A typical ceiling fan running at high speed has an airflow of about 2.00 ✕ 103 ft3/min, meaning that about 2.00 ✕ 103 cubic feet of air move over the fan blades each minute.

Determine the fan's airflow in m3/s.

Answer:

0 N

Explanation:

This is a trick question, the mass of the wrench would be 0 due to it being in space and has no gravitational pull to weight it down. And since acceleration is defined as the rate and change of velocity with no respect of time and the wrench is moving at a constant velocity, that means the velocity is 0. and since F = m*a it would be F = 0 * 0 = 0 N

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

Assume that the energy lost was entirely due to friction and that the total length of the PVC pipe is 1 meter. Use this length to compute the average force of friction (for this calculation, you may neglect uncertainties).

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

Solution :

Given that :

The predicted range is 0.3503 m

Time of the fall is :

[tex]$t=\sqrt{\frac{2H}{g}}$[/tex]

[tex]v_1t= 0.35[/tex]  ...........(i)

[tex]v_0t= 1.09[/tex]  ...........(ii)

Dividing the equation (ii) by (i)

[tex]$\frac{v_0t}{v_1t}=\frac{1.09}{035} = 3.11$[/tex]

∴ [tex]v_0=3.11 \ v_1[/tex]

Now loss of energy  = change in the kinetic energy

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} m [v_0^2-v_1^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} \times (16.3 \times 10^{-3}) \times [v_0^2-\left(\frac{v_0}{3.11}\right)^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

If f is average friction force, then

(f)(L) = W

(f) (1) = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

(f)  = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

The Average force of friction is ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Given data:

Predicted range ( v₁t ) = 0.3503 m

Actual range ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

mass = 16.3 g

First step : Determine the value of  V₀

[tex]t = \sqrt{\frac{2H}{g} }[/tex]    ,    v₁t  =  0.3503 ,    ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

To obtain the value of  V₀  

Divide ( v₀t ) by ( v₁t )  =  1.09 / 0.3503 = 3.11 v₁

∴ V₀ = 3.11 v₁

Next step : Determine the average force of friction ( f )

given that loss of energy results in a change in kinetic energy

W = [tex]\frac{1}{2} m ( vo^{2} - v1^{2} )[/tex]

    = 1/2 * 16.3 * 10⁻³ * [ v₀² - [tex](\frac{v_{0} }{3.11} )^{2}[/tex] ]

∴ W = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Average force of friction = W / Actual length

                                         = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀² / 1  

∴ Average force of friction ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Hence we can conclude that the average force of friction is 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

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Your question has some missing data below are the missing data related to your question

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

OPTION C is the correct answer.

Answer:

The Sum of mass and energy is always conserved in a nuclear reaction. Mass changes to energy, but the total amount of mass and energy combined remains the same

Explanation:

Every single radioactive decay, every single nuclear collision, every single nuclear reaction will conserve mass number and charge.

Answer: The energy released as thermal energy is 6.5 J

Explanation:

Energy stored by the spider when it relaxes is given by:

[tex]E_o=\text{Resilience}\times \text{Work}[/tex]

We are given:

Resilience = 0.35

Work done = 10.0 J

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]E_o=0.35\times 10\\\\E_o=3.5J[/tex]

Energy released at thermal energy is the difference between the work done and the energy it takes to relaxes, which is given by the equation:

[tex]E_T=\text{Work done}-E_o[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]E_T=(10-3.5)=6.5J[/tex]

Hence, the energy released as thermal energy is 6.5 J

The energy released as thermal energy when 10 J of work is done to stretch silk will be 6.5 J

Thermal energy refers to the energy contained within a system that is responsible for its temperature. Heat is the flow of thermal energy.

Energy stored by the spider when it relaxes is given by:

[tex]\rm E_o=Resilience \ \times Work[/tex]

We are given:

Resilience = 0.35

Work done = 10.0 J

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\rm E_o=0.35\times 10[/tex]

[tex]E_o=3.5\ J[/tex]

Energy released at thermal energy is the difference between the work done and the energy it takes to relaxes, which is given by the equation:

[tex]E_T=\rm Work done -E_o[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]E_T=(10-3.5)=6.5\ J[/tex]

Hence, the energy released as thermal energy is 6.5 J

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Answer:

C. 6.9 watts

Explanation:

Power = work/time

if work = force×distance...

Then... power= (force×distance)/time

Power = (20×12)/35

= 6.9 watts

Answer:

below

Explanation:

from P= I * V

v = p/I

v = 10/0.2

v = 50 volts

Answer:

For (a): The chemical shift is [tex]2.08\delta[/tex]

For (b): The chemical shift is [tex]9.85\delta[/tex]

For (c): The chemical shift is [tex]7.5\delta[/tex]

Explanation:

To calculate the chemical shift, we use the equation:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{\text{Peak position (in Hz)}}{\text{Spectrometer frequency (in MHz)}}[/tex]

Given value of spectrometer frequency = 200 MHz

Given peak position = 416 Hz

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{416Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=2.08\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.97\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.97\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=9.85\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.50\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.50\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=7.5\delta[/tex]

Answer:

length =  7*10^(-8)km

width = 4.666*10^(-8) km

Explanation:

We know that:

1 μm = 1*10^(-6) m

and

1km = 1*10^3 m

or

1m = 1*10^(-3) km

if we replace the meter in the first equation, we get:

1 μm = 1*10^(-6)*1*10^(-3) km

1 μm = 1*10^(-6 - 3)km

1 μm = 1*10^(-9)km

Now with this relationship we can transform our measures:

Length: 70 μm is 70 times 1*10^(-9)km, or:

L = 70*1*10^(-9)km = 7*10^(-8)km

And for width, we have 47.66um, this is 46.66 times 1*10^(-9)km, or:

W = 46.66*1*10^(-9)km = 4.666*10^(-8) km

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Because they both received the same temperature

Answer:

The period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Explanation:

Given;

initial value of the magnetic field, B₁ = 0.276 T

number of turns of the solenoid, N = 517 turns

diameter of the solenoid, d = 10.5 cm = 0.105 m

induced emf, = 12.6 kV = 12,600 V

when the field becomes zero, then the final magnetic field value, B₂ = 0

The induced emf is given by Faraday's law;

[tex]emf = -\frac{NA\Delta B}{t} \\\\emf = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{t} \\\\t = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{emf}\\\\t = \frac{NA (B_1 -B_2)}{emf}\\\\where;\\\\t \ is \ the \ time \ when \ B = 0 \ \ (i.e\ B_2 = 0)\\\\A \ is \ the \ area \ of \ the \ coil\\\\A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} = \frac{\pi (0.105)^2}{4} = 0.00866 \ m^2\\\\t= \frac{(517) \times (0.00866)\times (0.276 -0)}{12,600}\\\\t = 9.81 \times 10^{-5} \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Answer:

a)   μ = 0.0136, b)   F = 22.8 N

Explanation:

This exercise must be solved in parts. Let's start by using conservation of moment.

a) We define a system formed by the downward and the box, therefore the forces during the collision are internal and the momentum is conserved

initial instant. Before the crash

        p₀ = m v₀

final instant. After inelastic shock

        p_f = (m + M) v

the moment is preserved

        p₀ = p_f

        m v₀ = (m + M) v

        v = [tex]\frac{m}{m + M} \ v_o[/tex]

We look for the speed of the block with the bullet inside

        v = [tex]\frac{0.00325}{0.00325 + 2.50 } \ 345[/tex]

        v = 0.448 m / s

Now we use the relationship between work and kinetic energy for the block with the bullet

in this journey the force that acts is the friction

         W = ΔK

          W = ½ (m + M) [tex]v_f^2[/tex]  - ½ (m + M) v₀²

the final speed of the block is zero

the work between the friction force and the displacement is negative, because the friction always opposes the displacement

         W = - fr x

we substitute

           - fr x = 0 - ½ (m + M) vo²

           fr = ½ (m + M) v₀² / x

the friction force is

          fr = μ N

          μ = fr / N

equilibrium condition

          N - W = 0

          N = W

          N = (m + M) g

we substitute

         μ = ½ v₀² / x g

we calculate

          μ = ½ 0.448 ^ 2 / 0.75 9.8

          μ = 0.0136

b) Let's use the relationship between work and the variation of the kinetic energy of the block

          W = ΔK

initial block velocity is zero vo = 0

         F x₁ = ½ M v² - 0

         F = [tex]\frac{1}{2} M \frac{x}{y} \frac{v^2}{x1}[/tex]

         F = ½ 2.50 0.448² / 0.0110

         F = 22.8 N

Answer:

66,7 seconds

Explanation:

the formula for height/distance is : S=v.t

Answer:

(c) at rest

Explanation:

Given

See attachment for the distance time graph

Required

What does the graph illustrate?

From the graph, we can see that the line of distance is a horizontal line.

This suggests that a time increases, the distance remains unchanged

When distance remains unchanged over time, then it means the object is at rest.

Hence, (c) is correct

By George, you've nailed it, Stacy !

That's a fact, uh huh.

Truer words were never written.

Your statement is one of unquestionable veracity.

The pure truthiness of it cannot be denied.

Was there a question you wanted to ask ?

From the water whole water cycle starts again.

Answer:

Sorry I don't know the answer

I= 0.39 A

OPTION B is the correct answer.

Answer:

a) F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]  

b) attached below

c) 0.037 m/s

Explanation:

a) Determine the magnetic "drag" force acting  at the moment

speed = v

first step: determine current in the loop

I = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2}{16pl} B lv[/tex]   ----- ( 1 )

given that the current will induce force on the three sides of the loop found in the magnetic field

forces on vertical sides = + opposite

we will cancel out

hence equation 1 becomes

F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]   ( according to Lenz law we can say that the direction of force is upwards and this force will slow down the decrease in flux )

b) Determine the formula for Vt

attached below

c) Find Vt

given :

B = 0.80 T

density of copper = 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3

resistivity of copper = 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm

∴ Vt = 16 ( 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3 ) ( 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm ) ( 9.8 m/s^2 ) / ( 0.08 T)^2

       = 0.037 m/s

Answer:

To find out the number of atoms: MULTIPLY all the SUBSCRIPTS in the molecule by the COEFFICIENT. (This will give you the number of atoms of each element.)

Explanation:

Answer:

564

Explanation:

Answer:

the answer is option B because opposit sides of the magnets attract each other

Answer:

the man has returned from his trip

Answer:

just did by typing this lol

Answer:

The total momentum of the cars before the collision is 61,000 kg.m/s

The total momentum of the cars after the collision is 61,000 kg.m/s

The velocity of the cars after the collision is 27.727 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the first car, m₁ = 1000 kg

initial velocity of the car, u₁ = 25 m/s

mass of the second car, m₂ = 1200 kg

initial velocity of the second car, u₂ = 30 m/s

The common velocity of the cars after collision = v

The total momentum of the cars before collision is calculated as;

P₁ = m₁u₁  +  m₂u₂

P₁ = (1000 x 25)  +  (1200 x 30)

P₁ = 61,000 kg.m/s

The total momentum of the cars after collision is calculated as;

P₂ = m₁v + m₂v

where;

v    is the common velocities of the cars after collision since they stick together.

P₂ = v(m₁ + m₂)

To determine "v" apply the principle of conservation of linear momentum for inelastic collision.

m₁u₁  +  m₂u₂  = v(m₁  + m₂)

(1000 x 25)  +  (1200 x 30) = v(1000 + 1200)

61,000 = 2,200v

v = 61,000/2,200

v = 27.727 m/s

The total momentum after collsion = v(m₁ + m₂)

                                                         = 27.727(1000 + 1200)

                                                          = 61,000 kg.m/s

Thus, momentum before and after collsion are equal.

Answer:

1:Rotation

2:Axis

3:Aphelion

4:orbit

Explanation:

Movement:refers to the changing in the lights whether it be a change in intensity, color or direction of origin.

Answer:

c) 2.02 x 10^16 nuclei

Explanation:

The isotope decay of an atom follows the equation:

ln[A] = -kt + ln[A]₀

Where [A] is the amount of the isotope after time t, k is decay constant, [A]₀ is the initial amount of the isotope

[A] = Our incognite

k is constant decay:

k = ln 2 / Half-life

k = ln 2 / 4.96 x 10^3 s

k = 1.40x10⁻⁴s⁻¹

t is time = 1.98 x 10^4 s

[A]₀ = 3.21 x 10^17 nuclei

ln[A] = -1.40x10⁻⁴s⁻¹*1.98 x 10^4 s + ln[3.21 x 10^17 nuclei]

ln[A] = 37.538

[A] = 2.01x10¹⁶ nuclei remain ≈

Answer:

E.l soni.do es un.a sensac.ión, en el órg.ano del oído, prod.ucida por el movimie/nto ondu>latorio de un m/edio elástico (normal/mente el aire), debi.do a ra.pidísimos ca/mbios de pre.sión, generado/s por el movimiento vibrat.orio d.e un cuerpo sonoro. ... /El ruido se consid/era a to/do sonid.o / o no de.seado.

Explanation:

Answer:

physical

PLEASE MARK ME AS A BRAINLIEST

Answer: Mathematical

Explanation: I took the quiz