A cylindrical 5.00-kg reel with a radius of 0.600 m and a frictionless axle, starts from rest and speeds up uniformly as a 3.00-kg bucket falls into a well, making a light rope unwind from the reel. The bucket starts from rest and falls for 4.00 s.

Required:
a. What is the linear acceleration of the falling bucket?
b. How far does it drop?
c. What is the angular acceleration of the reel?

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for determining the Emf induced in a loop is:

[tex]\varepsilon = \dfrac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = \dfrac{d (B*A)}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = A \times \dfrac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = (side (l))^2 \times \dfrac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

where;

square area A = ( l²)

l² = 6.0 cm = 6.0 × 10⁻²

∴

[tex]\varepsilon = ( 6.0 \times 10^{-2})^2 \times 5.0 \times 10^{-3} \ T/S[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon =18 \times 10^{6} \ V[/tex]

Recall that:

The resistivity of copper = [tex]1.68 \times 10^{-8}[/tex] ohm m

We can as well say that the length of the copper wire = perimeter of the square loop;

The perimeter of the square loop = 4L

Thus, the length of the copper wire  = 4 (6.0 × 10⁻² )m

= 24× 10⁻² m

Finally, the current in the loop is determined from the formula:

V = IR

where,

V = voltage

I = current and R = resistance of the wire

Making "I" the subject:

I = V/R

where;

[tex]R = \dfrac{\rho \times l}{A}[/tex]

[tex]R = \dfrac{\rho \times l}{\pi * r^2}[/tex]

[tex]R = \dfrac{1.68 *10^{-8} \times 24*10^{-2}}{\pi * (1*10^{-3})^2}[/tex]

[tex]R = 0.001283 \ ohms[/tex]

∴

[tex]I = \dfrac{18*10^{-6}}{0.001283}[/tex]

I = 14.029 mA

Answer:

Hazards during late childhood

Answer:

I think the answer is A...I'm not sure

Explanation:

A=(6,4)

B=(-2,-1)

A-B=(6-(-2)),(4-(-1))

=(6+2),(4+1)

=(8,5)

Answer:

[tex]6-(-2)=[/tex]

[tex]6+2[/tex]

[tex]=8[/tex]

[tex]4-\left(-1\right)[/tex]

[tex]=4+1[/tex]

[tex]=5[/tex]

[tex](8,5)[/tex]

[tex]\textbf{OAmalOHopeO}[/tex]

Answer:

the force decreases by a factor of 4

Explanation:

The expression for the law of universal gravitation is

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

let's call the force Fo for the distance r

          F₀ = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

They indicate that the distance doubles

          r ’= 2 r

we substitute

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{(r')^2}[/tex]

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2} \ \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

          F = ¼ F₀

consequently the correct answer is that the force decreases by a factor of 4

If the distance between two large masses are doubled, the gravitational force between them weakens by a factor of 4.

Let the initial force be F

Let the initial distance apart be r

Thus, we can obtain the final force as follow:

Initial force (F₁) = F

Initial distance apart (r₁) = r

Final distance apart (r₂) = 2r

F = GM₁M₂ / r²

Fr² = GM₁M₂ (constant)

Thus,

F₁r₁² = F₂r₂²

Fr² = F₂(2r)²

Fr² = F₂4r²

Divide both side by 4r²

F₂ = Fr² /4r²

From the illustration above, we can see that when the distance (r) is doubled, the force (F) is decreased (i.e weakens) by a factor of 4

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/975812

Answer:

[tex]F_r=0.132:0.25[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

[tex]M_1=M*\frac{1}{6.334}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]M_2=M-M*\frac_{1}{6.334}[/tex]

[tex]M_2=M*\frac{5.334}{6.334}[/tex]

Generally the equation for Gravitational force of attraction is mathematically given by

For Unequal split

[tex]F=\frac{GM_1M_2}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{G(M*\frac_{1}{6.334})(M*\frac{5.334}{6.334})}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{GM^2}{d^2}*(0.132)[/tex]

For equal split

[tex]F=\frac{GM_1M_2}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]F=\frac{G(\frac{M}{2})((\frac{M}{2}}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]F=0.25 \frac{GM^2}{d^2}[/tex]

Therefore the ratio of the gravitational force is

[tex]F_r=0.132:0.25[/tex]

Answer:

0

Explanation:

The speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 0 because when an object is at rest or in uniform motion, it has no speed/velocity

The final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

The conservation of energy is a fundamental principle in physics that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but only converted from one form to another or transferred from one system to another. In other words, the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant over time, even though it may be converted from one form to another.

This principle is based on the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the total energy of a closed system is always conserved, and can only be changed by the transfer of heat, work, or matter into or out of the system. The conservation of energy has important applications in various fields of physics, including mechanics, thermodynamics, and electromagnetism, and is a fundamental principle in the understanding of the natural world.

Here in the Question,

We can use the conservation of energy to solve this problem. Initially, the ball has kinetic energy due to its motion on the tabletop, but no potential energy since it is at a constant height. When the ball rolls off the edge of the table, it loses some kinetic energy due to friction but gains potential energy as it moves upward. When it reaches the floor, it has gained potential energy but lost kinetic energy due to friction. We can assume that the energy lost due to friction is converted to thermal energy, so the total energy of the system is conserved.

Let's start by calculating the potential energy gained by the ball as it moves from the edge of the table to the floor:

ΔPE = mgh

where ΔPE is the change in potential energy, m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the vertical distance traveled by the ball.

ΔPE = (0.50 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m) = 4.905 J

Now we can use the conservation of energy to find the final kinetic energy of the ball, which will allow us to calculate its final speed:

KEi + ΔPEi = KEf + ΔPEf

where KEi and ΔPEi are the initial kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively, and KEf and ΔPEf are the final kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively.

Since the ball is not bouncing, we can assume that its initial and final potential energies are zero. Therefore:

KEi = KEf + ΔKE

where ΔKE is the change in kinetic energy due to friction.

We can assume that the coefficient of kinetic friction between the ball and the incline is constant, and use the work-energy principle to find ΔKE:

Wfric = ΔKE

where Wfric is the work done by friction.

The work done by friction can be expressed as:

Wfric = ffricd

where ffric is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled by the ball on the incline.

The force of friction can be expressed as:

ffric = μmg

where μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction, and m and g have their usual meanings.

Putting it all together, we get:

KEi = KEf + ffricd

KEi = KEf + μmgd

(1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)mu^2 + μmgd

v^2 = u^2 + 2gd

where u is the initial speed of the ball on the tabletop, and v is the final speed of the ball on the floor.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

v^2 = (5.0 m/s)^2 + 2(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m)

v^2 = 50.405

v = 7.10 m/s

Therefore, the final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

To learn more about  the Law of Conservation of Momentum click:

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Explanation:

Hi Linda,

How's it going?

Sorry I haven't been in touch for such a long time but I've had exams so I've been studying every free minute. Anyway, I'd love to hear all your news and I'm hoping we can get together soon to catch up. We just moved to a bigger flat so maybe you can come and visit one weekend?

How's the new job?

Looking forward to hearing from you!

Helga

Answer:

Un objeto se encuentra en equilibrio físico si la fuerza neta que se le aplica es igual a 0.

En este caso solo se aplican fuerzas en el eje horizontal, por lo que las podremos sumar directamente.

La persona A aplica una fuerza:

Fa = -3N

La persona B aplica una fuerza:

Fb = 5N

La persona C aplica una fuerza Fc, la cual aún no conocemos.

Pero sabemos que la caja está en equilibrio físico, por lo que:

Fa + Fb + Fc = 0N

reemplazando los valores que conocemos, obtenemos:

-3N + 5N + Fc = 0N

Ahora podemos resolver esto para Fc, la fuerza que aplica la persona C.

Fc = 0N + 3N - 5N

Fc = -2N

Podemos concluir que la persona C aplica una fuerza horizontal de -2N

Answer:

1.24

Explanation:

The resistivity of copper[tex]\rho_1=2.65\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m[/tex]

The resistivity of Aluminum,[tex]\rho_2=1.72\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m[/tex]

The wires have same resistance per unit length.

The resistance of a wire is given by :

[tex]R=\rho \dfrac{l}{A}\\\\R=\rho \dfrac{l}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}\\\\\dfrac{R}{l}=\rho \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}[/tex]

According to given condition,

[tex]\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_1}{2})^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_2}{2})^2}\\\\\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{{d_1}^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{{d_2}^2}\\\\(\dfrac{d_2}{d_1})^2=\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{2.65\times 10^{-8}}{1.72\times 10^{-8}}}\\\\=1.24[/tex]

So, the required ratio of the diameter of Aluminum to Copper wire is 1.24.

Answer:

B has greater potential

Explanation:

We know;

Potential Energy (PE) = mgh

where, m=mass of body

g=acceleration due to gravity

h=height of body

From the formula,

PE is directly proportional to the mass of the body

so the body with greater mass has greater potential.

Check attached photo

Check attached photo

Answer:

Explanation:

1. If C = A + B then the lines A and B may have the same magnitude or they may not. The direction of A for example may be northwest ↖️ and the direction of B must be south ⬇️ because the arrow of A and the point of B must connect. Then C’s direction is west ⬅️ because it shouldn’t be as equilibrium.

2. If C = 0 t means the force is at equilibrium. That means all forces add up to zero. A’s direction for example may be northeast ↗️ and the direction of B may be south ⬇️ and the direction of C must be west if it has to be at equilibrium.

The magnitude of A and B must be equal

Explanation:

[tex]qV = \frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 2 and then divide by m to get

[tex]\dfrac{2qV}{m} = v^2[/tex]

Take the square root of both sides to get

[tex]v = \sqrt{\dfrac{2qV}{m}}[/tex]

Answer:

0.37 m

Explanation:

Given :

Window height, [tex]h_1[/tex] = 1.27 m

The flowerpot falls 0.84 m off the window height, i.e.

[tex]h_2[/tex] = (1.27 x 0.84 ) m in a time span of [tex]$t=\frac{8}{30}$[/tex]   seconds.

Assuming that the speed of the pot just above the window is v then,

[tex]h_2=ut+\frac{1}{2}gt^2[/tex]

[tex]$(1.27 \times 0.84) = v \times \left( \frac{8}{30} \right) + \frac{1}{2} \times 9.81 \times \left( \frac{8}{30} \right)^2$[/tex]

[tex]$v=\left(\frac{30}{8}\right) \left[ (1.27 \times 0.84) - \left( \frac{1}{2} \times 9.81 \times \left( \frac{8}{30 \right)^2 \right) \right]}$[/tex]

[tex]$v= 2.69$[/tex] m/s

Initially the pot was dropped from rest. So,  u = 0.

If it has fallen from a height of h above the window then,

[tex]$h = \frac{v^2}{2g}$[/tex]

[tex]$h = \frac{(2.69)^2}{2 \times 9.81}$[/tex]

h = 0.37 m

Answer:

"the minimum frequency of radiation that will produce a photoelectric effect."

Explanation:

That answer was derived from gogle cuz my explanations was harder to explain but good luck

Your friend would have a better experience of this event, than you .

An eclipse is produced when a planetary body moves in front of another planetary body and is visible from a third planetary body. Considering the sun, moon, and earth's locations in relation to one another during the time of the eclipse,

there are various types of eclipses in our solar system. For instance, a lunar eclipse occurs when the earth passes between the moon and the sun.

For the solar eclipse to happen the light from the sun is obstructed by the moon observing from the earth.

The buddies left Earth because they could view the whole eclipse, but you were on the moon and only saw parts of the eclipse turn black.

To learn more about the eclipse from here, refer to the link;

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The aspect of the US justice system that has its roots in Jewish scripture is:

the idea that all people are subject to the same rules and laws.

It is the doctrine of "equality before the law."  Equality before the law means that every individual is equal in the eyes of the law, whether the individual is a lawmaker, a judge, a law enforcement officer, etc.  Equality before the law is also known as equality under the law, equality in the eyes of the law, legal equality, or legal egalitarianism.  It is a legal principle that treats each independent being equally and subjects each to the same laws of justice and due process.

Answer:

answer is C

the idea that all people are subject to the same rules and laws

Explanation:

hope this helps!

Answer:

a)  [tex]P=0.80[/tex]

b)  [tex]1.25Hz[/tex]

c)  [tex]A=25cm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Travel Time [tex]T=0.40s[/tex]

Distance [tex]d=50cm[/tex]

a)

Period

Time taken to complete one oscillation

Therefore

[tex]P=2*T\\\\P=2*0.40[/tex]

[tex]P=0.80[/tex]

b)

Frequency is

[tex]F=\frac{1}{T}\\\\F=\frac{1}{0.80}[/tex]

[tex]1.25Hz[/tex]

c)

Amplitude:the distance between the mean and extreme position

[tex]A=\frac{50}{2}[/tex]

[tex]A=25cm[/tex]

Answer:

valance electrons are shared between oxygen atoms.. making them have eight in the outer most shells.

I hope this helps

Answer:

he is a baby art and design

Answer:

The unit of the time constant RC is the second

Explanation:

The unit of resistance, R is the Ohm, Ω and resistance, R = V/I where V = voltage and I = current. The unit of voltage is the volt, V while the unit of current is the ampere. A.

Since R = V/I

Unit of R = unit of V/unit of I

Unit of R = V/A

Ω = V/A

Also, The unit of capacitance, C is the Farad, F and capacitance, F = Q/V where Q = charge and V = voltage. the unit of charge is the coulomb, C while the unit of voltage is the volt, V

Since C = Q/V

Unit of C = unit of Q/unit of V

Unit of C = C/V

F = C/V

Now the time constant equals RC.

So, the unit of the time constant = unit of R × unit of C = Ω × F = V/A × C/V = C/A

Also. we know that the  1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb per second

1 A = 1 C/s

So, substituting 1 A in the denominator, we have

unit of RC =  C/A = C ÷ C/s = s

So, the unit of RC = s = second

So, the unit of the time constant RC is the second

Answer:

24m

Explanation:

you can use the formula

s=ut+1/2at²

s=0+1/2(3)(4)²

=1/2(3)(8)

=24m

I hope this helps

Answer:

Alpha particles are more massive than beta particles.

Explanation:

The alpha particles are also called double-positive Heilum Nuclei because they have a charge of "+2" and a mass of 4 a.m.u. The properties of the alpha particles are as follows:

1. It possesses high energy due to high velocity. It is 7.7 MeV for most energetic from Rac (i.e: Bismuth-214)

2. It has a very high ionizing power. A 7.7 MeV particle produces about 0.2 x 10⁶ ions.

3. The range of alpha particles is very small. It is about 7 x 10⁻² m and only 4 x 10⁻⁵ m in aluminum for 7.7 MeV alpha-particle.

4. Alpha particles produce fluorescence on striking certain substances, such as zinc sulphide and bariumplatinocynide.

The beta particles are fast-moving electrons, which have a negligible mass.  

Hence, the correct option is:

Alpha particles are more massive than beta particles.

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic field is 1.83 x [tex]10^{-5}[/tex] T.

Explanation:

The flow of an electric current in a straight wire induces magnetic field around the wire. When current is flowing through two wires in the same direction, a force of attraction exists between the wires. But if the current flows in opposite directions, the force of repulsion is felt by the wires.

In the given question, the direction of flow of current through the wires is opposite, thus both wires applies the same field on each other. The result to repulsion between them.

The magnetic field (B) between the given wires can be determined by:

B = [tex]\frac{U_{o}I }{2\pi r}[/tex]

where: I is the current, r is the distance between the wires and [tex]U_{0}[/tex] is the magnetic field constant.

But, I = 11 A, r = 0.12 m and [tex]U_{0}[/tex] = 4[tex]\pi[/tex] x [tex]10^{-7}[/tex] Tm/A

So that;

B = [tex]\frac{4\pi *10^{-7}*11 }{2\pi *0.12}[/tex]

   = 1.8333 x [tex]10^{-5}[/tex]

B = 1.83 x [tex]10^{-5}[/tex] T

Answer:

1.74×10⁻³ m

Explanation:

Applying,

ε = Stress/strain............. Equation 1

Where ε = Young's modulus

But,

Stress = F/A.............. Equation 2

Where F = Force, A = Area

Strain = e/L.............. Equation 3

e = extension, L = Length.

Substitute equation 2 and 3 into equation 1

ε = (F/A)/(e/L) = FL/eA............. Equation 4

From the question,

Given: F = 285 N, L = 29 cm = 0.29 m, ε = 5.00×10⁹ N/m²,

A = πd²/4 = 3.14(0.0011²)/4 = 9.4985×10⁻⁶ m²

Substitute these values into equation 4

5.00×10⁹ = (285×0.29)/(9.4985×10⁻⁶×e)

Solve for e

e = (285×0.29)/(5.00×10⁹×9.4985×10⁻⁶)

e = 82.65/4.74925×10⁴

e = 1.74×10⁻³ m

Answer:

A circuit with two 10 ohm resistors connected in series.

Explanation:

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in parallel is

[tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2}[/tex]   So if R1=R2= 10  [tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} = \frac{2}{10} <=> Rt =\frac{10}{2} =5 ohm[/tex]

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in series is

Rt = R1 + R2  So Rt= 10 + 10 = 20

Answer:

the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the particle, m = 6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

velocity of the particle, v = 8.7 x 10⁵ m/s

strength of the magnetic field, B = 1.3 T

radius of the circle, r = 18 mm = 1.8 x 10⁻³ m

The magnetic force experienced by the charge is calculated as;

F = ma = qvB

where;

q is the charge of the particle

a is the acceleration of the charge in the circular path

[tex]a = \frac{v^2}{r} \\\\ma = qvB\\\\q = \frac{ma}{vB} \\\\q = \frac{mv^2}{rvB} = \frac{mv}{rB} \\\\q = \frac{(6.64\times 10^{-27} ) \times (8.7\times 10^5)}{(1.8\times 10^{-2}) \times (1.3)} \\\\q = 2.47 \ \times 10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

Therefore, the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Answer:

a)  a = 5.3 km, b) sum fulfills the commutative property

Explanation:

This is a vector exercise, If you drive east from north, we can find the vector using the Pythagorean theorem

              R² = a² + b²

where R is the resultant vector R = 7.5 km and the others are the legs

If we assume that the two legs are equal to = be

             R² = 2 a²

             r = √2 a

             a = r /√2

we calculate

             a = 7.5 /√2

             a = 5.3 km

therefore, you must drive 5.3 km east and then 5.3 km north and you will reach the same point

b) As the sum fulfills the commutative property, the order of the elements does not alter the result

         a + b = b + a

therefore, it does not matter in what order the path is carried out, it always reaches the same end point

Answer:

ask in the English then I can help you

Explanation:

please mark me as brain list

Answer:

If a liquid is heated the particles are given more energy and move faster and faster expanding the liquid. The most energetic particles at the surface escape from the surface of the liquid as a vapour as it gets warmer. Liquids evaporate faster as they heat up and more particles have enough energy to break away