water is reabsorbed less; ions are reabsorbed more; water is reabsorbed The ascending loop of Henle is permeable to ions but impermeable to water
Henle's loop is a long, U-shaped section of the kidney's nephron tubule found in mammals, birds, and reptiles. The recovery of water and sodium chloride from urine is the loop of Henle's main purpose.What is the Henle function's loop?
Utilizing the concept of "countercurrent multiplication," the loops of Henle and the thick ascending limb of the distal tubule's main job is to concentrate urine. A gradient of urea and salt exists in the medulla, with concentrations of these solutes rising as one gets closer to the papillae.
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Papez’s circuit provides a model of the relationships of different regions in the limbic system involved in:Facial expressionAutonomic response specificityEmotional expressionThe neural control of violence
Such facial expressions are linked to physiological reactions in the autonomic nervous system, which could exhibit various patterns depending on the variety of facial expressions and the emotions they convey (Ekman, Levenson, & Friesen, 1983).
A subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioural or expressive response are the three parts of an emotional experience. Six primary emotions—fear, anger, pleasure, sorrow, contempt, disgust, and surprise—were adopted by Ekman instead of the seven he originally recommended. The cognitive component is in charge of analysing and interpreting feelings. The bodily changes that come along with emotion are caused by the physiological component. The behavioural element is also in charge of the emotions displayed through body language, vocal expressions, and face and facial expressions. People can have four different sorts of affective reactions: emotions, particular feelings, moods, and assessments, which can be good or negative and weigh the benefits and negatives. The degree of physical arousal or the intensity with which those two forms of impact are experienced varies.
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Which of the following correctly compares and contrasts the functions of the roots and the stems of a plant?(1 point)
A.The stems and the roots are both part of photosynthesis. However, the roots actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the stems just deliver these things to where they are needed.
B.The stems and the roots are both transportation systems, moving different things the plant needs. However, the stems actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the roots just deliver these things to where they are needed.
C.The stems and the roots are both part of photosynthesis. However, the stems actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the roots just deliver these things to where they are needed.
D.The stems and the roots are both transportation systems, moving different things the plant needs. However, the roots actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the stems just deliver these things to where they are needed.
The stems and the roots are both transportation systems, moving different things the plant needs. However, the roots actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the stems just deliver these things to where they are needed.
What is function of root?One of the most significant ways that roots support life is through this. Through the tree's root system and into the stem, water and minerals are immediately absorbed from the soil and delivered to the leaves, blooms, fruits, etc.
During the colder, dormant months, it is particularly crucial for plants and trees to store nutrients and food. This storage is essential to living through seasons of the year when nutrients are scarce.
The roots' major role also includes anchoring the plant to the ground.
Therefore, The stems and the roots are both transportation systems, moving different things the plant needs. However, the roots actually get water and essential nutrients out of the soil, while the stems just deliver these things to where they are needed.
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If you were to use a mutated plasmid in the pGlo experiment, one that no longer had a functional beta-lactamase gene, which statement below is the most likely observable outcome? Bacteria will not be able to grow on ampicillin plates Bacteria will not be able to break down arabinose The bacteria will not be able to express GFP There will be a significant change in the bacterial colony appearance The plasmid will no longer be able to be transformed into the bacterial cells
Bacteria are microbes with a cell structure simpler than that of many other organisms. Their control centre, containing the genetic information, is contained in a single loop of DNA. Some bacteria have an extra circle of genetic material called a plasmid rather than a nucleus.
A competent strain of bacteria is injected with the DNA (often in the form of a plasmid) during transformation so that the bacteria can reproduce the desired sequence in numbers adequate for additional research and/or modification. A recombinant plasmid that has been inserted into a bacterial cell causes the cell to start expressing the genes on it. By employing the bacterial cell's machinery, DNA polymerase finds the ori- the origin of replication- and begins to duplicate the plasmid. A fundamental molecular biology approach is the heat shock method of transforming plasmid DNA into E. coli. It involves putting an alien plasmid or ligation product inside of bacteria.
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what describes the flow of energy in animal cells
Answer:
The flow of energy in animal cells is described by the process of cellular respiration. This process involves the breakdown of glucose molecules in the presence of oxygen to produce energy in the form of ATP. The energy from ATP is then used by the cell to carry out various functions, such as muscle contraction and enzyme-mediated reactions. In animal cells, cellular respiration typically occurs in the mitochondria, which are the cell's "powerhouses" where ATP is produced.
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Explanation:
the genetic code is degenerate. that means the genetic code is degenerate. that means multiple choice it is possible for a single codon to specify more than one amino acid. a particular amino acid can be specified by more than one codon. the second base in the codon is usually a variable base. the code allows for more than one type of stop codon. in two individuals of the same species, some codons may be different.
Answer:
A particular amino acid can be specified by more than one codon.
Explanation:
the wall of the middle ear contains an opening that leads directly into the auditory tube.
The eustachian tube, also known as the auditory tube, which links the middle ear with the nasopharynx, has its entrance in the front (anterior) wall. The bone otic capsule of the inner ear includes the inner (medial) wall, often known as the labyrinth, which divides the middle ear from the inner ear.
It is the primary muscle that opens it upon contraction since it also derives some of its origin from the auditory canal. The middle ear cavity and the nasopharynx are connected by the eustachian tube (pharyngotympanic tube). The middle ear system is aerated, and the nasopharynx is cleared of middle ear mucus. Communication with the tympanic cavity is made possible by the delicate caroticotympanic canaliculi for nerves and arteries. The auditory tube's tympanic opening is located in the upper portion of the anterior wall. This is the tube that joins the middle or inner ear to the outer ear.
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Autobiographical memory research shows that a person's brain is more extensively activated when viewing photos
They acted independently. Memory for one's own past is referred to as autobiographical memory. First time you learned how to drive a car, childhood experiences, and even memories of your birthplace.
A person's autobiographical memory is their system of remembered events from their life that is made up of both episodic (personal experiences and particular things, people, and events experienced at a given time and place) and semantic (generic knowledge and facts about the world) memory.
It is a form of explicit memory as a result. There are three types of autobiographical knowledge: knowledge of lifespan periods, knowledge of general events, and knowledge of individual occurrences. The highest level of containment is used for lifetime periods, such as attending college. general information at this level. The middle level holds general events, which are composite episodes that are experienced over days, weeks, or months.
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which of these lists the structures in the correct sequence that light must pass through in order to reach the photoreceptors of the human eye?
The correct sequence of structures that the light must pass through in order to reach the photoreceptors of the human eye is: cornea → pupil→ lens→ retina.
Photoreceptors are the special neuron cells that are involved with the vision of the eyes. There are two types of photoreceptors in humans: rods and cones. The rods are responsible for the vision during the night or dark. And the cones are responsible for the day or light vision.
Retina is the light-sensitive area of the eye. It receives the images of the object and sends them to the brain in the form of electrical signals. These signals are sent by the retina through the optic nerve.
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Which process is shown in the plant cell below?
The process shown in the plant cell is that of mitosis.
What is mitosis?Mitosis is a type of cell division involving the vegetative cells of organisms. During mitosis, vegetative cells divide to produce two daughter cells. The two daughter cells are not only the same morphologically and genetically with one another, but also with their parents.
Unlike mitosis which results in 2 daughter cells, meiosis is another type fo cell division involving sex cells whereby 4 daughter cells are produced.
Looking at the image, one can see that a single cell divides and two daughter cells result at the end. Thus, it can be concluded that the process shown is that of mitosis.
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do the tropical easterlies blow away from the equator
Answer: Tropical Easterlies- Tropical Easterlies take direction in an east-to-west flow because of the rotation of the Earth. As air from the equator rises, it gets warmer and when it cools down, it comes back down to the equator. Tropical easterlies are located at 0-30 degrees latitude in both hemispheres.
Explanation: Internet
What kind of RNA is in an ionic bond
A bonds with T in DNA, A bonds with U in RNA and G bonds with C in DNA and RNA.
What is DNA base pair?DNA base pair has been under normal circumstances, the nitrogen-containing bases adenine (A) and thymine (T) pair together, and cytosine (C) and guanine (G) pair together. The binding of these base pairs forms the structure of DNA.
Two hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine or adenine and uracil. Complementary pairs always involve one purine and one pyrimidine base. In RNA the base Thymine is not present, instead the base Uracil is present which has a very similar structure to Thymine.
Therefore, A bonds with T in DNA, A bonds with U in RNA and G bonds with C in DNA and RNA.
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plasma membranes are relatively impermeable to water-soluble molecules because 1. the membranes are waxy. 2. water molecules are nonpolar. 3. their bilayer is comprised of phospholipids. 4. they have salt crystals embedded within them. 5. large proteins extend through both sides of the membranes.
Because phospholipids make up the majority of the bilayer that makes up plasma membranes, they are relatively impenetrable to water-soluble compounds. Option (3) is correct.
The close packing of the lipid tails and their extremely hydrophobic properties are the main reasons why the cell membrane is largely impenetrable to the majority of substances. The hydrophobic fatty acid chains that make up the phospholipid bilayer prevent water-soluble molecules, such as ions and the majority of biological molecules, from passing through the membrane.
The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipid bilayer reject water-soluble substances, such as glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes, thus they require some aid to traverse the membrane. Non-polar (fat-soluble) molecules can pass across the membrane quite easily. The membrane has a relatively low permeability to polar (water soluble) molecules, with a particularly poor permeability to big polar molecules.
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Which of the following is NOT the role of an organism in a food web?
A
Producer
B
Scavenger
C
Composer
D
Predator
Answer: D
Explanation: A producer is an organism which produces its own food through photosynthesis. A consumer is an organism which does not make its own food but must get its energy from eating a plant or animal.
Composer is not the role of an organism in a food web. So, the correct option is C.
What is Food web?The feeding relationships between various creatures in an environment are depicted graphically in a food web. It demonstrates how energy and nutrients are transferred from one organism to another as it progresses through the various trophic levels, starting with primary producers (like plants) and going up to herbivores, carnivores, and top predators.
Producers are living things like plants or algae that use photosynthesis or chemosynthesis to create their own nourishment. Animals like vultures and hyenas are examples of scavengers; they consume dead and rotting stuff for food. Predators include animals like lions and hawks that go for and kill prey for sustenance.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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What is the effect of pH on catalase activity?
Answer:
➪In humans, catalase works only between pH 7 and pH 11.
➪If the pH level is lower than 7 or higher than 11, the enzyme becomes denaturated and loses its structure.
➪The liver sustains a neutral pH of about 7, which creates the best environment for catalase and other enzymes.
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What happens to the molecules in a gas as it is cooled inside o jar
Answer:
The molecules move more slowly when the given sealed jar of gas is cooled. This happens due to the fact that gaseous particles come closer to each other when the temperature is decreased (on cooling). The number of collisions also decreases upon cooling.
Explanation:
Justin's bedroom window is divided into four parts. In the afternoon, he notices that the sunlight
creates a pattern of light and dark areas on the wall. Describe the interactions occurring between
the light waves and the window.
which arrow denotes the domain of tfiib that facilitates the transition from the closed to open promoter complex?
The arrow that denotes the domain of transcription that facilitates the transition from the closed to open promoter complex is the Promoter Open Complex (POC).
POC is the first step of transcription initiation in which the promoter region of a gene is opened up to allow the binding of the RNA Polymerase enzyme. The POC is formed when the transcription factor proteins bind to the promoter region of the gene and recruit the RNA Polymerase enzyme to the promoter. The transcription factor proteins are responsible for forming the POC by unwinding the DNA and creating an open promoter region where the RNA Polymerase can bind and initiate transcription. This process of opening the promoter region to initiate transcription is essential for gene transcription, and without it, the gene will not be expressed.
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In an HfrxF(-) cross, the pyrE gene enters the recipient in 5 minutes, but as this time point there are no exconjugants that are Met^(+) , Xyl^(+), Tyr^(+), Arg^(+), His^(+), or Mal^(+). The mating is now allowed to proceed for 30 minutes and Pyr^(+) exconjugants are selected. Of the Pyr^(+) cells, 32% are Met^(+), 94% are Xyl^(+), 7% are Tyr^(+), 59% are Arg^(+), 0% are His^(+),and 71% are Mal^(+). What can you conclude about the order of the genes?
From the data, it can be concluded that the order of the genes is PyrE, Met, Xyl, Arg, Mal, and His. This is because the PyrE gene entered the recipient in 5 minutes and it was the only gene present at this time point. Then, after 30 minutes, the Pyr^(+) exconjugants contained Met, Xyl, Arg, Mal, and His genes, meaning that these genes must have been transferred after the PyrE gene. Since the percentages of the Met, Xyl, Arg, Mal, and His genes were below 100%, this indicates that these genes are located further away from the PyrE gene in the donor's chromosome.
Given that the mating was allowed to proceed for 30 minutes and the order of genes is unknown. Based on the frequency of exconjugants with each phenotype, we can infer the order of the genes, i.e. the order in which they are transferred from the donor to the recipient.
The gene for Phe (pyrE) was transferred first, as it took only 5 minutes for the Phe+ exconjugants to arise. Therefore, pyrE is the first gene in the order.
The second gene in the order is the gene for Met, as 32% of the Pyr+ exconjugants are also Met+. This suggests that the gene for Met is downstream of the gene for Phe in the order.
The third gene in the order is the gene for Xyl, as 94% of the Pyr+ exconjugants are also Xyl+. This suggests that the gene for Xyl is downstream of the gene for Met in the order.
The fourth gene in the order is the gene for Tyr, as 7% of the Pyr+ exconjugants are also Tyr+. This suggests that the gene for Tyr is downstream of the gene for Xyl in the order.
The order of the genes can be determined by analyzing the data from the exconjugants. This is done by looking for the percentage of exconjugants that are positive for each gene.
Met: 32% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are Met^(+) so Met is likely the first gene after pyrE.
Xyl: 94% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are Xyl^(+) so Xyl is likely the second gene after pyrE.
Tyr: 7% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are Tyr^(+) so Tyr is likely the third gene after pyrE.
Arg: 59% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are Arg^(+) so Arg is likely the fourth gene after pyrE.
His: 0% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are His^(+) so His is likely the fifth gene after pyrE.
Mal: 71% of the Pyr^(+) exconjugants are Mal^(+) so Mal is likely the sixth gene after pyrE.
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Which of the following contains tracts that connect the cerebellum to a greater variety of other brain regions than do the others?A: middle cerebellar peduncleB: vermisC: inferior cerebellar peduncleD: arbor vitae
Inferior cerebellar peduncle contains the tracts that connect the cerebellum to a greater variety of other brain regions.
The inferior cerebellar peduncles are connected structures comprising essential white matter fiber tracts that also connect the cerebellum to the medulla.
There are four afferent tracts (posterior spinocerebellar, vestibulocerebellar, olivocerebellar, and reticulocerebellar) and one efferent tract in the inferior cerebellar peduncle (the cerebellovestibular tract). The middle cerebellar peduncle is the widest and consists of only pontine nucleus afferent fibers.
The inferior cerebellar peduncle (ICP) is a significant neural tract in the cerebellum and is associated with the synchronization of motion and reflexes; consequently, ICP damage can be associated with poor coordination of mobility, including ataxia.
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An ecosystem is an open system in terms of energy, and an open system in terms of matter
Yes, an ecosystem is an open system in terms of energy and as well as an open system in terms of matter.
What is an ecosystem?An ecosystem is a place where plants, animals, and other organisms interact with the environment, weather, and other variables to form a bubble of life.The coexistence of Abiotic variables, or nonliving components, with biotic components is known as ecosystems. Plants, animals, and other species are considered biotic factors.Open ecosystem:A open system facilitates both matter and energy are exchanged between the system and its environment. All ecosystems are examples of open systems.
For example, energy enters the system in the form of sunlight and leaves in the form of heat. Substances can enter the system in different ways.
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Use the diagram to answer each question.
How do volcanoes form at B?
Volcanoes are formed at the point B as a result of stress cracks due to pressure edges between the two plates and the hot spot in the Earth's mantle.
How does Volcanoes form?
Volcanoes generally form by three ways which are constructive plate boundaries, destructive plate boundaries, and hot spots. The magma in the Earth rises from the hot spots and erupts in the form of lava through the cracks in the Earth's surface which forms volcano. As a plate moves slowly across a hot spot on the Earth's crust, a chain of volcanoes or volcanic islands can form.
The Point B in the diagram represents a boundary between the two tectonic plates because stress cracks form at the pressure edges of the two plates. The volcanoes are formed due to the existence of a hot spot in the Earth's mantle, whereby heat starts to escape. This case is generally visible on the island of Hawaii.
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Scientists have discovered that the inner core of Earth is a solid while the outer core is a liquid. What is the cause of this observation?
The outer core has a higher temperature and more pressure than the inner core
The outer core has a lower temperature and lower pressure than the inner core
The inner core has a lower temperature and higher pressure than the outer core
The inner core has a higher temperature and lower pressure than the outer core
The reason for this observation is because the outer core does have a lower temperature & lower pressure than that of the inner core.
The outer core is where?Above the solid inner core of Earth that is below its mantle is a bubbling made of iron & nickel that is roughly 2,261 km deep. Its outer edge is located 2,890 km (1,800 mi) below the surface of the Earth.
What features does the outer core have?Outside Core The liquid outer core would be about 1300 miles thick (2092 km). The temperatures of the inner and exterior cores, which range from 7200 to 9000°F (4000 to 5000°C), are extraordinarily high and predominantly made of iron and nickel. Mantle: The majority of Planet's volume is found there.
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Help please!
How can you differentiate someone who has quality hypnosis training and someone who does not?
Answer:
a good hypnotherapist should have these qualities:
a strong sense of responsibility.
emotional strength, to deal with clients' personal problems.
communication skills to listen and talk to the client.
the ability to build a trusting relationship with the client, working with them towards what they want to achieve.
If not it is more than likely a scam.
1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.
Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.
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is a non-dividing or dormant stage of the cell cycle. some cells, like mature red blood cells, are always in this stage. cells can also enter this stage if the fail the g1 checkpoint.
A non-dividing or dormant stage of the cell cycle is a period in which a cell is not undergoing cell division, but is instead resting or dormant is called G0 phase. During this stage, a cell does not replicate its DNA and does not divide into two daughter cells.
There are several reasons why a cell might enter this stage, such as in the case of mature red blood cells, which are always in this stage, or if a cell fails the G1 checkpoint. Mature red blood cells are not capable of undergoing cell division and are always in a non-dividing or dormant stage of the cell cycle. These cells are essential for transporting oxygen and other molecules throughout the body, and they are constantly being produced by the body to meet its needs. As such, they remain in this stage of the cell cycle until they are destroyed and replaced by new cells.
In addition to red blood cells, other cells may enter a non-dividing or dormant stage if they fail the G1 checkpoint. This checkpointIs , G0 phase is a part of the cell cycle in which the cell’s DNA is checked for any errors or mutations. If the DNA is not up to standard, the cell may not be allowed to proceed to the S phase of the cell cycle, in which the DNA is replicated, and instead enter a non-dividing or dormant stage.
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Is it G0 phase? explain about it.
oncogenes directly promote cancer by causing unregulated cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations only promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
Oncogenes are genes that are involved in the development of cancer. They have the ability to promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
This results in the formation of a tumor. Tumor suppressor mutations, on the other hand, occur when tumor suppressor genes are either mutated or inactivated. These genes are responsible for regulating cell growth and division, and when they are mutated or inactivated, it can lead to genetic instability, which can eventually lead to tumor formation. Therefore, oncogenes promote cancer directly by causing uncontrolled cell proliferation, while tumor suppressor mutations promote cancer indirectly by causing genetic instability.
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because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience
because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience hypertension.
High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is characterized by blood pressure that is abnormally high. Your blood pressure fluctuates throughout the day as a result of your activities. Having blood pressure readings that are consistently higher than normal may lead to an assessment of high blood pressure (or hypertension).
In the past few decades impoverished areas have indeed been experiencing a significant transition toward raised blood pressure or hypertension only a few have their blood pressure managed.
This rising burden broadens the inequality gap, makes a significant contribution to massive economic hardships for patients and caregivers, and raises costs for the health system, which is already dealing with issues like low health care professional ratios and a lack of access to medicines. Unhealthy diet (high salt and low fruit and vegetable intake) is an established risk factor for hypertension. Emerging risk factors for hypertension entail pollution (air, water, noise, and light), urbanization, and a reduction in green space. Risk factors that necessitate further in-depth research are low birth weight and social and economic determinants of health.
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Refer to the figure associated with this question. The mRNA is smaller than the length of the DNA that codes for it because ________.
The mRNA looks shrunk in front of the length of the DNA that codes for it because post-transcriptional modification eradicates the introns.
As a result, the DNA template releases the RNA molecules created by transcription as single strands. The fact that RNA molecules are significantly shorter than DNA molecules is due to the fact that only a small portion of the DNA is duplicated while making RNA.
A human chromosome's DNA molecule can be up to 250 million nucleotide pairs long; in comparison, the majority of RNA molecules are only a few thousand nucleotides long, and many are even less. The RNA strand loses its hydrogen connection with the DNA template strand, in contrast to a freshly created DNA strand.
The DNA helix reforms and the RNA chain is moved slightly behind the area where the ribonucleotides are being inserted.
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Evaluate these statements about Koch's postulates, which are used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease. Which of them are true? Select all that apply. The microbe must be present in individuals suffering from the disease and absent from healthy individuals. The microbe does not have to be isolated from the experimental animal as long as the disease is present. If organisms from the pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental animal, the disease symptoms should appear. O The microbe must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
Koch's postulates used to establish a causative link between a specific microbe and a specific disease include :
1. Microbe should be present in individuals suffering from disease and absent from healthy peoples.
2. If organisms from pure culture are injected into a healthy experimental organism, the disease symptoms must appear.
3. The microbe should be isolated and grown in pure culture.
A disease is a selected bizarre condition that negatively influences the structure or feature of all or a part of an organism, and that isn't right now because of any external injury.
Symptoms of illness are regularly not at once the end result of contamination, but a set of advanced responses – sickness behavior with the aid of the body – that helps clear infection and sell healing.
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How do the skulls of adult chimpanzees and humans differ?
Adult chimpanzees have heavier brow ridges.
Human and chimp skulls clearly distinguish one another based on facial traits. Heavy brow ridges that reach considerably in front of the head can be found in chimpanzee skulls. The forehead of a human skull, on the other hand, rises immediately from the brows.
When compared to human cranial anatomy, apes often have a more projecting face, a bigger brow ridge, a longer face, larger front teeth than rear teeth, larger jaws, and a foramen magnum that is positioned posteriorly (the site on the skull where the spinal cord connects). The adult human skull grows to the size and allometric form of an infant chimpanzee without permanent teeth at the end of development. It also achieves the allometric shape of an adult chimpanzee. A baby's head must be big at birth to accommodate the brain. This indicates that during childhood, the skull doesn't need to expand as much as the rest of the body.
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