A rectangular conducting loop of wire is approximately half-way into a magnetic field B (out of the page) and is free to move. Suppose the magnetic field B begins to decrease rapidly in strength

Requried:
What happens to the loop?

1. The loop is pushed to the left, toward the magnetic field.
2. The loop doesn’t move.
3. The loop is pushed downward, towards the bottom of the page.
4. The loop will rotate.
5. The loop is pushed upward, towards the top of the page.
6. The loop is pushed to the right, away from the magnetic field

Answer:

300 W

Explanation:

power of each bulb P = 75 W

voltage in the circuit = 120 V

we know that electrical power P = IV    ....1

and V = IR

we can also say that I = V/R

substituting for I in  equation 1, we have

P = [tex]V^{2}/R[/tex]    ....2

The total total power in the circuit = 75 x 2 = 150 W

from equation 2, we have

150 = [tex]120^{2} /R[/tex]

R = [tex]120^{2}/150[/tex] = 96 Ω    this is the resistance of the whole circuit.

This resistance is due to the two light bulbs, for each light bulb since they are arranged in series

R = 96/2 = 48 Ω

From P =  [tex]V^{2}/R[/tex]  

for each light bulb, power is

P = [tex]120^{2} /48[/tex] = 300 W

Answer:

The moment of inertia is  [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the platform is   m =  137 kg

     The radius is  r  =  1.53 m

    The mass of the person is  [tex]m_p = 68.7 \ kg[/tex]

    The distance of the person from the center is  [tex]d_c =1.19 \ m[/tex]

    The mass of the dog is  [tex]m_d = 25.9 \ kg[/tex]

     The distance of the dog from the person [tex]d_d = 1.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the moment of inertia of the system is mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = I_1 + I_2 + I_3[/tex]

Where [tex]I_1[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the platform which mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{m * r^2}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 137 * (1.53)^2}{2}[/tex]

           [tex]I_1 = 160.35 \ kg\cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_2[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the person about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_2 = m_p * d_c^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_2 = 68.7 * 1.19^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_2 = 97.29 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_3[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the dog about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_3 = m_d * d_d^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_3 = 25.9 * 1.45^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_3 = 54.45 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Thus  

        [tex]I= 160.35 + 97.29 + 54.45[/tex]

        [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Answer:

A) 3.13 m/s

B) 5.34 N

C) W = 26.9 J

Explanation:

We are told that the position as a function of time is given by;

x(t) = αt² + βt³

Where;

α = 0.210 m/s² and β = 2.04×10^(−2) m/s³ = 0.0204 m/s³

Thus;

x(t) = 0.21t² + 0.0204t³

A) Velocity is gotten from the derivative of the displacement.

Thus;

v(t) = x'(t) = 2(0.21t) + 3(0.0204t²)

v(t) = 0.42t + 0.0612t²

v(4.5) = 0.42(4.5) + 0.0612(4.5)²

v(4.5) = 3.1293 m/s ≈ 3.13 m/s

B) acceleration is gotten from the derivative of the velocity

a(t) = v'(t) = 0.42 + 2(0.0612t)

a(4.5) = 0.42 + 2(0.0612 × 4.5)

a(4.5) = 0.9708 m/s²

Force = ma = 5.5 × 0.9708

F = 5.3394 N ≈ 5.34 N

C) Since no friction, work done is kinetic energy.

Thus;

W = ½mv²

W = ½ × 5.5 × 3.1293²

W = 26.9 J

Answer:

v = 6.28 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

A windmill on a farm rotates at a constant speed and completes one-half of a rotation in 0.5 seconds,

Number of revolution is half. It means angular velocity is 3.14 radians.

Let v is the angular speed. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{\omega}{t}\\\\v=\dfrac{3.14}{0.5}\\\\v=6.28\ m/s[/tex]

So, the rotation speed is 6.28 m/s.

The angular velocity is the rotation speed, which is the angle of rotation

of the windmill per second, which is 2·π radians.

Response:

The given parameter are;

The angle of rotation the windmill rotates in 0.5 seconds = One-half a

rotation.

Required:

The rotational speed (angular velocity)

Solution:

The angle of one rotation = 2·π radians

Angle of one-half ration = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2·π radians = π radians

[tex]Rotational \ speed = \mathbf{\dfrac{Angle \ of \ rotation}{Time}}[/tex]

Which gives;

[tex]Rotational \ speed, \omega = \dfrac{\pi}{0.5 \ s} = \mathbf{2 \cdot \pi \ rad/s}[/tex]

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Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

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Answer:

1) designed to measure the difference in speed of light in different directions , 1887

Explanation:

1) This experiment was designed to measure the difference in speed of light in different directions and therefore find the speed of the ether.

2) was made in 1887

3) At that time it was assumed that it was the medium in which light traveled and it is everywhere

4) the speed of the wave depends on the characteristics of the medium where it travels,

for the one in a string depends on the tension and density

for an electromagnetic wave of the permittivity and permeability of the vacuum

5) In this type of interferometer the beam is divided into two rays

6) In his interrupter, he had to accurately measure the displacement of the fringes in a telescope, for which he had to minimize vibrations, he had problems in the movement of one of the arms, changes in temperature

7) In Michelsom's second experiment, the apparatus could measure 0.01 fringes by increasing the length of the arms by 11 m

8) The new interferometer floated on a bed of mercury

9) Couldn't measure any difference in speed of light in different directions

10) Physics was forced to eliminate the concept of ETHER

11) One of the principles of relativities that the speed of light is constant in all inertial efficiency systems

12) Michelson in 1907

13) It seems that Einstein did not know the results of this experiment

Answer:

E. None of these statements are true.

Explanation:

We can't say the exact or approximate amount of tension on the rope, since we do know for sure from the statement who is winning.

for A, the tension on the rope does not depend on if both teams pull are in equilibrium.

for B, the 49ers would be pulling with a force more than 5000 N, if they were winning. The problem is that we can't say with all confidence that they'd be winning.

for C, we don't know how much tension exists on the rope, and its direction, so we can't work out how much tension the 49ers are pulling the rope with.

for D,  just as for C above, we can't work out how much tension there is on the rope, since we do not know how much force the 49ers are pulling with.

we go with option E.

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Answer:D

Explanation:I got it right

Answer:

They needed to be able to unite even though they spoke different languages.

Explanation:

Answer: I0*0.853

Explanation:

Ok, the Malus's law says that:

If you have light polarized along a given line with an intensity I0, and it passes through a polaroid which axis of polarization forms an angle θ with respect to the polarization of the light, then the intensity of the resulting beam is:

I(θ) = I0*cos^2(θ)

For example, if the axis of the polaroid is exactly the same as the axis of polarization of the light beam that will impact it, then we have θ = 0°, and the equation above says that the intensity of the beam will not change.

In this particular case, we have that the intensity of the light is I0, and the angle is θ = 22.5°

Then:

I(22.5°) = I0*cos^2(22.5°) = I0*0.853

Answer:

Resistance of each bulb = 360 ohms

Explanation:

Let each bulb have a resistance r .

Since, even after removing one of the bulbs, the circuit is closed and the other bulbs glow. Therfore, the bulbs are connected in Parallel connection.

[tex] \frac{1}{r(equivalent)} = \frac{1}{r1} + \frac{1}{r2} + + + + \frac{1}{r15} [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{r(equivalent)} = \frac{15}{r} [/tex]

R(equivalent) = r/15

Now, As per Ohms Law :

V = I * R(equivalent)

120 V = 5 A * r/15

r = 360 ohms

Explanation:

When an ideal gas undergoes a slow isothermal expansion, following phenomenon occur

1. Work done bu the gas = Energy absorbed as heat.

2. Work done by environment = Energy absorbed as heat.

3. Increase in internal energy= Heat absorbed= work done by gas = work done by environment.

Hence all option are correct.

Increase in internal energy is equal to the heat absorbed or work done by gas or environment. All the statements are correct.

If an ideal gas undergoes a slow isothermal expansion,

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Answer:

2/5 m/s

Explanation:

There are two vectors  v and w . Let θ be angle b/w the two vector.

[tex]cos\theta =\frac{\overleftarrow{v}\cdot \overleftarrow{w}}{\left | v \right |\left | w \right |}\\=\frac{6-4}{\sqrt(2^2+1^2)\sqrt(3^2+4^2)} =\frac{2}{5\sqrt(5)}[/tex]

velocity of the ball in direction of the the wind

[tex]\left | vcos\theta \right |\\\left | v \right |cos\theta\\\sqrt(2^2+1^2)\frac{2}{5\sqrt(5)} = \frac{2}{5}[/tex]

The size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2/5 ms.

Since there are two vectors v and w

Also, here we assume θ be angle b/w the two vector.

So

Cos θ = 6-4 / √(2^2 + 1^2) √(3^2 + 4^2)

= 2/5√5

Now the velocity of the ball should be

= √(2^2 + 1^2) 2 ÷ 5√(5)

= 2 /5

hence, The size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2/5 ms.

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Answer:

The intensity is  [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The intensity of the unpolarized light is  [tex]I_o = 4000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

    The  angle between the ideal polarizing sheet is  [tex]\theta = 0.429 \ rad = 0.429 * 57.296 = 24.58^o[/tex]

Generally the intensity of  light emerging from the first polarizer is mathematically represented as

               [tex]I_2 = \frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

               [tex]I_1 = \frac{4000}{2}[/tex]

                [tex]I_1 = 2000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Then the intensity of  incident light emerging from the second polarizer is mathematically represented by Malus law as

                 [tex]I_2 = I_1 cos^2 (\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

                [tex]I_2 = 2000 * [cos (24.58)]^2[/tex]

                [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Answer:

Check your router connections then restart your router.

Explanation:

Answer:

Check your router connections then restart your router.

Explanation:

Most internet access comes from routers so the problem is most likely the router.

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Continuity equation

v X A = v' xA'

so if A is 1/2of A' then A velocity must be 2 times the A'

after-contraction v = 2 x 5.0m/s = 10m/s

Using the Bernoulli equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

, the "h" terms cancel

3.5 x 10^ 5Pa + ½ x 1000kg/m³x (5.0m/s)² = p₂ + ½ x 1000kg/m³ x (10m/s)²

p₂ = 342500pa

Answer:

[tex]\frac{di}{dt} = 7.31 \ A/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

     The  number of turns is  [tex]N = 450 \ turns[/tex]

      The  radius is  [tex]r = 1.17 \ cm = 0.0117 \ m[/tex]

       The  position from the center consider is  x =  3.45 cm  =  0.0345 m

       The  induced emf is  [tex]e = 8.20 *10^{-6} \ V/m[/tex]

Generally according to Gauss law

        [tex]\int\limits { e } \, dl = \mu_o * N * \frac{di}{dt } * A[/tex]

=>    [tex]e * 2\pi x = \mu_o * N * \frac{d i }{dt } * A[/tex]

Where A is the  cross-sectional area of the solenoid which is mathematically represented as

                [tex]A = \pi r ^2[/tex]

=>      [tex]e * 2\pi x = \mu_o * N * \frac{d i }{dt } * \pi r^2[/tex]

=>       [tex]\frac{di}{dt} = \frac{2e * x }{\mu_o * N * r^2}[/tex]ggl;

Here  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with value

          [tex]\mu_o = 4\pi * 10^{-7} \ N/A^2[/tex]

=>     [tex]\frac{di}{dt} = \frac{2 * 8.20*10^{-6} * 0.0345 }{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 450 * (0.0117)^2}[/tex]

=>      [tex]\frac{di}{dt} = 7.31 \ A/s[/tex]

The value of di/dt from the given values of the solenoid electric field is;

di/dt = 7.415 A/s

We are given;

Number of turns; N = 450 per m

Radius; r = 1.17 cm = 0.0117 m

Electric Field; E = 8.2 × 10⁻⁶ V/m

Position of electric field; r' = 3.45 cm = 0.0345 m

According to Gauss's law of electric field;

∫| E*dl | = |-d∅/dt |

Now, ∅ = BA = μ₀niA

where;

n is number of turns

i is current

A is Area

μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m

Thus;

E(2πr') = (d/dt)(μ₀niA)  (negative sign is gone from the right hand side because we are dealing with magnitude)

Since we are looking for di/dt, then we have;

E(2πr') = (di/dt)(μ₀nA)

Making di/dt the subject of the formula gives;

di/dt = E(2πr')/(μ₀nA)

Plugging in the relevant values gives us;

di/dt = (8.2 × 10⁻⁶ × 2 × π × 0.0345)/(4π × 10⁻⁷ × 450 × π × 0.0117²)

di/dt = 7.415 A/s

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Answer:

20.96 m/s^2 (or 21)

Explanation:

Using the formula (final velocity - initial velocity)/time = acceleration, we can plug in values and manipulate the problem to give us the answer.

At first, we know a car is going 8 m/s, that is its initial velocity.

Then, we know the acceleration, which is 1.8 m/s/s

We also know the time, 7.2 second.

Plugging all of these values in shows us that we need to solve for final velocity. We can do so by manipulating the formula.

(final velocity - initial velocity) = time * acceleration

final velocity = time*acceleration + initial velocity

After plugging the found values in, we get 20.96 m/s/s, or 21 m/s

Answer:

The kinetic energy is 25000 J

Explanation:

At the top of the hill, the potential energy = 50000 J

the potential energy = mgh

where m is the mass

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the vertical height at the top of the hill

Note the mass of the roller coaster and acceleration due to gravity will always remain constant, so that halfway down the hill, only the height changes by half its initial value.

This means that at halfway down the hill, the potential energy of the roller coaster is

PE = [tex]mg\frac{h}{2}[/tex] = 50000/2 = 25,000 J

We also know that the total mechanical energy of a system is given as

ME = KE + PE = constant

where

ME is the mechanical energy of the system

PE is the potential energy of the system

KE is the kinetic energy of the system

Let us now analyse.

At the top of the hill, all the mechanical energy of the roller coaster is equal to its potential energy due to the height on the hill above ground, since the roller coaster is not moving (kinetic energy is energy due to motion). Halfway down, the mechanical energy of the roller coaster is due to both the kinetic energy and the potential energy, since the roller coaster is moving down, and is still at a given height above the ground. Having all these in mind, we can proceed and say that at halfway down the hill, ignoring friction,

ME = KE + PE = constant

50000 = KE + 25000

therefore

KE = 25000 J

Answer:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 12.8 × 10⁴ J

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of truck(m) = 2,100 kg

Initial speed(v1) = 38 km/h = 38,000 / 3600 = 10.56 m/s

Final speed(v2) = 55 km/h = 55,000 / 3600 = 15.28 m/s

Find:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE)

Computation:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1/2(m)[v2² - v1²]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1/2(2100)[15.28² - 10.56²]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1,050[233.4784 - 111.5136]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1,050[121.9648]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 128063.04

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 12.8 × 10⁴ J

Answer:

Star A has a higher surface temperature than star B.

Explanation:

The effective temperature of a star can be determined by means of its spectrum and Wien's displacement law:

[tex]T = \frac{2.898x10^{-3} m. K}{\lambda max}[/tex] (1)

Where T is the effective temperature of the star and [tex]\lambda_{max}[/tex] is the maximum peak of emission.  

A body that is hot enough emits light as a consequence of its temperature. For example, if an iron bar is put in contact with fire, it will start to change colors as the temperature increase, until it gets to a blue color, that scenario is known as Wien's displacement law. Which establishes that the peak of emission for the spectrum will be displaced to shorter wavelengths as the temperature increase and higher wavelengths as the temperature decreases.

Therefore, star A has a higher surface temperature than star B, as it is shown in equation 1 since T and [tex]\lambda max[/tex] are inversely proportional.

Answer:

the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Explanation:

We were given Pressure P to be 3.5 x 10^5 that is Flowing with speed of 5.0 m/s,

For us to calculate pressure we need to calculate the area first as;

Let initial Area = A₁

And Final area A₂

We were told that in a horizontal pipe it contracts to 1/3 its former area. Which means

A₂= A₁/3.................

V₁ is the speed

the pressure and speed of the water after the contraction can be calculated using equation of continuity below

A₂V₂ = A₁V₁

But

If we substitute given value in the expresion we have

V₂ = (3A *5)/A

V₂ = 15m/s

Therefore, the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Now we can calculate the pressure using

Bernoulli's equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

But we know that the pipe is horizontal, then "h" terms cancel out then

p₁ + ½ρv₁² = p₂ + ½ρv₂²

Making P₂ subject of formula we have

p₂ = 0.5ρ( V ₁² - v₂² ) + P₁

P₂=. 0.5 × 1000 (5² -15² ) + 3*10^5

=2×10^5 Pa

Therefore, the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

(a)  the final speed of the water after contraction is 15 m/s.

(b) The final pressure of the water after contraction is 2.5 x 10⁵ Pa.

The given parameters;

Let the initial area of the pipe = A₁

Apply the continuity equation to determine the final speed of the water after contraction as follows;

[tex]A_1 V_1 = A_2 V_2\\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1V_1}{A_2} \\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1 \times 5}{\frac{1}{3} A_1 } \\\\V_2 = 15 \ m/s[/tex]

The final pressure of the water after contraction is determined by applying Bernoulli's equation for horizontal pipe;

[tex]P_1 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_1^2= P_2 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_2^2\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \rho (V_1^2 - V_2^2) + P_1\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000(5^2 - 15^2) + 3.5 \times 10^5\\\\P_2 = 2.5 \times 10^5 \ Pa[/tex]

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Answer:

The direction of the magnetic field on point P, equidistant from both wires, and having equal magnitude of current flowing through them will be pointed perpendicularly away from the direction of the wires.

Explanation:

Using the right hand grip, the direction of the magnet field on the wire M is counterclockwise, and the direction of the magnetic field on wire N is clockwise. Using this ideas, we can see that the magnetic flux of both field due to the currents of the same magnitude through both wires, acting on a particle P equidistant from both wires will act in a direction perpendicularly away from both wires.

Answer:

0.2812

Explanation:

Given that

mass of skater 1, m1 = 45 kg

mass of skater 2, m2 = 60 kg

speed of skater 1, v1 = 0.375 m/s

To attempt this question, we would be using the Law of conservation of momentum That says the momentum is constant, before and after the movement.

Thus, momentum p = mv

Law of conservation of momentum infers that,

m1v1 = m2v2

Now we proceed to substitute our values into the formula.

45 * 0.375 = 60 * v2

v2 = 16.875 / 60

v2 = 0.2812 m/s

Therefore the speed of the second skater has to be 0.2812 m/s

Answer:

M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

Explanation:

To solve this exercise we must use the equilibrium conditions translations

         ∑ F = 0

In the attachment we can see a free body diagram of each block

Block M (upper)

X axis

      fr₁ + F₂ -F = 0

      F = fr₁ + F₂              (1)

axis

     N₁-W = 0

     N₁ = Mg

the friction force has the formula

     fr₁ = μ N₁

     F = μ Mg + F₂

bottom block

X axis

     F₂ - fr₁ - fr₂ = 0

     F₂ = fr₁ + fr₂

Y axis

     N - W₁ -W = 0

     N = g (M + M₁)

we substitute

       F₂ = μ Mg + μ (M + M1) g

       F₂ = μ g (2M + M₁)

we substitute in 1

      F = μ M g + μ g (2M + M₁)

      F = μ g (3M + M₁)

we look for mass M    

      M = (F -  μ g M₁)/ 3μ g

      M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

the exercise does not have numerical data

Answer:

The planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

Explanation:

We can determine the ratio of the period's planet with the radius of the circular orbit in the star's equatorial plane:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} [/tex]     (1)

Where:

r: is the radius of the circular orbit of the planet and the star

T: is the period

G: is the gravitational constant

M: is the mass of the planet

From equation (1) we have:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} = k*r^{3/2} [/tex]   (2)          

Where k is a constant

From equation (2) we have that of the two planets, the planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Explanation:

[tex]Power = IV[/tex]

From ohms law we know that

[tex]V= IR\\\\I= \frac{V}{R} \\\\Power= \frac{V}{R}*V\\\\Power= \frac{V^2}{R}[/tex]

Given data

P1 = 0.5 Watt

P2 = ?

V1= 3 Volts

V2= 1 Volt

Thus we can solve for the power dissipated as follows

[tex]P1= \frac{V1^2}{R1}\\\\P2= \frac{V2^2}{R2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{P1}{P2} = \frac{V1^2}{V2^2}\\\\ P2=\frac{ V2^2}{ V1^2} *P1\\\\ P2=\frac{ 1^2}{ 3^2} *0.5= 0.055= 0.056 W[/tex]

The  resistor will dissipate 0.056 Watt

Answer:

Will be equal to alpha x r; less than UsN

Answer:

t = 134834.31 years

Explanation:

First we find the speed of the ship:

v = 0.890 c

where,

v = speed of the ship = ?

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Therefore, using the values, we get:

v = (0.89)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)

v = 2.67 x 10⁸ m/s

Now, we find the distance in meters:

Distance = s = (1.2 x 10⁵ light years)(9.461 x 10¹⁵/1 light year)

s = 11.35 x 10²⁰ m

Now, for the time we use the following equation:

s = vt

t = s/v

t = (11.35 x 10²⁰ m)/(2.67 x 10⁸ m/s)

t = (4.25 x 10¹² s)(1 h/3600 s)(1 day/24 h)(1 year/365 days)

t = 134834.31 years

Answer:

A) V_air = 1.295 L

B) Volume is not reasonable

Explanation:

A) Let;

m be total mass of the man

m_p be the mass of the man that pulled out of the water because of the buoyant force that pulled out of the lung

m_3 be the mass above the water with the empty lung

m_5 be the mass above the water with full lung

F_b be the buoyant force due to the air in the lung

V_a be the volume of air inside man's lungs

w_p be the weight that the buoyant force opposes as a result of the air.

Now, we are given;

m = 78.5 kg

m_3 = 3.2% × 78.5 = 2.512 kg

m_5 = 4.85% × 78.5 = 3.80725 kg

Now, m_p = m_5 - m_3

m_p = 3.80725 - 2.512

m_p = 1.29525 kg

From archimedes principle, we have the formula for buoyant force as;

F_b = (m_displaced water)g = (ρ_water × V_air × g)

Where ρ_water is density of water = 1000 kg/m³

Thus;

F_b = w_p = 1.29525 × 9.81

F_b = 12.7064 N

As earlier said,

F_b = (ρ_water × V_air × g)

Thus;

V_air = F_b/(ρ_water × × g)

V_air = 12.7064/(1000 × 9.81)

V_air = 1.295 × 10^(-3) m³

We want to convert to litres;

1 m³ = 1000 L

Thus;

V_air = 1.295 × 10^(-3) × 1000

V_air = 1.295 L

B) From research, the average lung capacity of an adult human being is 6 litres of air.

Thus, the calculated lung volume is not reasonable