a vehicle start moving at 15m/s. How long will it take to stop at a distance of 15m?​

Explanation:

The box is accelerating along the y-axis at a rate of [tex]+2.5\:\text{m/s}^2[/tex] as well as along the x-axis at a rate of [tex]+5.1\:\text{m/s}^2.[/tex] So the magnitude of the box's total acceleration is given by

[tex]a_T = \sqrt{a_x^2 + a_y^2}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:= \sqrt{(5.1\:\text{m/s}^2)^2 + (2.5\:\text{m/s}^2)^2}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:=5.7\:\text{m/s}^2[/tex]

The direction of the acceleration [tex]\theta[/tex] with respect to the horizontal direction is given by

[tex]\theta = \tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{a_y}{a_x}\right) = \tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{2.5\:\text{m/s}^2}{5.1\:\text{m/s}^2}\right)[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:= 26.1°[/tex]

Answer:

P = -1 D

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use the equation of the constructor

       / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p and q is the distance to the object and the image, respectively

The far view point is at p =∞  and its image must be at q = -100 cm = 1 m, the negative sign is because the image is on the same side as the image  

        [tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{infinity} + \frac{1}{-1}[/tex]

         f = 1 m

         P = 1/f

          P = -1 D

Answer:

In direct-current circuit theory, Norton's theorem is a simplification that can be applied to networks made of linear time-invariant resistances, voltage sources, and current sources. At a pair of terminals of the network, it can be replaced by a current source and a single resistor in parallel.

The velocity of the ball is 100m/s

The first step is to write out the parameters;

The force used to kick the ball is 1000N

The mass of the ball is 0.8 kg

Time is 0.8 seconds

Therefore the velocity can be calculated as follows

F= Mv-mu/t

1000= 0.8(v) - 0.8(0)/0.8

1000= 0.8v- 0.8/0.8

Cross multiply both sides

1000(0.8) = 0.8v

800= 0.8v

divide both sides by the coefficient of v which is 8

800/0.8= 0.8v/0.8

v= 1000m/s

Hence the velocity is 1000m/s

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Answer:

check 2 photos for answer

check 2 photos for answer

Explanation:

Let [tex]\textbf{A} = 6\hat{\textbf{i}} + 4\hat{\textbf{j}} - 2\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex] and [tex]\textbf{B} = 2\hat{\textbf{i}} - 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + 3\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The sum of the two vectors is

[tex]\textbf{A + B} = (6 + 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - 2)\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 + 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex] = 8\hat{\textbf{i}} + 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + \hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The difference between the two vectors can be written as

[tex]\textbf{A - B} = (6 - 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - (-2))\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 - 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex]= 4\hat{\textbf{i}} + 6\hat{\textbf{j}} - 5\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

Answer:

Florida is tropical, with a significant rainy seson

Answer:

convex mirror

.....................

Answer:

convex mirror..........

I'm not very good at this material. I'll try it, but if I were you, I wouldn't bet money on these answers.

"Isobaric" means constant pressure. So those are the horizontal lines, where every point on the line is at the same pressure. Those are the processes 1>2 and 3>4 .

I'm going around and around in my mind with the other labels, and I can't decide. So I'm afraid I can't answer any more of them ... they might be wrong.

Answer:

1 -> 2 & 3 -> 4: Isobaric process

4 -> 1: Work done BY the system

2 -> 3: Work done ON the system

W(total): W = 0J

Explanation:

The two horizontal lines (1 -> 2 & 3 -> 4) are "Isobaric" since isobaric processes take place at constant pressure. I believe 4 -> 1 is "Work done BY the system" since pressure increases when there is an increase of thermal energy, in other words, the system is absorbing heat. This is why the volume increases from 1 -> 2 after the system has absorbed heat in 4 -> 1. Following the directions of the arrows, 2 -> 3 would be "Work done ON the system" since pressure is DECREASING, meaning temperature is also exiting the system. That's why the next step (3 -> 4) shows a decrease in volume. This model depicts a process that has a W(total) of 0 J because this is a cycle.

I hope this helps :))

When the source is moving away from the observer the velocity of the source is added to the speed of light. This increases the value of the denominator, decreasing the value of the observed frequency. Frequency corresponds to pitch or tone; a lower observed frequency will result in a lower observed pitch.

Answer:

The point of contraflexure (PoC) occurs where bending is zero and at the point of change between positive and negative (or between compression and tension). In a beam that is flexing (or bending), the point where there is zero bending moment is called the point of contraflexure.

Answer:

Explanation:

Here's the info we have:

initial velocity is 20 m/s;

final velocity is our unknown;

displacement is -10.2 m; and

acceleration due to gravity is -9.8 m/s/s. Using the one-dimensional equation

v² = v₀² + 2aΔx and filling in accordingly to solve for v:

[tex]v=\sqrt{(20)^2+2(-9.8)(-10.2)}[/tex]  Rounding to the correct number of sig fig's to simplify:

[tex]v=\sqrt{400+2.0*10^2}[/tex] to get

v = [tex]\sqrt{600}=20\frac{m}{s}[/tex] If you don't round like that, the velocity could be 24, or it could also be 24.5 depending on how your class is paying attention to sig figs or if you are at all.

So either 20 m/s or 24 m/s

Answer:

b. The heavier one reaches the bottom first.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The answer is B the heavier item has more g force pushing it making it roll faster reaching the bottom of the ramp first.

Answer:

The answer is "0.00466 N".

Explanation:

[tex]F=(B \times i) L\\\\[/tex]

therefore the smaller side is parallel to magnetic field  

[tex]\therefore \\\\F= B i L\ \sin\ 'o'=0 \ N[/tex]

calculating the force on the layer side:

[tex]\to F=0.15 \times 1.7 \times 0.0183 \times \sin 90^{\circ}=0.00466\ N\\\\[/tex]

Therefore [tex]F_o[/tex] the net force on the  rectangular loop [tex]= 0.00466 \ N[/tex]

We have that the spring constant is mathematically given as

[tex]k=2.37*10^{11}N/m[/tex]

Generally, the equation for angular velocity is mathematically given by

[tex]\omega=\sqrt{k}{m}[/tex]

Where

k=spring constant

And

[tex]\omega =\frac{2\pi}{T}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]\frac{2\pi}{T}=\sqrt{k}{n}[/tex]

Hence giving spring constant k

[tex]k=m((\frac{2 \pi}{T})^2[/tex]

Generally

Mass of earth [tex]m=5.97*10^{24}[/tex]

Period for on complete resolution of Earth around the Sun

[tex]T=365 days[/tex]

[tex]T=365*24*3600[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]k=(5.97*10^{24})((\frac{2 \pi}{365*24*3600})^2[/tex]

[tex]k=2.37*10^{11}N/m[/tex]

In conclusion

The effective spring constant of this simple harmonic motion is

[tex]k=2.37*10^{11}N/m[/tex]

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Explanation:

some thing inside a resistor

Answer:

Distance from sun to Neptune = 4.495E9 km

Time for light to travel = 4.495E9 / 3E5 sec = 14,980 sec

That is from sun to Neptune time fof light = 250 min

Time for light to travel from sun to earth is about 8 min

So the time from Neptune would be 242 to 258 min depending on position of Neptune - Note that Neptune is about 30X as far from the sun as earth and

250 min / 8 min is roughly 30

The uniform motion of kinematics allows us to find the time it takes for light to arrive from Neptune to Earth, which varies between:

          t₁ = 1.45 10⁴ s and t₂₂= 1.55 10⁴ s

depending on the relative distance of the two planets

given parameters

to find

They  velocit of an electromagnetic wave is constant, so we can use the uniform motion relationships

             v = d / t

             t = d / v

where v is the speed of light, d the distance and y time, in this case the speed of the wave is the speed of light (v = c)

We look in the tables for the distances and the rotation periods around the sun

                           distance ( m)         period (s)

Sun Neptunium     4.50 10¹²             5.2 10⁹

Sun - Earth             1.5    10¹¹              3.2 10⁷

With the data of the period it is observed that the rotation of Neptune is much greater than that of Eart rotation around the sun, for which we will assume that Neptunium is fixed in space and the Earth may be in its aphelion or perihelion, maximum approach o away distance from the sun, consequently we calculate the time for the two cases:

Maximum approach

positions relative distance from the dos Plantetas is

         Δd = [tex]x_{Neptuno - Sum} - x_{Earth - Sum}[/tex]d  

         Δd = 4.50 10¹²  - 1.5 10¹¹

         Δd = 43.5 10¹¹ m

the time it takes for Neptune's light to reach Earth is

        Δt = [tex]\frac{ 43.5 \ 10^{11} }{3 \ 10^8}[/tex]  

        Δt = 14.5 10³ s

        Δt = 1.45 10⁴ s

We reduce to hours

        Δt = 1.45 10⁴ s (1 h / 3600 s) = 4.03 h

Maximum away

         Δd = [tex]x_{Neptune - Sum} + x_{Neptune-Sum}[/tex]  

         Δd = 4.50 10¹² + 1.5 10¹¹

         Δd = 46.5 10¹¹

The time is

         Δt = [tex]\frac{46.5 \ 10^{11}}{ 3 \ 10^8}[/tex]  

         Δt = 15.5 10³

         Δt = 1.55 10⁴ s

We reduce to hours

         Δt = 1.55 10⁴ s (1 h / 3600 s) = 4.31 h

In conclusion, the time it takes for light to arrive from Neptune to Earth varies between:

          t₁ = 1.45 10⁴ s and t₂ = 1.55 10⁴ s

depending on the relative distance of the two plants

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Answer:

6

Explanation

Any numbers in scientific notation are considered significant. For example, 4.300 x 10-4 has 4 significant figures.

Answer From Gauth Math

(A) The pressure will be greater than 10% overpressure limit.

(B) The final pressure will be "582.915 kPa".

Given:

Volume,

Initial pressure,

Initial temperature,

            [tex]= 259 \ K[/tex]

Final temperature,

(B)

Number of moles,

→ [tex]n = (\frac{P_o V}{RT_o} )[/tex]

then,

The final absolute pressure,

→ [tex]P = \frac{nRT}{V}[/tex]

      [tex]= (\frac{P_o V}{RT_o} )(\frac{RT}{V} )[/tex]

      [tex]=(\frac{T}{T_o} )P_o[/tex]

      [tex]= (\frac{305}{259} )\times 495[/tex]

      [tex]= 582.915 \ kPa[/tex]

Thus the above approach is correct.

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Answer:

0.5849Weber

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the magnetic flus is expressed as:

[tex]\phi = BAcos \theta[/tex]

Given

The magnitude of the magnetic field B = 3.35T

Area of the loop = πr² = 3.14(0.24)² = 0.180864m²

angle of the wire loop θ = 15.1°

Substitute the given values into the formula:

[tex]\phi = 3.35(0.180864)cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944(0.9655)\\\phi = 0.5849Wb[/tex]

Hence the magnetic flux Φ through the loop is 0.5849Weber

The tension in the rope is doing a work of 1662.544 joules as the sled moves 2.1 meters along the hill.

In this case, we need to construct the Free Body Diagram of the sled-victim System in order to determine what Forces are doing Work. Then, we construct the respective Energy equation by Newton's Laws of Motion, Work-Energy Theorem and definition of Work.

Given that system experiments an uniform Acceleration, we must solve the resulting model for the work done by the Tension in the rope.

From the Free Body Diagram (see image attached), we see that both Weight of the sled and Friction between sled and snow are doing work in favor of gravity, whereas Tension forces is against gravity. Normal force is not doing work as its direction is perpendicular to the direction of motion. The energy equation of this system is:

[tex]-W_{T} + \mu\cdot m\cdot g \cdot s\cdot \cos \theta + m\cdot g\cdot s\cdot \sin \theta = m\cdot a\cdot s[/tex] (1)

Where:

[tex]W_{T}[/tex] - Work done by tension, in joules.

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass of the sled-victim system, in kilograms.

[tex]\mu[/tex] - Coefficient of kinetic friction, no unit.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational acceleration, in meters per square second.

[tex]s[/tex] - Travelled distance, in meters.

[tex]\theta[/tex] - Slope angle, in sexagesimal degrees.

[tex]a[/tex] - Net acceleration of the sled-victim system, in meters per square second.

If we know that [tex]\mu = 0.100[/tex], [tex]m = 55.3\,kg[/tex], [tex]g = 10\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], [tex]s = 2.1\,m[/tex], [tex]\theta = 79.6^{\circ}[/tex] and [tex]a = -4.3\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], then the work done by the tension in the rope is:

[tex]-W_{T} + \mu\cdot m\cdot g \cdot s\cdot \cos \theta + m\cdot g\cdot s\cdot \sin \theta = m\cdot a\cdot s[/tex]

[tex]W_{T} = \mu\cdot m\cdot g \cdot s\cdot \cos \theta + m\cdot g\cdot s\cdot \sin \theta -m\cdot a\cdot s[/tex]

[tex]W_{T} = (0.100)\cdot \left(55.3\,kg\right)\cdot \left(10\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)\cdot (2.1\,m)\cdot \cos 79.6^{\circ} + \left(55.3\,kg\right)\cdot \left(10\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)\cdot (2.1\,m)\cdot \sin 79.6^{\circ} - (55.3\,kg)\cdot \left(-4.3\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (2.1\,m)[/tex]

[tex]W_{T} = 1662.544\,J[/tex]

The tension in the rope is doing a work of 1662.544 joules as the sled moves 2.1 meters along the hill.

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The velocity of B after the collision is obtained as -2.6 m/s.

Now we now that the  principle of conservation of momentum states that the momentum before collision is equal to the momentum after collision.

Thus;

(-2.00kgm/s) + ( -5.00kgm/s) = ( 4.00kg * 2.50 m/s) + ( 6.50kg * v)

-7 = 10 + 6.5v

-7 - 10 = 6.5v

v = -7 - 10 /6.5

v = -2.6 m/s

Hence, the velocity of B after the collision is obtained as -2.6 m/s.

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#SPJ1

Answer:

Following are the response to the given question:

Explanation:

It's being used to measure the amount of light absorbed after traveling through a test tube (the amount of solar radiation received). For several quantitative estimations, this technique is widely employed. Spectrometer and Spectrometer were two devices that are used together to light intensity and light intensity.

It creates and diffuses phosphorescent light into the selected frequency, while the Spectrometer measures the strength of attenuation by the sample solution.

Diffraction beams or prisms are being used to convert polychromatic illumination into monochrome light.

Afterward, the sunlight has a certain hue. Once it reaches the specimen cuvette, it begins absorption. It falls on a sensor that transforms its intensity into such an electronic current.

Here are some ways to fill in such gaps:

In order to reach the specimen cuvette, the light from the light source must be routed via an aperture in order to be isolated by either a diffraction pattern. Light travels to the detector, which detects its intensity.

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave in terms of the electric field is 0.00298 W/m² and the intensity of the electromagnetic wave in terms of the magnetic field is 1.193x10⁻⁶  W/m².

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave is related to the electric field as well as to the magnetic field.    

a) Intensity of the electromagnetic wave for the electromagnetic field.

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave (I) in terms of the electromagnetic field is given by:

[tex] I = \frac{E^{2}*c*\epsilon_{0}}{2} [/tex]   (1)

Where:

c: is the speed of light = 3.00*10⁸ m/s  

E: is the magnitude of the electric field = 1.5 V/m

ε₀: is the permittivity of free space = 8.85*10⁻¹² C²/Nm²

Hence, the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (eq 1) is:

[tex] I = \frac{(1.5 V/m)^{2}*3.00 \cdot 10^{8} m/s*8.85 \cdot 10^{-12} C^{2}/(N*m^{2})}{2} = 0.00298 W/m^{2} [/tex]                                                                                          

b) Intensity of the electromagnetic wave for the magnetic field

We can calculate the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (I) in terms of the magnetic field with the following equation:

[tex] I = \frac{cB^{2}}{2\mu_{0}} [/tex]   (2)

Where:

B: is the magnitude of the magnetic field = 10⁻¹⁰ T

μ₀: is the vacuum permeability = 4π*10⁻⁷ m*T/A

Therefore, the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (eq 2) is:

[tex] I = \frac{3.00 \cdot 10^{8} m/s*(1\cdot 10^{-10} m*T/A)^{2}}{2*4\pi \cdot 10^{-7} T/A} = 1.193 \cdot 10^{-6} W/m^{2} [/tex]

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I hope it helps you!

The horizontal force applied to the lower block is approximately 1,420.85 Newtons

The known parameters are;

The mass of the block, m₁ = 400 kg, weight, W₁ = 3,924 N

The mass of the block resting on the first block, m₂ = 100 kg, weight, W₂ = 981 N

The length of the string attached to the block, W₂, l = 6 m

The horizontal distance from the point of attachment of the second block to the block W₂, x = 5 m

The coefficient of friction between the surfaces, μ = 0.25

Let T represent the tension in the string

The upward force on W₂ due to the string = T × sin(θ)

The normal force of W₁ on W₂, N₂ = W₂ - T × sin(θ)

The tension in the string, T = N₂ × μ × cos(θ)

∴ T = (W₂ - T × sin(θ)) × μ × cos(θ)

sin(θ) = √(6² - 5²)/6

cos(θ) = 5/6

∴ T = (981 - T × √(6² - 5²)/6) × 0.25 × 5/6

Solving, we get;

T ≈ 183.27 N

The normal reaction on W₂, N₂ = T/(μ × cos(θ))

∴ N₂ = 183.27/(0.25 × 5/6) = 879.7

N₂ ≈ 879.7 N

The friction force, [tex]F_{f2}[/tex] = N₂ × μ

∴ [tex]F_{f2}[/tex] = 879.7 N × 0.25 = 219.925 N

The total normal reaction on the ground, [tex]\mathbf{N_T}[/tex] = W₁ + N₂

[tex]N_T[/tex] = 3,924 N + 879.7 N = 4,803.7 N

The friction force, on the ground [tex]\mathbf{F_T}[/tex] = [tex]\mathbf{N_T}[/tex] × μ

∴  [tex]F_T[/tex] = 4,803.7 N × 0.25 = 1,200.925 N

The horizontal force applied to the lower block, P = [tex]\mathbf{F_T}[/tex] + [tex]\mathbf{F_{f2}}[/tex]

Therefore;

P = 1,200.925 N + 219.925 N = 1,420.85 N

The horizontal force applied to the lower block, P ≈ 1,420.85 N

Answer:

PlROCA

Explanation:

The rate of energy radiated by the man is 3.86 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex]  J/s. [tex]m^{2}[/tex].

The amount of energy radiated by an object majorly depends on the area of its surface and its temperature. The is well explained in the Stefan-Boltzmann's law which states that:

Q(t) = Aeσ[tex]T^{4}[/tex]

where: Q is the quantity of heat radiated, A is the surface area of the object, e is the emmisivity of the object, σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature of the object.

To determine the rate of energy radiated by the man in the given question;

[tex]\frac{Q(t)}{T^{4} }[/tex] = Aeσ

But A = 1.7 m², e = 0.4 and σ = 5.67 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex] J/s.

So that;

[tex]\frac{Q(t)}{T^{4} }[/tex] = 1.7 * 0.4 * 5.67 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex]

     = 3.8556 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex]

     = 3.86 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex]  J/s. [tex]m^{2}[/tex]

Thus, the rate of energy radiated by the man is 3.86 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex]  J/s. [tex]m^{2}[/tex].

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Answer:

T1 = 736.6 N, T2 = 193.5 N

Explanation:

W = 76 N

The tension is T1 and T2.

By use of Lami's theorem

[tex]\frac{T_1}{Sin100}=\frac{T_2}{Sin165}=\frac{W}{Sin 95}\\\\So, \\\\T_1 = \frac{76\times 9.8\times Sin 100}{Sin 95} = 736.6 N \\And\\T_2 = \frac{76\times 9.8\times Sin 165}{Sin 95} = 193.5 N \\[/tex]