$6,300 and $3,780 amounts would be included in cash from operations and cash from investing, respectively.So, Option E is the correct answer.
There are basically three different types of activities:
1. Operating activities: These include cash receipts and cash payments as well as other transactions that have an impact on working capital.
2. Investment activities: It keeps track of transactions involving the purchase and sale of fixed assets.
3. Financing activities: It keeps track of any actions that have an impact on shareholder equity and long-term liabilities.
Since the gain on the sale of the fixed asset is subtracted from the net income and the loss on the sale of the fixed asset is added, the operating activities are where the gain on the sale of the fixed asset is represented.
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Average labor productivity is determined by:
A) the real interest rate, the nominal interest rate, and the rate of inflation.
B) the number employed, unemployed, and the labor force participation rate.
C) consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
D) the quantity and quality of human capital, physical capital, technology, natural resources, entrepreneurship, and the legal and political environment.
Average labor productivity is determined by the quantity and quality of human capital, physical capital, technology, natural resources, entrepreneurship, and the legal and political environment. Labor productivity is a measure of how much output (goods or services) is produced in a given amount of time by a given number of workers.
It is determined by the quantity and quality of resources available to the workforce, including human capital (the knowledge and skills of the workforce), physical capital (machinery and tools), technology, natural resources, entrepreneurship, and the legal and political environment. By investing in these resources, businesses can increase their labor productivity, leading to increased economic output.
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Taxpayers whose only unearned income consists of qualified dividends and capital gain distributions reported to them on Form 1099-DIV generally compute the amount of tax on their income using what?
Taxpayers whose only unearned income consists of qualified dividends and capital gain distributions reported to them on Form 1099-DIV generally compute the amount of tax on their income using the tax rates that apply to long-term capital gains and qualified dividends.
What are Taxpayers?Generally, These tax rates are generally lower than the tax rates that apply to ordinary income, such as wages and salaries.
To calculate the tax on qualified dividends and capital gain distributions, taxpayers should first determine their taxable income, which is their total income from all sources, minus any deductions and exemptions to which they are entitled.
They should then determine their tax liability by applying the appropriate tax rates to their taxable income. The tax rates that apply to qualified dividends and long-term capital gains are based on the taxpayer's income tax bracket, which is determined by the amount of taxable income they have.
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Peter and Joan are married and Joan has self-employment income of $240,000. Peter is retired. How much additional 0.9% Medicare tax will Peter and Joan owe with their 2021 income tax return?
Peter and Joan's additional 0.9% Medicare tax due with their 2021 income tax return is $2160.
What about the income tax return? The completion of a tax return is the documentation that determines the amount of income made by a person or corporation, the amount of taxes to be paid to the government or government agencies and, potentially, the amount of taxes to be returned to the taxpayer.Taxes are one of the key ways that the government generates revenue. Both direct and indirect taxes, which are included in both tax categories, generate tax income.How it's calculated?The given dat is,
Total taxable income=$240,000
Medicare tax=0.9%
Income tax return=(Total taxable income× Medicare tax)
=$240,000×0.9%
Income tax return=$2160.
Peter and Joan's additional 0.9% Medicare tax due with their 2021 income tax return is $2160.
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During cold weather, skin appears pale because the blood vessels of the dermis undergo________ thereby reducing blood flow and heat loss.
During cold weather, skin appears pale because blood vessels of the dermis undergo vasoconstriction thereby reducing the blood flow and heat loss.
What is vasoconstriction?Vasoconstriction, which affects both big arteries and small arterioles, is the narrowing of blood vessels as a result of muscle wall contraction. The procedure is the antithesis of vasodilation, which widens blood arteries. The procedure is crucial for regulating bleeding and minimizing acute blood loss. Blood flow is restricted or reduced as a result of blood vessel constriction, which keeps body heat in or increases vascular resistance. Due to less blood reaching the skin's surface and decreased heat radiation, the skin becomes paler as a result. Vasoconstriction is a larger-scale method by which the body controls and maintains mean arterial pressure. One class of medication used to elevate blood pressure is a vasoconstrictor, commonly referred to as a vasoconstrictor medication.
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t/f: an organization should keep information, such as changes made to its incentive plan, confidential from its employees.
It is false that an organization should keep information, such as changes made to its incentive plan, confidential from its employees.
An employee remuneration system known as an incentive plan offers particular rewards to encourage team members to put in more effort and meet predetermined objectives.
This type of compensation goes beyond the pay check and benefits that all employees should receive for the hours they work. Incentive programmes frequently employ non-cash incentives like sports tickets, gift cards, or vacation days.
Incentives programmes are frequently used by business and organisational leaders to boost sales and maintain staff motivation. The idea is to strategically use incentives to encourage certain activities and match employee behaviour with organisational objectives.
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roasters corporation and outdoor barbecues inc. enter into a contract for a sale of a commercial grill. the contract requires roasters to deliver the goods to speedy delivery company for transport to outdoor. risk of loss passes to outdoor when
Risk of loss passes to Outdoor when d. Roasters gives you the products to Speedy.
The loss is what happens while the waste of an excellent or carrier produced (or even consumed) in an bizarre and involuntary manner inflicting the lower of the manufacturer's financial revenue. Loss isn't to be harassed with expense (not to mention cost), exactly due to its feature of abnormality and involuntary nature; it isn't a sacrifice made with the aim of acquiring revenue. Common examples: hearthplace losses, inventory obsolescence, etc.
These are objects that pass without delay to the profits account, in addition to expenses, however do now no longer constitute everyday sacrifices or voluntary derivatives of sports geared toward acquiring revenue. It may be very not unusualplace to apply the expression Material losses from the manufacture of severa goods; however, nearly all of these "losses" are, in reality, a cost, considering they're values sacrificed in a everyday manner withinside the manufacturing process, being a part of a sacrifice already recognized even in anticipation of acquiring the favored revenue.
(COMPLETE QUESTION)
Roasters Corporation and Outdoor Barbecues, Inc., enter into a contract for a sale of a commercial grill. The contract requires Roasters to deliver the goods to Speedy Delivery Company for transport to Outdoor. Risk of loss passes to Outdoor when
a. Speedy transports the goods to Outdoor.
b. Outdoor begins to use the grill.
c. Roasters and Outdoor enter into their contract.
d. Roasters delivers the goods to Speedy.
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The practice of treating employees as customers and developing systems and benefits that satisfy their needs is called _____.a. direct marketingb. global marketingc. personalized marketingd. internal marketing
The practice of treating employees as customers and developing systems and benefits that satisfy their needs is called internal marketing.
What does service marketing's internal marketing entail?The promotion of a company's goals, goods, and services to personnel inside the organisation is known as internal marketing. The goal is to build brand advocacy and raise staff involvement with the company's objectives.Internal marketing is treating workers like clients and creating policies and rewards that meet their requirements. Employees who like their work and are content with their employers are more likely to provide excellent service.While external marketing concentrates on selling to your external consumer, internal marketing concentrates on " selling " your goods or services to your internal customer.
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you should use the same dashboard to monitor your site's performance, regardless of business objectives and job roles.
You should use the same dashboard to monitor your site's performance, regardless of business objectives and job roles. This statement is false.
Why is performance monitoring crucial?
The effectiveness of employees in carrying out duties and achieving goals is measured and evaluated by HR with the use of frequent and consistent performance reviews. The organisation can only determine whether or not goals are being reached consistently with this continual measurement.
What aspects should be taken into account when evaluating performance?
Project status, achievements, obstacles, shifts in beneficiaries and context, trends, partner performance, cost effectiveness, broad observations, and follow-up issues are typical themes to take into account when monitoring.
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assume that g and t1 are the relevent curves and thatthe econommy is currently at b which is its full employment gdp
This economy has cyclically adjusted budget surplus and an actual budget surplus.
When revenue surpasses spending, there is a budget surplus. Since people have "savings" rather than a "budget surplus," the phrase is frequently used to describe the financial situation of a government. A government's ability to handle its finances properly is demonstrated by a surplus.
When revenue outpaces spending, a budget surplus results.
When a government has a surplus, it has extra funds that can be invested or applied to debt repayment.
The opposite of a surplus is a deficit. When spending outpaces income, the government must borrow money to pay for expenditures.
The United States last had a budget surplus in 2001.
The U.S. budget deficit in 2021 exceeded $2.8 trillion.
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(h) based on the change in the equilibrium real interest rate identified in part (g), what will happen to economic growth in the country in the long run? explain.
Because of increased government borrowing to fund spending, the equilibrium real interest rate will be higher, as stated in the explanation.
When interest rates rise, which of the following will occur?Consumers and corporations both reduce spending when interest rates are rising. Due to this, both stock prices and earnings will decrease. However, when interest rates have dropped significantly, firms and consumers will spend more, driving up stock values.
Which circumstance is most likely to result in a drop in interest rates and a rise in loanable money?Option (A): As the supply curve moves to the right, more loanable funds are available as households increase their savings and cut down on their consumption.
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Select the true statement regarding adverse possession of real property.
A possessor must occupy real property at the owner's invitation in order to qualify for adverse possession.
A possessor may acquire real property through adverse possession only if his or her possession has been continuous.
Adverse possession is more difficult to attain if the possessor's possession is openly visible to others.
Adverse possession is a common method of acquiring real property because its requirements are easily met.
Under adverse possession of real property, a possessor may acquire real property through adverse possession only if his or her possession has been continuous for a certain period of time.
This period of time is generally determined by state law and is typically between five and thirty years. In order to qualify for adverse possession, a possessor must occupy the property in a manner that is visible, notorious, and hostile to the true owner's right of possession. The possessor must also occupy the property continuously and exclusively for the designated period of time.
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are defined as relationships that salespeople build with customers outside the organization and working environment.
External relationships are defined as relationships that salespeople build with customers outside the organization and working environment.
What are External relationships?Generally, A link that is primarily commercial in nature between a smaller company and another organization is what is referred to as an external relationship. Alliances and networks are two frequent forms of interactions with parties external to the organization.
It may be beneficial to your career and your knowledge base to cultivate contacts with people who work in other companies outside of your own.
The reputation of a good facilities manager is intimately tied to their interactions with individuals within their business, but it may also be strengthened by the relationships they have with people outside of their organization.
Connections that are built outside of a business and the working environment are known as external ties. Salespeople are responsible for cultivating these relationships.
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toffel manufacturing has been requested by its employees' union to bargain with it. union representatives express interest in negotiating wages and working hours for its workers. management at the company declines to bargain with the union because any renegotiation would increase the company's operating costs. toffel manufacturing's refusal to bargain:
Toffel manufacturing's refusal to bargain is not permitted because employers and unions have a duty to bargain in good faith, and bargaining is mandatory for subjects relating to wages or working hours.
Refusal to bargain is a determination made by the administrative body that either the employer or the union did not negotiate "in good faith" in accordance with the statute's criteria.
Refusal to bargain is the result of the administrative body concluding that neither the employer nor the union engaged in "good faith" negotiations in line with the requirements of the statute.
The three primary categories of negotiation subjects are obligatory, permissible, and unlawful. The required category includes wages, health and safety, management rights, working conditions, and benefits. Topics that are permitted during the process are ones that are not required but may be discussed.
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T/F when whole foods market, the world's largest natural foods supermarket, acquired select fish, a fish processing company, it was an example of a conglomerate merger.
Conglomerate merger occurred when Whole Foods Market, the biggest natural foods supermarket in the world, bought Select Fish, a fish processing business.
Which of the following is a conglomerate merger example? A conglomerate merger is when two companies that conduct entirely unrelated commercial activity unite.Conglomerate mergers fall into two categories: pure, in which the two companies stay in their own markets, and mixed, in which the companies look to expand into other markets and product lines.Conglomerate merger occurred when Select Fish, a fish processing company, was acquired by Whole Foods Market, the largest natural foods supermarket in the world.Whole foods are typically defined as foods that have not been refined, processed, or given additional components.Whole foods include meat, fish, eggs, whole grains, legumes, nuts, seeds, and fruits and vegetables.Unprocessed food is referred to as whole food.Like our nkd. bars, they haven't been processed, manipulated, or modified in any way.Instead, whole foods are entirely organic and frequently served fresh from the ground.To learn more about conglomerate merger refer
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TRUE/FALSE. when children were randomly assigned to watch either a violent film or an exciting film about bicycle racing, and then played floor hockey, children who . group of answer choices
Even if hostility may be present in a violent act, this does not mean that an aggressive person would always act violently.
Can you be aggressive without being violent?Violence is different from aggression. Even if hostility may be present in a violent act, this does not mean that an aggressive person would always act violently. Although hostility can lead to a physical or verbal attack, these attacks can also be protective or impulsive and have no malicious purpose. Violence, which is frequently regarded as a physical manifestation of hostility, can be predatory, impulsive, defensive, or reactionary. In addition to mental illness, personal or cultural beliefs, situations or the environment can also play a role in the development of violence.On a societal as well as an individual level, both violence and aggression can have harmful impacts. A specific person or group of people may be the target of violent acts, which can also be of a sexual nature or happen after using alcohol or other drugs. According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), there will be around 16,000 homicides per year and 2 million trips to the emergency room in the US as a result of violent attacks. The likelihood that a young man would experience or inflict violence increases between the ages of 18 and 24.Nearly half of all American women have experienced psychological abuse from an intimate partner, while over a third of American women and over a quarter of American males have experienced stalking or physical or sexual abuse by an intimate partner.To Learn more About violent act refer to:
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The customer perspective of the balanced scorecard approach
a. evaluates the company from the viewpoint of those people who buy its products or services.
b. evaluates the internal operating processes critical to the success of the organization.
c. is the most traditional view of the company.
d. evaluates how well the company develops and retains its employees.
The customer perspective of the balanced scorecard approach evaluates the company from the viewpoint of those people who buy its products or services.
What is a balanced scorecard and what does it do?A balanced scorecard is a strategic management performance statistic that aids businesses in identifying and enhancing their internal processes in order to enhance their external outcomes. It evaluates historical performance data and offers organizations advice on how to make better decisions going forward.
Why is a balanced scorecard the best strategy?The balanced scorecard methodology aids organizations in creating key performance indicators (KPIs) for their varied strategic goals. This guarantees that businesses are measuring what is important. The BSC approach gives data-driven insight and high-quality management information to aid in decision-making.
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TRUE/FALSE. mncs might have been lured to invest in china not only by lower labor and material costs but also by china's friendly business practices. by the desire to preempt the entry of rivals into china's potentially huge market. by the desire to help chinese people. by more advanced technology.
It is true that multinational corporations (MNCs) might have been drawn to China for a variety of reasons, including lower labor cost and material costs.
Why MNCs might have been lured to invest in china?Various factors, such as reduced labor and material prices, China's friendlier business practices, the desire to thwart competitors' entry into China's enormous market which is potential, and the desire to aid the Chinese people, may have drawn multinational corporations (MNCs) to invest there. It's also probable that certain MNCs were drawn to China because it had access to more sophisticated technologies.
What serves as integration testing's primary objective?The major objective is to locate problems in the interaction of system components at various levels. The relationship between system components is examined during integration testing to ensure that it complies with all specifications.
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ignoring taxes, at the break-even point between a levered and an unlevered capital structure, the: multiple choice company is earning just enough to pay for the cost of the debt. earnings per share for the levered option are exactly double those of the unlevered option. company's earnings before interest and taxes are equal to zero. company has a debt-equity ratio of .50. advantages of leverage exceed the disadvantages of leverage.
ignoring taxes, at the break-even point between a levered and an unlevered capital structure, the company is earning just enough to pay for the cost of the debt.
What is debt?
An obligation to pay money or another agreed-upon value to a third party, the creditor, is known as a debt. Debt differs from an immediate purchase in that payments are deferred or made in installments. A debt is an amount of money that has been borrowed for a set period of time and must be repaid, plus interest. The borrower's creditworthiness affects both the debt's size and its acceptance. Secured debt, unsecured debt, revolving debt, and mortgages are the four basic categories of personal debt. Unsecured debt is primarily based on a person's creditworthiness, whereas secured debt involves some sort of collateral.
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Olena Mirrors records bad debt using the allowance, income statement method. 3 They recorded $343,160 in accounts receivable for the year and $577,930 in credit sales. The 4 uncollectible percentage is 4.4%. On May 10, Olena Mirrors identifies one uncollectible account 5 from Elsa Sweeney in the amount of $2,870. On August 12, Elsa Sweeney unexpectedly pays 5 $1,441 toward her account. Record journal entries for the followingA. Year-end adjusting entry for 2017 bad debtB. May 10, 2018 identification entryC. Entry for payment on August 12, 2018
A. Year-end adjusting entry for 2017 bad debt
In this case, the amount of estimated bad debt would be $343,160 * 4.4% = $15,039.60. The journal entry would be:
Debit Bad Debt Expense: $15,039.60
Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts: $15,039.60
The adjusting entry for 2017 bad debt at year-end would include a debit to Bad Debt Expense for the amount of the estimated bad debt, and a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, the contra asset account.
B. May 10, 2018 identification entry
The identification entry for the uncollectible account from Elsa Sweeney on May 10, 2018 would include a debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for the amount of the uncollectible account, and a credit to Accounts Receivable. The journal entry would be:
Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts: $2,870
Credit Accounts Receivable: $2,870
C. Entry for payment on August 12, 2018
Debit: Accounts Receivable $1,441
Credit: Cash $1,441
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Jim is opening an interest-accruing checking account which compounds interest monthly. The amount in the account, in dollars, after t years, is shown by the following expression.
3400(1.06\^12t
Which statement below best describes the base, 1.06?
O the amount of the initial deposit
O the rate at which the account is increasing
O the number of times the account has compounded since it was opened
O the amount of the yearly earnings
The amount in the account, in dollars, after t years, is shown by the number of times the account has compounded since it was opened.
What is interest-accruing?Accrued interests are typically calculated and recorded as adjusting journal entries in accrual-based accounting at the conclusion of a given accounting period. A bond's or loan's accrued interest is the interest that has built up since the main investment, or, if there has already been one, since the preceding coupon payment. For a type of obligation such as a bond, interest is computed and paid at defined periods (for instance annually or semi-annually) (for instance annually or semi-annually). Bonds and loans may be transferred between investors at any moment throughout the period between coupon payments, not simply when the bonds or loans are paid their coupons. If the bond is sold during the interval between coupons, the issue of who would possess the subsequent coupon is solved by accrued interest.
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An antidilution provision ensures that the selling of stock at a later date will increase the economic value of the venture capitalist's investment.
An antidilution provision ensures that the selling of stock at a later date will increase the economic value of the venture capitalist's investment.---False
Anti dilution Provision:In the event that new shares are issued, anti-dilution provisions give investors the right to maintain their ownership percentages. When new shares are issued, a shareholder's ownership decreases, which is referred to as dilution.
Venture capitalist:Private equity investors who provide capital in exchange for an equity stake to businesses with high growth potential are known as venture capitalists (VC). This could be supporting small businesses that want to grow but do not have access to equity markets or funding new businesses.
Venture capital is money invested in small businesses and startups, which typically carry a high level of risk but also have the potential for rapid expansion. A high return for the venture capital firm is the goal of a venture capital investment, typically in the form of an IPO or acquisition of the startup.
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Dozens of clothing manufacturers produce plain black undershirts. Consumers view plain black undershirts as identical and have no preference which company makes their undershirts. In a large city, one chain of coffee shops controls a large market share because locals believe its coffee tastes better than that of its competitors.
Yes, Dozens of companies produce plain white socks. Consumers regard plain white socks as identical and don't care who manufactures their socks is markets competitive.
No, In a large city, one chain of coffee shops has gained a large market share because customers feel its coffee tastes better than that of its competitors. It is one that is not identical product, buyers sees the sellers' products as one that is not identical.
What is markets competitive?In a competitive market, firms compete with one another for customers by offering goods and services at competitive prices. In order to be competitive, firms must offer products or services that are of good quality and at a price that is attractive to consumers.
In a competitive market, firms have limited control over the prices they can charge for their products or services. This is because if a firm raises its prices too high, consumers may choose to purchase from a competitor instead. Similarly, if a firm lowers its prices too much, it may not be able to cover its costs and may go out of business.
Therefore, Competitive markets can lead to lower prices and higher efficiency, as firms must continuously strive to improve their products and services in order to stay competitive. However, they can also be challenging for firms, as they must constantly adapt to changing market conditions and consumer preferences in order to remain competitive.
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See full question below
Is these markets competitive?
2. Dozens of companies produce plain white socks. Consumers regard plain white socks as identical and don't care who manufactures their socks
Consider a system of banking in which the Federal Reserve uses required reserves to control the money supply (as was the case in the United States before 2008). Assume that banks do not hold excess reserves and that households do not hold currency, so the only money exists in the form of demand deposits. To further simplify, assume the banking system has total reserves of $300. Determine the money multiplier as well as the money supply for each reserve requirement listed in the following table.Reserve Requirement (Percent) Simple Money Multiplier Money Supply (Dollars)5 10 A higher reserve requirement is associated with a_______money supply.Suppose the Federal Reserve wants to increase the money supply by $200. Maintain the assumption that banks do not hold excess reserves and that households do not hold currency. If the reserve requirement is 10%, the Fed will use open-market operations to_________worth of U.S. government bonds. Now, suppose that, rather than immediately lending out all excess reserves, banks begin holding some excess reserves due to uncertain economic conditions. Specifically, banks increase the percentage of deposits held as reserves from 10% to 25%. This increase in the reserve ratio causes the money multiplier______to______Under these conditions, the Fed would need to______worth of U.S. government bonds in order to $ to increase the money supply by $200. Which of the following statements help to explain why, in the real world, the Fed cannot precisely control the money supply? Check all that apply. O The Fed cannot control the amount of money that households choose to hold as currency. O The Fed cannot prevent banks from lending out required reserves. O The Fed cannot control whether and to what extent banks hold excess reserves.
As per the banking system, the higher reserve requirement is associated with a smaller money supply.
B) Here if the reserve requirement is 10%, then the Fed will use open-market operations to $200 worth of U.S. government bonds.
c) Here if the multiplier from consumer to manufacturer Under these conditions, the Fed would need to 10% worth of U.S. government
The term bank in economics refers an institution that deals in money and its substitutes and provides other money-related services.
While we looking into the given statement,
we have identified that reserve requirement is higher then the supply of the money will be reduced because of the reservation.
For example, in the Fed cannot control the amount of money that households choose to hold as currency.
For example, Suppose the Federal Reserve wants to increase the money supply by $200. Here they maintain the assumption that banks do not hold excess reserves and that households do not hold currency.
Which implies that the money value is not increasing because of the increase in supply.
Therefore, here the Fed cannot control whether and to what extent banks hold excess reserves.
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which of the following occurs when a person threatens not to perform a contract obligation unless the other party either signs another contract with the person making the threat or pays him or her a higher price than was specified in the original agreement? question 46 options: undue influence an arm's-length bargain due influence physical duress economic duress
Option b, economic duress occurs when a person threatens not to perform a contract obligation unless the other party either signs another contract with the person making the threat or pays him or her a higher price than was specified in the original agreement.
Economic duress refers to a situation when a party threatens to not follow the contract unless the other party involved in the contract accepts certain demands of the former. Economic duress can be claimed if the pressure created by the other party is unjustified and illegal. It can be claimed rightfully if the party has been forced to enter into a contract that it would have not entered otherwise.
Economic duress can be claimed by the party if they have not been left with a rightful choice or practical alternative but to accept the conditions. If one party threatens to not oblige with the contract signed and forces the other party to enter into a new contract with high price than the original contract, the innocent party can rightfully claim economic duress.
Complete options to the question are
a. Physical duress
b. Economic duress
c. Undue influence
d. Due influence
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which of the following is an example of a negative externality? group of answer choices bae's company has a decrease in profits when the demand for its product falls. rita gains weight while she is on vacation because she eats more than normal. when fazio parks his big truck at the grocery store, people in the cars on each side of his parking space have a hard time opening their car doors. raul loses weight because he wants to feel better, but the weight loss means that he needs new clothes.
The correct option here is, when Fazio parks his big truck at the grocery store, people in the cars on each side of his parking space have a hard time opening their car doors.
WHAT ARE NEGATIVE EXTERNALITIES?When a products or service's production and/or consumption have an adverse effect on a third party separate from the transaction, this is referred to as a negative externality. Two parties, referred to as the first and second parties in the transaction, are involved in a typical transaction: the producer and the consumer. Third parties are any other parties who are not involved in the transaction.
When it is challenging to hold people accountable, as is the case with environmental contamination, negative externalities frequently impact public resources. Without having to worry about legal action or penalties, producers or consumers may produce a negative externality.
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For each of the following situations, indicate what type of audit report is most appropriate:
a. The auditor lacks independence in fact, but not necessarily in appearance.
b. There is a scope limitation and it is material but the overall financial statements are still presented fairly.
c. The uncorrected misstatements are immaterial.
d. There is a departure from GAAP and it is pervasively material.
( Accounting Auditing)
For each of the following situations, the audit report is most appropriate is given below:
a. Disclaimer
b. Qualified
c. Unqualified/Unmodified
d. Adverse
What is an audit report?
An auditor's report is a formal opinion, or disclaimer thereof, published by an internal auditor or an independent external auditor as a consequence of an internal or external audit, as an assurance service to allow the user to base choices on the audit's findings.
The majority of the financial statements prepared for a calendar year or twelve months are covered by the auditor's view. The stakeholders, management, investors, and board of directors then use this report.
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Establishing prices for razor blades that must be used with a razor blade system is known as ________ pricing.
A. product bundle
B. by-product
C. market-penetration
D. product line
E. captive-product
Establishing prices for razor blades that must be used with a razor blade system is known as captive-product pricing.
What does "captive product price" entail?Businesses use the captive product pricing model to sell a main product and multiple accessories. The additional accessories—whether a physical item required to make the core product work or an add-on—are the captive product.
Being the only company selling the additional necessary accessory can add value because you'll get more sales from people buying your main product.
A printer and the ink it requires is an illustration of captive productive pricing. Really, there isn't any justification for purchasing a printer.
The ink necessary to use and give meaning to the core product is the accessory, often known as the captive product. In this illustration, a customer purchases the printer and then right away purchases ink (the accessory), knowing that it will not work without it.
Pricing captive products can increase sales and profit margins. Customers will be more devoted to a brand if they believe that accessories are necessary for the primary functionalities of the product.
How to Boost Sales by Using Captive Product Pricing?Consider employing the captive product pricing model if your company sells goods or services that serve a purpose or add value to other items.
Offering your primary product at a competitive price will draw in new clients. The captive product will then help you boost your profit margins and convert those one-time buyers into loyal customers.
When used effectively, captive product pricing can boost sales and create a base of devoted customers who are eager and ready to buy accessories to improve their experiences with your items.
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the balanced scorecard approach normally set the financial objectives first, and then sets the objectives in the other perspectives to accopmlish the financial objectives
Scorecards give management useful information on the service and quality of their company as well as its financial performance.
What exactly is a balanced scorecard?
The balanced scorecard is a strategy-based system for performance management that often establishes goals and benchmarks from four separate perspectives: the financial, the customer, the process, and the learning and development.
From a financial standpoint, a company's objective is to make sure that it realizes a profit on its investments and controls significant risks related to conducting business.
Therefore, A financial goal is a specific objective or target pertaining to the financial results, resources, and organizational structure of a corporation.
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juliet company accumulated the following account information for the year: using this information, total factory overhead costs would be
The correct answer to the question about Factory Overhead costs is option e) $13,000
The expenses incurred in the factory, excluding the costs of direct labor and direct materials, are those related to the manufacturing process. Typically, cost pools of factory overhead are created and distributed to the units produced throughout the time period. When the created units are eventually sold as finished items or written off, the cost is tacked onto the expense. In contrast to absorption costing, which requires it, direct costing avoids allocating production overhead to the number of units produced. According to the requirements of the main accounting frameworks, the allocation of manufacturing overhead is necessary for creating financial statements.
Question
Juliet company accumulated the following account information for the year: using this information, total factory overhead costs would be
Beginning raw materials inventory $6,000
Indirect materials cost $2,000
Indirect labor cost $5,000
Maintenance of factory equipment $2,800
Direct labor cost $7,000
Options
$16,800$15,800$7,800$9,800$13,000To learn more about factory overhead click here
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Which one of the following is one of the techniques recommended regarding making a favorable first impression before the start of a presentation?
Group of answer choices
Extend a greeting to those entering the room after you.
Show a slide explaining why you are giving this presentation.
Busy yourself setting up your equipment since doing so looks professional
One of the techniques recommended for making a favorable first impression before the start of a presentation is to extend a greeting to those entering the room after you.
What are some techniques for first impression before the start of a presentation?Greeting the audience as they enter the room can help create a friendly and welcoming atmosphere, which can set the tone for a successful presentation.It is not typically recommended to show a slide explaining why you are giving the presentation or to busy yourself setting up your equipment before the start of the presentation. While these actions may be necessary for preparing for the presentation, they may not necessarily contribute to creating a favorable first impression.To make a favorable first impression before the start of a presentation, it is generally recommended to be friendly and approachable, to dress appropriately for the occasion, and to make eye contact and smile as you greet the audience. These actions can help put the audience at ease and establish a positive rapport from the outset.To learn more about presentation refer :
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