A small airplane flies 750 miles with an average speed of 250 miles per hour. 1.75 hours after the plane leaves, a Boeing 747 leaves from the same point. Both planes arrive at the same time; what was the average speed of the 747?

Answer:

D

The missing piece (triangle) is facing right side up but the red triangle has its point facing left

TO get it facing up, turn it by 90 degrees clockwise

Answer:

a.

Step-by-step explanation:

The p-value is a measurement of the likelihood that a difference observed is due to a random chance or a sampling error. In an alternative way, the p-value of a study represents the probability or area under distribution for obtaining more radical outcomes whenever the null hypothesis is true.

Any observable change is deemed to be addressed by sampling variability if the P-value is greater than the selected alpha level. A statistical test will nearly always show a substantial difference with a suitably big sample unless there is no impact at all when the effect size is exactly zero.

As a result, simply reporting the P-value alone for a study is insufficient to fully validate the results and findings of scientific publications.

Answer:

Hence the distribution will be between 600 hours and 900 hours is 74.9%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]{ \tt{ \frac{1}{24} m - \frac{2}{3} = \frac{3}{4} }} \\ \\ { \tt{ \frac{1}{24} m = \frac{17}{12} }} \\ m = 34[/tex]

Step 1: Find a common denominator

---The common denominator here is 24. So, we need to transform all of the fractions to have a denominator of 24.

1/24m - 16/24 = 18/24

Step 2: Solve

1/24m - 16/24 = 18/24

1/24m = 34/24

m = 34/24 x 24/1

m = 34

Hope this helps!

Answer:

[tex]\angle P[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\triangle PRQ = \triangle TSU = 90^o[/tex]

[tex]PQ = 20[/tex]     [tex]QR = 16[/tex]    [tex]PR = 12[/tex]

[tex]ST = 30[/tex]       [tex]TU = 34[/tex]    [tex]SU = 16[/tex]

See attachment

Required

Which sine of angle is equivalent to [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex]

Considering [tex]\triangle PQR[/tex]

We have:

[tex]\sin(P) = \frac{QR}{PQ}[/tex] --- i.e. opposite/hypotenuse

So, we have:

[tex]\sin(P) = \frac{16}{20}[/tex]

Divide by 4

[tex]\sin(P) = \frac{4}{5}[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]\angle P[/tex] is correct

Answer:

A or <P

Step-by-step explanation:

on edge 2021

Answer:

i) 0.1969 = 19.69% probability that there will be no defective fuse.

ii) 0.8031 = 80.31% probability that there will be at least one defective fuse.

iii) 0.2759 = 27.59% probability that there will be exactly two defective fuses.

iv) 0.5443 = 54.43% probability that there will be at most one defective fuse.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each fuse, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a fuse being defective is independent of any other fuse, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

15% are defective.

This means that [tex]p = 0.15[/tex]

We also have:

[tex]n = 10[/tex]

(i) No defective fuse

This is [tex]P(X = 0)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{10} = 0.1969[/tex]

0.1969 = 19.69% probability that there will be no defective fuse.

(ii) At least one defective fuse

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

We already have P(X = 0) = 0.1969, so:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - 0.1969 = 0.8031[/tex]

0.8031 = 80.31% probability that there will be at least one defective fuse.

(iii) Exactly two defective fuses

This is P(X = 2). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.15)^{2}.(0.85)^{8} = 0.2759[/tex]

0.2759 = 27.59% probability that there will be exactly two defective fuses.

(iv) At most one defective fuse

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{10} = 0.1969[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{9} = 0.3474[/tex]

Then

[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.1969 + 0.3474 = 0.5443[/tex]

0.5443 = 54.43% probability that there will be at most one defective fuse.

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Scale factor of 4

CD = 3

3 · 4 = 12

Length of C'D' is 12 units

Answer:

12 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The original segment CD = 3 units

Scale factor is 4.

3 x 4 = 12

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the arrows from the picture tells us that TV is parallel to RS

since TS is a transversal that cuts the 2 parallel lines TV and RS than ∠S =x

(alternate interior angles)

sum of angles in a Δ is 180° so x+x+2x = 180°, 4x =180°, x= 45°

2x = 45*2 = 90°

Answer:

251.5 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

1 m = 100 cm

1 cm = 10 mm

2 m + 50 cm + 15 mm =

= 2 m * (100 cm)/m + 50 cm + 15 mm * (1 cm)/(10 mm)

= 200 cm + 50 cm + 1.5 cm

= 251.5 cm

Answer:

20'×15 in 54 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The Best as a pool should be rectangular in shape and 54inches deep for safety of life's

The volume of the rectangular pool that is 20' x 15' in 54 inches deep is largest.

The volume of the cylinder is the product of the height, pie, and square of the radius.

The volume of the cylinder = [tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]h

The volume of the cylindrical pool that has a 3.3 m radius and is 1.8 m deep is;

=  [tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]h

[tex]= 3.14 (3.3)^2 (1.8)\\\\= 61.55 m^3[/tex]

The volume of the rectangular pool that is 20' x 15' in 54 inches deep ;

V = 20 x 15 x 54

V = 16,200 cubic meter.

The volume of the rectangular pool that is 20' x 15' in 54 inches deep is largest.

Learn more about volume;

https://brainly.com/question/1578538

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Answer:

a) Mean blood pressure for people in China, which has mean 128 and standard deviation 23.

b) 0.3821 = 38.21% probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 135 mmHg or more.

c) 0.714 = 71.4% probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 141 mmHg or less.

d) 0.0851 = 8.51% probability that a person in China has blood pressure between 120 and 125 mmHg.

e) Since |Z| = 0.3 < 2, it is not unusual for a person in China to have a blood pressure of 135 mmHg.

f) 90% of all people in China have a blood pressure of less than 157.44 mmHg.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

The mean blood pressure for people in China is 128 mmHg with a standard deviation of 23 mmHg

This means that [tex]\mu = 128, \sigma = 23[/tex]

a.) State the random variable.

Mean blood pressure for people in China, which has mean 128 and standard deviation 23.

b.) Find the probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 135 mmHg or more.

This is 1 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 135, so:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{135 - 128}{23}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.3[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.3[/tex] has a p-value of 0.6179.

1 - 0.6179 = 0.3821

0.3821 = 38.21% probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 135 mmHg or more.

c.) Find the probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 141 mmHg or less.

This is the p-value of Z when X = 141, so:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{141 - 128}{23}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.565[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.565[/tex] has a p-value of 0.7140.

0.714 = 71.4% probability that a person in China has blood pressure of 141 mmHg or less.

d.) Find the probability that a person in China has blood pressure between 120 and 125 mmHg.

This is the p-value of Z when X = 125 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 120, so:

X = 125

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{125 - 128}{23}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.13[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.13[/tex] has a p-value of 0.4483.

X = 120

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{120 - 128}{23}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.35[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.35[/tex] has a p-value of 0.3632.

0.4483 - 0.3632 = 0.0851

0.0851 = 8.51% probability that a person in China has blood pressure between 120 and 125 mmHg.

e.) Is it unusual for a person in China to have a blood pressure of 135 mmHg? Why or why not?

From item b, when X = 135, Z = 0.3.

Since |Z| = 0.3 < 2, it is not unusual for a person in China to have a blood pressure of 135 mmHg.

f.) What blood pressure do 90% of all people in China have less than?

The 90th percentile, which is X when Z has a p-value of 0.9, so X when Z = 1.28.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]1.28 = \frac{X - 128}{23}[/tex]

[tex]X - 128 = 1.28*23[/tex]

[tex]X = 157.44[/tex]

90% of all people in China have a blood pressure of less than 157.44 mmHg.

Answer:

(2, 79) (12, 24)

24-79/12-2=-55/10

m=-0.55

24=-6,6+b

30.6=b

y=-0.55x+30.6

Step-by-step explanation:

you multiply

using the equation to represent your answer

More information pleaseeeeeeee

Tanθ =sin /cos

tan θ = 5/2 / y

tan (30°) = 5/2 /y

[tex]y = \frac{5 \sqrt{3} }{2} [/tex]

y=4.33

.Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

The patient loses 1 kg every week for 5 weeks.

1 kg = 2.2 lbs

Therefore the patient loses 2.2 lbs every week for 5 weeks.

a) The weight of the patient after 5 weeks = 245 lbs. - (5 weeks)(2.2 lbs per week)

The weight of the patient after 5 weeks = 245 lbs. - 11 lbs. = 234 lbs.

b) The weight of the patient after 5 weeks = 245 lbs. - 11 lbs. = 234 lbs.

1 kg = 2.2 lbs.

234 lbs. = 234 lbs. * 1 kg per 2.2 lbs. = 106.36 kg

Answer:

a)

The null hypothesis is: [tex]H_0: p_M - p_W = 0[/tex]

The alternative hypothesis is: [tex]H_1: p_M - p_W > 0[/tex]

b) For men is of 0.49 and for women is of 0.36.

c) The p-value of the test is 0.0039 < 0.01, which means that the results are statistically significant so that you can conclude a greater proportion of men expect to get a raise or a promotion this year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Before solving this question, we need to understand the central limit theorem and subtraction of normal variables.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem establishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex].

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

For a proportion p in a sample of size n, the sampling distribution of the sample proportion will be approximately normal with mean [tex]\mu = p[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]s = \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}[/tex]

Subtraction between normal variables:

When two normal variables are subtracted, the mean is the difference of the means, while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

Men:

98 out of 200, so:

[tex]p_M = \frac{98}{200} = 0.49[/tex]

[tex]s_M = \sqrt{\frac{0.49*0.51}{200}} = 0.0353[/tex]

Women:

72 out of 200, so:

[tex]p_W = \frac{72}{200} = 0.36[/tex]

[tex]s_W = \sqrt{\frac{0.36*0.64}{200}} = 0.0339[/tex]

a. State the hypothesis test in terms of the population proportion of men and the population proportion of women.

At the null hypothesis, we test if the proportion are similar, that is, if the subtraction of the proportions is 0, so:

[tex]H_0: p_M - p_W = 0[/tex]

At the alternative hypothesis, we test if the proportion of men is greater, that is, the subtraction is greater than 0, so:

[tex]H_1: p_M - p_W > 0[/tex]

b. What is the sample proportion for men? For women?

For men is of 0.49 and for women is of 0.36.

c. Use α= 0.01 level of significance. What is the p-value and what is your conclusion?

From the sample, we have that:

[tex]X = p_M - p_W = 0.49 - 0.36 = 0.13[/tex]

[tex]s = \sqrt{s_M^2+s_W^2} = \sqrt{0.0353^2 + 0.0339^2} = 0.0489[/tex]

The test statistic is:

[tex]z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}[/tex]

In which X is the sample mean, [tex]\mu[/tex] is the value tested at the null hypothesis, and s is the standard error, so:

[tex]z = \frac{0.13 - 0}{0.0489}[/tex]

[tex]z = 2.66[/tex]

P-value of the test and decision:

The p-value of the test is the probability of finding a difference above 0.13, which is the p-value of z = 2.66.

Looking at the z-table, z = 2.66 has a p-value of 0.9961.

1 - 0.9961 = 0.0039.

The p-value of the test is 0.0039 < 0.01, which means that the results are statistically significant so that you can conclude a greater proportion of men expect to get a raise or a promotion this year.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If you make x footballs, the cost per football is (30+3.5x)/x dollars.

If you make 1 football, the cost of the football is $33.50

Answer:

12 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

area = L *B

a = 6 * 2

a = 12cm²

Let a be the first term in the arithmetic progression. Then each successive term differs from a by a fixed number c, so that

• first term = a

• second term = a + c

• third term = (a + c) + c = a + 2c

• fourth term = (a + 2c) + c = a + 3c

and so on. In general, the n-th term in the AP is a + (n - 1) c.

The sum of the 3rd and 7th terms is 38, so that

(a + 2c) + (a + 6c) = 38

==>   2a + 8c = 38

==>   a + 4c = 19 … … … [1]

The 9th term is 37, so

a + 8c = 37 … … … [2]

Subtracting [1] from [2] eliminates a and lets you solve for c :

(a + 8c) - (a + 4c) = 37 - 19

4c = 18

c = 18/4 = 9/2

Solve for a using either equations [1] or [2] :

a + 8 (9/2) = 37

a + 36 = 37

a = 1

Then the n-th term in the AP is 1 + 9/2 (n - 1) or 9/2 n - 7/2, where n ≥ 1.

Answer:

Range y≤-1

Domain all reals

Step-by-step explanation:

The range is the output values (y)

Y is less than or equal to -1

y≤-1

The domain is the values that the input can take

the arrows on the ends of the graph tells us x can take all real numbers

The range is the span of y-values. What is the smallest possible y-value and what is the largest possible y-value?

For this problem, the y-values start at -1 and decrease infinitely. Therefore, the range is y <= -1.

The domain is the span of x-values. What is the smallest possible x-value and what is the largest possible x-value?

For this problem, the parabola will keep expanding horizontally (or to the left and right). Therefore, the range is all real numbers.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

[tex]H_0: \mu = 8[/tex]

[tex]H_1: \mu \neq 8[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A company claims that its soup vending machines deliver exactly 8 ounces of soup to every customer.

This means that the null hypothesis is that the mean is exactly 8, that is:

[tex]H_0: \mu = 8[/tex]

You do not want the vending machines to deliver too much or too little soup.

We don't want the mean to be different from 8, which means that the alternative hypothesis is given by:

[tex]H_1: \mu \neq 8[/tex]

g tau .......................

Answer:

k = 54

Step-by-step explanation:

k + (-12) = 42

Remove parenthesis and addition sign

k - 12 = 42

Add 12 to both sides

K = 54

[tex]\boxed{\large{\bold{\textbf{\textsf{{\color{blue}{Answer}}}}}}:)}[/tex]

Answer:

it 94x26.2 i think it right if not sorry :/

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option C

Step-by-step explanation:

thankful that there are graphing tools. see screenshot

Answer:

Face validity

Step-by-step explanation:

In quantitative research in mathematics, we have four major types of validity namely;

- Content Validity

- Construct validity

- Criterion validity

- Face validity.

Now;

> Construct validity seeks to find out if the tool used in measurement is a true representation of what is really going to be measured.

> Content Validity seeks to find out whether a test covers every part of a particular subject being tested.

> Face validity seeks to find out how true a test is by looking at it on the surface.

> Criterion validity seeks to find out the relationship of a particular test to that of another test.

Now, in this question, we are told that The survey seems like a good representation of measuring dietary habits after just asking questions about each meal and snack they consumed for the week. Thus, it is a face validity because it just appears true on the surface to be a good representation but we don't know if it is effective until we go deep like content validity

Answer:

0.31311311131111....

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to tell a number which when adds to 0.4 makes it a Irrational Number . We know that ,

Rational number :- The number in the form of p/q where p and q are integers and q is not equal to zero is called a Rational number .

Irrational number :- Non terminating and non repeating decimals are called irrational number .

Recall the property that :-

Property :- Sum of a Rational Number and a Irrational number is Irrational .

So basically here we can add any Irrational number to 0.4 to make it Irrational . One Irrational number is ,

[tex] \rm\implies Irrational\ Number = 0.31311311131111... [/tex]

So when we add this to 0.4 , the result will be Irrational . That is ,

[tex] \rm\implies 0.4 + 0.31311311131111 ... = 0.731311311131111 .. [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

When x = 0,

3x + 7

= 3 ( 0 ) + 7

= 0 + 7

= 7

When x = 4,

3x + 7

= 3 ( 4 ) + 7

= 12 + 7

= 19

When x = 8,

3x + 7

= 3 ( 8 ) + 7

= 24 + 7

= 31

When x = 14,

3x + 14

= 3 ( 14 ) + 14

= 14 ( 3 + 1 )

= 14 ( 4 )

= 56

Answer:

the market value of all final goods and services produced within the United States in a given period of time.