Answer:
It will take 4 years and 130 days to recover for the initial investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A project with an initial cost of $27,250 is expected to generate cash flows of $6,600, $8,700, $9,100, $8,000, and $7,400
The payback period is the time required to recover for the initial investment:
Year 1= 6,600 - 27,250= -20,650
Year 2= 8,700 - 20,650= -11,950
Year 3= 9,100 - 11,950= -2,850
Year 4= 8,000 - 2,850= 5,150
To be more accurate:
(2,850/8,000)*365= 130
It will take 4 years and 130 days to recover for the initial investment.
An investment adviser representative's friend provides him with a list of 10 prospective clients. The representative agrees to pay his friend a referral fee for each person on the list that opens an account with the adviser. Which statement is TRUE
Answer: C. The arrangement is permitted only if it is in writing between the investment adviser and the friend and the arrangement is disclosed in writing to any customer opening an account
Explanation:
The friend in this case will be ruled to be a Solicitor under SEC Rules as they are referring clients to the Investment Adviser for a fee.
As such this business relationship between the friend and the Investment Adviser representative will fall under SEC Rule 206(4)-3 Cash payments for client solicitations. This rule makes it clear amongst other things that the investment adviser will have to prepare a written disclosure document which will inform any customer opening an account of the agreement between the adviser and his friend.
Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of , cost of goods sold of , sales and administrative costs of , depreciation expense of , and a tax rate of .
Answer:
$101,960,000
Explanation:
For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-
Step 1
EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation
= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000
= $61,600,000
Step 2
Net income = EBIT - Tax
= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000
= $36,960,000
and finally
Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000
= $101,960,000
A portfolio to the right of the market portfolio on the CML is: Group of answer choices a lending portfolio. an inefficient portfolio. a borrowing portfolio.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Explanation:
Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were
Answer:
$3,709,000
Explanation:
7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000
9/1 Time weighted amount = $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000
12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000
A cash equivalent is: Multiple Choice Another name for cash. Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate changes.
Complete Question:
A cash equivalent is:
Group of answer choices
a) Generally is within 12 months of its maturity date.
b) Another name for cash.
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
d) Is not considered highly liquid.
e) Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate
changes
Answer:
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Explanation:
In Financial accounting, cash equivalents can be defined as any short term and highly liquid investments which can be easily converted or transformed to a known and standard amounts of cash and as such are subjective to little or no risk of changes in value.
This ultimately implies that, a cash equivalent is an investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Under the statements of cash flow, cash equivalents can be classified broadly into three (3) categories and these are;
1. Operating activities.
2. Financing activities.
3. Investing activities.
Answer:
money
Explanation:
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.
Answer:
a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.
Entry;
DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000
CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000
(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)
b.
DR Cash......................................................................$180,000
CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000
(To record Wayne investment)
Working
The current Capital amount is;
= 200,000 +160,000
= $360,000
If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;
2/3x = 360,000
x = 360,000/2/3
x = $540,000
Wayne's share would be;
= 1/3 * 540,000
= $180,000
The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.
And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.
The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]
[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]
Now the value of x will be calculated as
[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]
[tex]x=180000[/tex]
Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.
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Say the marginal tax rate is 30 percent and that government expenditures do not change with output. Say also that the economy is at potential output and that the deficit is $200 billion.Required:a. What is the size of the cyclical deficit?b. What is the size of the structural deficit?c. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $200 billion below potential?d. How would your answers to a and b change if the deficit was still $200 billion but output was $100 billion above potential?
Answer:
a. The Cyclical deficit refers to the deficit arising from the difference between the potential output and the actual output.
The question assumes that the economy is producing at potential which means actual output equals potential output.
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 0
Cyclical Deficit = $0
b. Structural deficit occurs even when the economy is at potential because it refers to Government deficits that happen when the economy is experiencing normal activity.
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 0
Structural Deficit = $200 billion
c. Output is $200 billion below potential
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * 200
Cyclical Deficit = $60 billion
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - 60
Structural Deficit = $140 billion
d. Output is $100 billion above potential
Cyclical Deficit = Tax rate * ( Potential Output - Actual Output)
Cyclical Deficit = 0.3 * -100 as actual is above potential
Cyclical Deficit = -$30 billion
Structural Deficit = Actual deficit - Cyclical deficit
Structural Deficit = 200 billion - (-30)
Structural Deficit = $230 billion
A negative supply shock, such as the OPEC oil price increases of the early 1970s, can be illustrated by a shift to the ______________ of the short-run aggregate supply curve and a shift _________________ of the short-run Phillips curve.
Answer: Leftward; upwards.
Explanation: A Supply shock is a term used to describe the sudden and unexpected change in the supply of a given product or commodity usually indicated by the leftward shift if the shock is negative in the aggregate supply curve and an upward change in direction in the Phillips curve both on the short run. Both curves are used to demonstrate graphically the impacts of shifts in supply for a given product or commodity.
Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now
Answer:
Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000
Explanation:
The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%
The initial margin = $4,000
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20
Increase in the Margin value =$2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as: Multiple Choice 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 2 days. 2% discount if paid within 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 10 days. 10% cash discount if the amount is paid within 2 days, or the balance due in 30 days.
Answer:
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as:
2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days.Explanation:
I will explain using an example:
On January 2, the company sells $1,000 worth of goods with credit terms 2/10, n/30.
January 2
Dr Accounts receivable 1,000
Cr Sales revenue
If the client pays within the discount period:
January 11
Dr Cash 980
Dr Sales discounts 20
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
If the client pays after the discount period but before 30 days:
January 31
Dr Cash 1,000
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
The credit terms 2/10, and n/30 are interpreted as a 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance is due in 30 days. Thus, option A is the correct option.
Trade credits like 2/10 net 30 are frequently provided by suppliers to purchasers. It stands for an agreement that if payment is made within 10 days, the buyer would get a 2% reduction on the net invoice amount. Otherwise, you have 30 days to pay the entire invoice amount.
It's a common way to express an early payment discount. In accounting, the discount amount and the window of availability are typically represented using a formula like 2/10, n/30. This implies that if the invoice is paid in full within ten days, a 2% reduction is applied; otherwise, the full amount is owed.
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A promotion related to the movie Pacific Rim Uprising was seen in Target stores throughout the United States. The sales promotion was designed to maximize the consumer's attention to a DVD release and provide storage for the products. This type of sales promotion is referred to as a
Answer:
This type of sales promotion is referred to as a Dealer Sales Promotion (Trade Promotion).
Explanation:
The Dealer Sales Promotion, otherwise known as Trade Promotion, is aimed at Dealers, designed to maximize the attention of consumers, and provide storage for the products in Target stores throughout the United States. The promoters want Pacific Rim Uprising to be seen by consumers, so that their attention is galvanized, and to get Target stores to create the space for the DVD upon the film's release, through cooperative advertising. It is not aimed directly at consumers or salespersons, but dealers.
The two main types of e-commerce are
Answer:
B2B (Business to business) and B2C (Business to consumer)
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
The question is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
Answer:
$50
Explanation:
Caribou Gold mining corporation is expected to make a dividend payment of $6 next year
Dividend are expected to decline at a rate of 3%
= 3/100
= 0.03
The risk free rate of return is 5%
= 5/100
= 0.05
The expected return on the market portfolio is 13%
= 13/100
= 0.13
The beta is 0.5
The first step is to calculate the expected rate of return
= 0.05+0.5(0.13-0.05)
= 0.05+0.5(0.08)
= 0.05+0.04
= 0.09
Therefore, the intrinsic value of the stock using the constant growth DDM model can be calculated as follows
Vo= 6/(0.09+0.03)
Vo= 6/0.12
Vo= $50
Hence the intrinsic value of the stock is $50
Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be
Answer:
$152,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory
First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount
Using this formula
Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail
Let plug in the formula
Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000
Beginning Inventory =$120,000
Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount
Using this formula
Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer
Let plug in the formula
Current period purchases=64%*50,000
Current period purchases=$32,000
The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula
Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases
Let plug in the formula
Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000
Ending inventory cost=$152,000
Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000
Data pertaining to the current position of Forte Company are as follows:
Cash $412,500
Marketable securities 187,500
Accounts and notes receivable (net) 300,000
Inventories 700,000
Prepaid expenses 50,000
Accounts payable 200,000
Notes payable (short-term) 250,000
Accrued expenses 300,000
Required:
Compute:
a. The working capital.
b. The current ratio.
c. The quick ratio.
Answer:
Forte Company
Computation of :
a. The working capital = Current Assets minus Current Liabilities
= $1,650,000 - $750,000
= $900,000
b. The current ratio = Current assets/Current liabilities
= $1650,000/$750,000
= 2.2 : 1
c. The quick ratio = (Current asset minus Inventory)/Current liabilities
= ($1,650,000 - 750,000)/$750,000
= $900,000/$750,000
= 1.2 : 1
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Cash $412,500
Marketable securities 187,500
Accounts and notes receivable (net) 300,000
Inventories 700,000
Prepaid expenses 50,000
Total Current Assets $1,650,000
Accounts payable 200,000
Notes payable (short-term) 250,000
Accrued expenses 300,000
Total Current Liabilities $750,000
b) Forte Company's working capital is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities. In this case, it is very positive with a huge sum of $900,000.
c ) Forte Company's current ratio is an expression of the relationship between current assets and current liabilities. It shows how much of current liabilities that current assets can cover. The ability of the management of Forte Company to settle its current obligations from the current assets is worked out under this ratio.
d) Forte has a quick ratio of more than 1 : 1. It is similar to the current ratio but with the omission of the Inventory and Prepaid Expenses which are regarded as always taking longer to sell and recover respectively.
Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows
Answer:
Internal rate of return
Explanation:
The internal rate of return is that return in which the net present value equivalent to zero
i.e.
Net present value = 0
That means
Initial investment = Present value of cash inflows after charging the discounting factor like 10% 12% etc
So as per the given situation, the internal rate of return is the correct answer
An invoice of $600 for merchandise purchased is showing 3/15, n/30 as terms of credit. If the invoice is paid on or before the fifteenth day after the invoice date, the amount to be paid is ________.
Answer:
Amount Payable or paid = $582
Explanation:
The terms of purchase state that the buyer will be entitled to a 3% cash discount if the payment for the purchases is made within 15 days of the purchase or invoice date.
Thus, if the payment is made on or within the fifteen days of invoice date, the cash discount that will be received is,
Discount = 600 * 0.03 = $18
So, the amount that will be payable for the merchandise will be,
Amount Payable or paid = 600 - 18 = $582
Acme Company’s production budget for August is 17,700 units and includes the following component unit costs: direct materials, $6.0; direct labor, $10.2; variable overhead, $6.2. Budgeted fixed overhead is $34,000. Actual production in August was 18,630 units. Actual unit component costs incurred during August include direct materials, $8.40; direct labor, $9.60; variable overhead, $7.00. Actual fixed overhead was $35,700. The standard fixed overhead application rate per unit consists of $2 per machine hour and each unit is allowed a standard of 1 hour of machine time.Required:Calculate the fixed overhead budget variance and the fixed overhead volume variance. (Indicate the effect of each variance by selecting "F" for favorable, "U" for unfavorable, and "None" for no effect (i.e., zero variance).)
Answer:
a. $1,700 U
b. $3,260 F
Explanation:
a. Fixed over head budget variance = Actual fixed overhead - Budgeted fixed overhead
Actual fixed overhead = $35,700
Budgeted fixed overhead = $34,000
Fixed overhead budget variance = $35,700 - $34,000
= $1,700 U
b. Fixed overhead volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - Standard fixed overhead
Standard fixed overhead application rate = $2 per machine hr × 1hr
= $2
Budgeted fixed overhead = $34,000
Standard fixed overhead = Standard hours for actual output × Budgeted rate
= (18,630 units × 1hr) × $2
= $37,260
Fixed overhead volume variance
= $34,000 - $37,260
= 3,260 F
how will a new front desk manager address a problem of lateness in a hotel.
Answer:
They will have a system like a lot book where they would take in the visitors details and then Mark in or out and time of arrival and leaving
Hope this helps :)
Explanation:
Emira wants to buy a classic drawing from an art centre in Kuala Lumpur. She managed to secure a painting by a renowned Malaysian artist that costs her RM99,800. Currently, she only has RM12,650 in her savings account and she intends to use 70% of her saving to fund the purchase. If she borrows the remaining amount from Bank Atlantis that levies 4.77% of interest rates, determine the total interest payment that she will pay if the agreement takes 10 years of settlement.
Answer:
RM23,617.80
Explanation:
cost of the painting RM99,800
she has RM12,650 on her bank account and she will use 70% = RM8,855 as down payment. She will borrow the rest = RM99,800 - RM8,855 = RM90,945
interest charged on the loan 4.77% / 12 = 0.3975%
120 monthly periods (10 years)
using the present value formula to determine the monthly payment:
PV = monthly payment x annuity factor
monthly payment = PV / annuity factor
PV = 90,945
annuity factor (120 periods, 0.3975%) = 95.26168
monthly payment = 90,945 / 95.26168 = 954.69
total payments = 120 x 954.69 = RM114,562.80
interests paid = RM114,562.80 - RM90,945 = RM23,617.80
"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"
Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter
Explanation:
The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.
The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.
In your opinion, what are the forms of institutional advertising that are suitable for banks in Palestine with examples. Why??
Answer:
Institutional advertising for banks in Palestine should take into account the cultural sensibilities of the country.
As a muslim country, banks should take into account not only local Palestinian culture, but also general islamic culture when developing their advertising.
Palestine also has complex foreign relationships. Banks should also take this into account in order to create advertising that is effectively catered to the Palestinian people.
The profit-maximizing monopolist produces _____________ units and charges a price of _____________.
Answer: Q0; P3
Explanation:
The profit-maximizing monopolist produces Q0 units and charges a price of P3.
According to the exhibit graph, the monopolist will produce Q0 units. This is because a monopoly maximises profit at the point where Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost. Looking at the chart, the quantity of output where this happens is Q0.
The Monopolist will then charge a price of P3. After the profit-maximising output is realized, the way to find out the price the monopolist will sell at is the point where the output produced intersects with the Demand curve. At this point, the price listed is what people are willing to buy that amount of quantity for and so the Monopoly will sell at that price.
1. Noor Patel has had a busy year! She decided to take a cross-country adventure. Along the way, she won a new car on "The Price Is Right" (valued at $15,500) and won $500 on a scratch-off lottery ticket (the first time she ever played). She also signed up for a credit card to start the trip and was given a sign-up bonus of $100. How much will she have to include in her federal taxable income?
2A. What is the amount of taxes for a head of house hold with a taxable income of $57,500 with a rate of 25%?
B. What is the amount of taxes for a single person with a taxable income of $35,000 with a rate of 15%?
C. What is the amount of taxes for a married couple filling jointly with a taxable income of $70,700 with a rate of 15%?
Answer:
1. 16,100
Explanation:
To get how much she would include in her federal taxable income. We would have to add up these values:
The car won on the price is right + scratch off lottery + sign up bonus.
15,500 + 500 + 100
=$16,100
2a.
head of household
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(37650 - 9275)*15% = 4256.1
(57500 - 37650)*25% = 4962.5
total = 927.5 + 4256.1 + 4962.5
= 10146.1
2b
single person
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(35000-9275)*10% = 3858.75
total = 927.5 + 3858.75
= 4786.25
2c
for married couple
0 to 18550 at 10% = 1855
(70700-1855)*15% = 7822.5
total = 1855 + 7822.5
=9677.5
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
according to the nist the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an
Answer: Risk management
Explanation:
According to the nist, the process of identifying risk, assessing risk, and taking steps to reduce risk to an acceptable level is referred to as the risk management.
Risk management simply has to do with the identification of risks before they occur. In such scenarios, the business owners can either avoid the risk or minimize the impact of the risk.
Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,200 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,200 units of production reflects sales of $508,800; variable costs of $63,600; and fixed costs of $142,000. Assume that actual sales for the year are $587,200 (26,300 units), actual variable costs for the year are $113,900, and actual fixed costs for the year are $137,000. Prepare a flexible budget performance report for the year.
Answer:
Flexible budget performance report for the year
Flexible budget Actual Variance Fav/Unf
Sales 631,200 587,200 44,000 UNF
Variable cost (78,900) (113,900) 35,000 F
Contribution 416,000 368,000 48,000 UNF
margin
Fixed cost (142,000) (137,000) 5000 UNF
Net operating 274,000 231,000 43,000 UNF
income
Working:
a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200
b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900
Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?
Answer: $26,282.25
Explanation:
The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.
Cash from tops
= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity
= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300
= $94,600
Cash from jeans
= ( 65 - 36) * 285
= $8,265
Cash from jeans
= (26 - 16) * -420
= -$4,200
As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.
Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000
= $22,665
Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)
= $14,732.25 + 11,550
= $26,282.25
ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
