Therefore, the probability of selecting a red king from a deck of cards= 2/52 or 1/26.

(b) There are 6 red face cards in a 52-card deck (so 46 other cards). PROBABILITIES compare the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes: The PROBABILITY of getting a red face card is 6/52 = 3/26.

The odds in favor of getting a red king will be 1/26. And the odds against getting a red king will be 25/26.

Its basic premise is that something will almost certainly happen. The percentage of favorable events to the total number of occurrences.

You are dealt one card from a 52-card deck.

Total events = 52

The odds in favor of getting a red king will be

Favorable events = 2

Then the probability will be

P = 2/52

P = 1/26

The odds against getting a red king will be

q = 1 – P

q = 1 – 1/26

q = 25/26

More about the probability link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/795909

#SPJ2

Given that exp(2x) is a solution, we assume another solution of the form

y(x) = v(x) exp(2x) = v exp(2x)

with derivatives

y' = v' exp(2x) + 2v exp(2x)

y'' = v'' exp(2x) + 4v' exp(2x) + 4v exp(2x)

Substitute these into the equation:

(2x + 5) (v'' exp(2x) + 4v' exp(2x) + 4v exp(2x)) - 4 (x + 3) (v' exp(2x) + 2v exp(2x)) + 4v exp(2x) = 0

Each term contains a factor of exp(2x) that can be divided out:

(2x + 5) (v'' + 4v' + 4v) - 4 (x + 3) (v' + 2v) + 4v = 0

Expanding and simplifying eliminates the v term:

(2x + 5) v'' + (4x + 8) v' = 0

Substitute w(x) = v'(x) to reduce the order of the equation, and you're left with a linear ODE:

(2x + 5) w' + (4x + 8) w = 0

w' + (4x + 8)/(2x + 5) w = 0

I'll use the integrating factor method. The IF is

µ(x) = exp( ∫ (4x + 8)/(2x + 5) dx ) = exp(2x - log|2x + 5|) = exp(2x)/(2x + 5)

Multiply through the ODE in w by µ :

µw' + µ (4x + 8)/(2x + 5) w = 0

The left side is the derivative of a product:

[µw]' = 0

Integrate both sides:

∫ [µw]' dx = ∫ 0 dx

µw = C

Replace w with v', then integrate to solve for v :

exp(2x)/(2x + 5) v' = C

v' = C (2x + 5) exp(-2x)

∫ v' dx = ∫ C (2x + 5) exp(-2x) dx

v = C₁ (x + 3) exp(-2x) + C₂

Replace v with y exp(-2x) and solve for y :

y exp(-2x) = C₁ (x + 3) exp(-2x) + C₂

y = C₁ (x + 3) + C₂ exp(2x)

It follows that the second fundamental solution is y = x + 3. (The exp(2x) here is already accounted for as the first solution.)

Answer:

[tex]P(x>1)=0.9927[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Mean [tex]\=x =7[/tex]

Generally the Poisson equation for \=x is mathematically given by

[tex]P(x>1)=1-P(x \leq 1)[/tex]

Therefor

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(\frac{e^{-7}*7^0}{0!}+{\frac{e^{-7}*7^1}{1!})[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(9.1*10^{-4}+6.3*10^{-3})[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(7.3*10^{-3}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=0.9927[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is 13.33 year

Step-by-step explanation:

P = $12000

Rate = 3%

Amount = $16800

so,

I = A-P

= $16800 - $12000

= $4800

So,

T = (I × 100)/P×R

= (4800×100)/P×R

= 480000/($12000×3)

= 480000/36000

= 480/36

= 13.33 year

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Yesterday would be Thursday and the day after next would be Sunday

Answer:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 20, 24, 30, 40, 60

Step-by-step explanation:

1x120, 2x60, 3x40, 4x30, 5x24, 6x20, 8x15, 10x12, 12x10,15x8, 20x6, 24x5, 30x4, 40x3, 60x2

Answer:

a. The mean is 3, the variance is 2.25 and the standard deviation is 1.5.

b. 0.0401 = 4.01% probability that the number of people who own individual stocks is exactly six.

c. 0.1584 = 15.84% probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at least two.

d. 0.3907 = 39.07% probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at most two

e. Both cases include one common outcome, that is, 2 people owning stocks, so the events are not mutually exclusive.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they own stocks, or they do not. The probability of a person owning stocks is independent of any other person, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

One in four people in the US owns individual stocks.

This means that [tex]p = \frac{1}{4} = 0.25[/tex]

You randomly select 12 people and ask them if they own individual stocks.

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

a. Find the mean, variance, and standard deviation of the resulting probability distribution.

The mean of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

So

[tex]E(X) = 12(0.25) = 3[/tex]

The variance is:

[tex]V(X) = np(1-p)[/tex]

So

[tex]V(X) = 12(0.25)(0.75) = 2.25[/tex]

Standard deviation is the square root of the variance, so:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{2.25} = 1.5[/tex]

The mean is 3, the variance is 2.25 and the standard deviation is 1.5.

b. Find the probability that the number of people who own individual stocks is exactly six.

This is P(X = 6). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.25)^{6}.(0.75)^{6} = 0.0401[/tex]

0.0401 = 4.01% probability that the number of people who own individual stocks is exactly six.

c. Find probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at least two.

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)[/tex]

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.25)^{0}.(0.75)^{12} = 0.0317[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.25)^{1}.(0.75)^{11} = 0.1267[/tex]

[tex]P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0317 + 0.1267 = 0.1584[/tex]

0.1584 = 15.84% probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at least two.

d. Find the probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at most two.

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.25)^{0}.(0.75)^{12} = 0.0317[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.25)^{1}.(0.75)^{11} = 0.1267[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.25)^{2}.(0.75)^{10} = 0.2323[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0317 + 0.1267 + 0.2323 = 0.3907[/tex]

0.3907 = 39.07% probability that the number of people who say they own individual stocks is at most two.

e. Are the events in part c. and in part d. mutually exclusive

Both cases include one common outcome, that is, 2 people owning stocks, so the events are not mutually exclusive.

Answer:

The domain of the expression is all real numbers except where the expression is undefined. In this case, there is no real number that makes the expression undefined.

Interval Notation:

( − ∞ , ∞ )

Set-Builder Notation:

{ x | x ∈ R }

Step-by-step explanation:

hope that helps bigger terms