A cyclist moves effortlessly at a constant speed of 12 m / s, but enters a muddy area where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.60. Will the rider leave the muddy area without having to pedal if the mud extends 11m? If so, how fast will it emerge?

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:4 times more energy will be striking the childbearing

Explanation:

Because Volume is directly proportional to amplitude of sound. Energy is proportional to amplitude squared. If you triple the amplitude, you multiply the energy by 4

Answer:

602.27 kg

Explanation:

The computation of the largest mass of cargo the balloon can lift is shown below:-

Volume of helium inside the ballon= (4 ÷ 3) × π × r^3

= (4 ÷ 3) × 3.14 × 6.953

= 1406.19 m3

Mass the balloon can carry = volume × (density of air-density of helium)

= 1406.19 × (1.29-0.179)

= 1562.27 kg

Mass of cargo it can carry = Mass it can carry - Mass of structure

= 1562.27 - 960

= 602.27 kg

Answer:

The distance is [tex]y = 0.00162 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 486 \ nm = 486 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

   The  slit spacing is  [tex]d = 0.600 \ mm = 0.60 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

    The distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 2.0 \ m[/tex]

 Generally the distance along the screen between adjacent bright fringes is mathematically represented as  

        [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D}{d}[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]y = \frac{ 486 *10^{-9} * 2}{0.6*10^{-3}}[/tex]

         [tex]y = 0.00162 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Explanation:

Given;

Tension on the string, T = 120 N

initial speed of the transverse wave, v₁ = 170 m/s

final speed of the transverse wave, v₂ = 180 m/s

The speed of the wave is given as;

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

where;

μ is mass per unit length

[tex]v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \\\\\mu = \frac{T}{v^2} \\\\\frac{T_1}{v_1^2} = \frac{T_2}{v_2^2}[/tex]

The final tension T₂ will be calculated as;

[tex]T_2 = \frac{T_1 v_2^2}{v_1^2} \\\\T_2 = \frac{120*180^2}{170^2} \\\\T_2 = 134.53 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Answer:

C

They allow light to pass only if their directions of polarizations are exactly 90° apart.

Answer:

1. the sphere of the radius a

Explanation:

Because the charge distribution for each case is spherically symmetric, we can choose a spher- ical Gaussian surface of radius r , concentric with the sphere in question.

So E = k (Q /r 2) (for r ≥ R ) , where R is the radius of the sphere being considered, either a or b .

With the choice of potential at r = ∞ being zero, the electric potential at any distance r from the center of the sphere can be expressed as V = - integraldisplay r ∞ E dr = k /Q r

(for r ≥ R ) .

On the spheres of radii a and b , we have V a = k (Q/ a)and V b = k (Q/ b), respectively.

So Since b > a , the sphere of radius a will have the higher potential.

Also recall Because E = 0 inside a conductor, the potential

Answer:

y = 20.99 V / A

there is no friction    y = 20.99 h

Explanation:

Let's solve this exercise in parts: first find the thrust on the block when it is submerged and then use the conservation of energy

when the block of ice is submerged it is subjected to two forces its weight  hydrostatic thrust

              F_net= ∑F = B-W

the expression stop pushing is

              B = ρ_water g V_ice

where rho_water is the density of pure water that we take as 1 10³ kg / m³ and V is the volume d of the submerged ice

We can write the weight of the body as a function of its density rho_hielo = 0.913 10³ kg / m³

             W = ρ-ice g V

              F_net = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g V

this is the net force directed upwards, we can find the potential energy with the expression

            F = -dU / dy

            ΔU = - ∫ F dy

            ΔU = - (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g ∫ (A dy) dy

            ΔU = - (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

we evaluate between the limits y = 0,  U = 0, that is, the potential energy is zero at the surface

             U_ice = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

now we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

starting point. Ice depth point

             Em₀ = U_ice = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

final point. Highest point of the block

             [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = U = m g y

as there is no friction, energy is conserved

            Em₀ = Em_{f}

            (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2 = mg y

let's write the weight of the block as a function of its density

            ρ_ice = m / V

            m = ρ_ice V

we substitute

             (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2 = ρ_ice V g y

              y = ρ_ice / (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) 2 V / A

let's substitute the values

             y = 0.913 / (1 - 0.913) 2 V / A

             y = 20.99 V / A

This is the height that the lower part of the block rises in the air, we see that it depends on the relationship between volume and area, which gives great influence if there is friction, as in this case it is indicated that there is no friction

                V / A = h

where h is the height of the block

                 y = 20.99 h

Answer:

B

8.5 km/h east

Explanation:

Relative velocity= Va -Vb

=10-1.5

=8.5 km/h east

The concept relative speed is used when two or more bodies moving with some speed are considered. The relative speed of woman to the boat is 8.5 km/h east. The correct option is B.

The relative speed of two bodies is defined as the sum of their speeds if they are moving in the opposite direction and it is the difference of their speeds if they are moving in the same direction.

The speed of the moving body with respect to the stationary body is known as the relative speed. The term relative means in comparison to. The relative speed is a scalar quantity.

Here both the boat and women are travelling in the same direction. So the relative speed is given as:

Relative speed = 10 - 1.5 = 8.5 km / h

Therefore the relative speed is 8.5 km/h east.

Thus the correct option is B.

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Answer:

b. Third Law entropy  

Explanation:

Third law entropy: In physics, the term "third law entropy" or "the third law of thermodynamics" states that the specific entropy of a particular system at "absolute zero" is considered as a "well-defined constant". It occurs because any system at "zero temperature"  tends to exists or persists in its "ground state" in order for the entropy to be determined or described only by the "degeneracy" of the given ground state.

In the question above, the correct answer is option b.

Answer:

The percentage is  [tex]k = 12.5 \%[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  axis is is  at  [tex]\theta = 45 ^o[/tex]

Generally the of intensity light emerging from the first polarizer is mathematically represented as

                [tex]I_{1} = \frac{I_o}{ 2}[/tex]

Where  [tex]I_o[/tex] is the intensity of unpolarized light

       Now the light emerging from the second polarizer is mathematically represented as

         [tex]I_2 = I_ 1 * cos ^2(\theta )[/tex]

         [tex]I_2 = \frac{I_o}{2} * cos ^2(45 )[/tex]

        [tex]I_2 = \frac{I_o}{2} * \frac{1}{2} = \frac{I_o}{4}[/tex]

  Now the light emerging from the third  polarizer is mathematically represented as      

       [tex]I_3 = I_ 2 * cos ^2(\theta )[/tex]

       [tex]I_3 = \frac{I_o}{4} * cos ^2(45 )[/tex]

      [tex]I_3 = \frac{I_o}{8}[/tex]

Now the percentage of the intensity of light that emerged with respect to the intensity of  the unpolarized light is

      [tex]k = \frac{\frac{I_o}{8} }{I_o } * 100[/tex]

     [tex]k = 12.5 \%[/tex]

The percentage of light that gets through the three successive Polaroid filters is; 12.5%

We are given;

Angle of transmission axis; θ = 45°

Formula for intensity of light from first polarizer is;

I₁ = ¹/₂I₀

Formula for intensity of light from second polarizer is;

I₂ = I₁cos²θ

Formula for intensity of light from third polarizer is;

I₃ = I₂cos²(90 - θ)

Combining the 3 equations;

Put ¹/₂I₀ for I₁ in second formula to get;

I₂ = ¹/₂I₀cos²θ

Put ¹/₂I₀cos²θ for I₂ in third formula to get;

I₃ = ¹/₂I₀cos²θ*cos²(90 - θ)

Plugging in 45° for θ gives;

I₃ = ¹/₂I₀cos²45*cos²(90 - 45)

⇒ I₃ = ¹/₂I₀cos²45*cos²45

⇒ I₃ = ¹/₂I₀cos⁴45

Now, cos 45 in surd form is 1/√2. Thus;

I₃ = ¹/₂I₀(1/√2)⁴

I₃ = ¹/₂I₀(¹/₄)

I₃ = ¹/₈I₀

I₃/I₀ = ¹/₈

I₃/I₀ = 0.125

In percentage form, we have;

I₃/I₀ = 12.5%

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Answer:

c. 1.11 m/s down

Explanation:

Momentum is conserved.

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Assuming the balloon and projectile are originally at rest:

(90 kg) (0 m/s) + (10 kg) (0 m/s) = (90 kg) v + (10 kg) (10 m/s)

0 kg m/s = (90 kg) v + 100 kg m/s

v = -1.11 m/s

Answer:

In an adiabatic process we have

pV γ = const..

This explains that the pressure is a function of volume, p ( V ) ,

So can be written as:

p ( V ) × V γ = p 0 V γ 0 ,

or p ( V ) = p 0 V 0 / V γ

= p 0 V 0 / V ^(7 / 5)

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is 0.0982 T.m²

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.5 T

radius of the loop, r = 0.25 m

Area of the loop is given by;

A = πr²

A = 3.142 x (0.25)²

A = 0.1964 m²

The magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is given by;

Ф = BA

Where;

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field

A is area of the field

Ф = 0.5 x 0.1964

Ф = 0.0982 T.m²

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is 0.0982 T.m²

Answer:

3.9E-8

Explanation:

We know that

Mv²/r = Bqv

So

r= mv/Bq

But E is 1/2mv² which is 5.53eV

m²v² =2m x 5.53eV

mv = √( 2 x 9.1E-31)

So

r= √( 2 x9.1E-31 x 5.53)/ 7.83x10^-4 x1.6E-19

= 3.9x10-8cm

​

Explanation:

Answer:

2035

Explanation:

The doctor does not travel with the woman, and therefore, he won't experience any relativistic effect on his time. The doctor will judge time by the time here on earth. Technically, the last new year's day the doctor, who is here on earth, would expect the woman to celebrate will be in 2020 + 15 years = 2035

Answer:

statement 1 with answer C

statement 2 with answer F

statement 3 with answer B

Statement 1 with E

Statement 2 with A

Statement 3 with D

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to relate each with the answers

In general, in the optics diagram,

* Ray 1 is a horizontal ray that after stopping by the optical system goes to the focal point

* Ray 2 is a ray that passes through the intercept point between the optical axis and the system and does not deviate

* Ray 3 is a ray that passes through the focal length and after passing the optical system, it comes out horizontally.

With these statements, let's review the answers

statement 1 with answer C

statement 2 with answer F

statement 3 with answer B

Statement 1 with E

Statement 2 with A

Statement 3 with D

Answer:

the net work is zero

Explanation:

Work is defined by the expression

        W = F. ds

Bold type indicates vectors

In this problem, the friction force does not decrease, therefore it will be zero.

Consequently for work on a closed path it is zero.

The work in going from the initial point (0, 0, 0) to the end of each segment is positive and when it returns from the point of origin the angle is 180º, therefore the work is negative, consequently the net work is zero

Answer:

The velocity is  [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The speed of the roller coaster at ground level  is [tex]v = 26 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally we can define the roller coaster speed at ground level using the an equation of motion as

     [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2 g s[/tex]

 u is  zero given that the roller coaster started from rest

      So

            [tex]26^2 = 0 + 2 * g * s[/tex]

So  

           [tex]s = \frac{26^2}{ 2 * g }[/tex]

=>       [tex]s = 37.6 \ m[/tex]

Now the displacement half way is mathematically represented as

    [tex]s_{h} = \frac{37.6}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]s_{h} = 18.8 \ m[/tex]

So

      [tex]v_h ^2 = u^2 + 2 * g * s_h[/tex]

Where  [tex]v_h[/tex] is the velocity at the half way point

=>  [tex]v_h = \sqrt{ 0 + 2 * 9.8 * 18.8 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

E = 1336.71875 J

Explanation:

We are given;. Capacitance of Capacitor 1; C1 = 10.7 µF

Capacitor 2; C2 = 23.0 µF

Capacitor 3; C3 = 29.3 µF

Supply voltage;V = 125 V

Formula for capacitance in series is;

Capacitors in series circuit: C(eq) = 1/C(1) +1/C(2) +1/C(3) .......

Thus, equivalent capacitance is;

C(eq) = (1/10.7) + (1/23) + (1/29.3) = 0.1711 µF = 0.1711 × 10^(6) F

Now, the formula for maximum energy stored is;

E = ½ × C(eq) × V²

E = ½ × 0.1711 × 10^(-6) × 125²

E = 1336.71875 J

Answer:

Explanation:

a )

moment of inertia in the first case will be sum of moment of inertia of two balls + moment of inertia of bar

= 2 x .700 x (2.1 / 2 )² + 3.7 x 2.1² / 12

= 1.5435 + 1.35975

= 2.90325 kg m²

b )

moment of inertia required

= moment of inertia of bar + moment of inertia of the other ball

= 3.70 x (2.1² / 3 )  + .7 x 2.1²

= 5.439 + 3.087

= 8.526 kg m²

c )

In this case moment of inertia of the combination = 0 as distance of masses from given axis is zero .

d )

masses = 3.7 + .7 = 4.4 kg

distance from axis = .5 m  

moment of inertia about given axis

= 4.4 x .5²

= 1.1 kg m².

Answer:

Explanation:

Let f₀ be the frequency .

energy of photons having frequency of f₀

= hf₀ where h is plank's constant

for electron to get ejected , work function should be equal to energy of photon

hf₀ = 3.55

4.1357 x 10⁻¹⁵ x f₀ = 3.55

f₀ = 8.58 x 10¹⁴ Hz .

Answer:

A. magnetic field

Explanation:

The magnetic field is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire because of the magnetic effect of the electric current therefore the correct answer is option A .

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

As given in the problem statement we have to find out what is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire.

The magnetic field is produced as a result when an electrical current is passed through the conducting wire .

Option A is the appropriate response because a wire's magnetic field is created when an electrical current flows through it due to the magnetic influence of the electric current .

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Answer: Only Tech B is correct.

Explanation:

First, tech A is wrong.

The circuits that can be compared with links in a chain are the series circuit, and it can be related to the links in a chain because if one of the elements breaks, the current can not flow furthermore (because the elements in the circuit are connected in series) while in a parallel circuit if one of the branches breaks, the current still can flow by other branches.

Also in a parallel circuit, the sum of the currents of each path is equal to the current that comes from the source, so Tech B is correct, the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing in each branch of the circuit.

Answer:

Explanation:

magnetic field due to an infinite current carrying conductor

B = k x 2I / r where k = 10⁻⁷  , I is current in conductor and r is distance from wire

putting the given data

B = 10⁻⁷ x 2 x 100 / 8

= 25 x 10⁻⁷ T .

B )

earth's magnetic field = .5 gauss

= .5 x 10⁻⁴ T

= 5 x 10⁻⁵ T

percent required = (25 x 10⁻⁷ / 5 x 10⁻⁵) x 100

= 5 %

C )

ii.  No. Since this field is much lesser than the earth's magnetic field, it would be expected to have less effect than the earth's field.

Answer:

-50N

Explanation:

F=ma=m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=(10)(-10)/(2)=-50N

So the force acting on the block is -50N, where the negative sign simply tells us that the force is opposite to the direction of movement.

Answer:

1) θ = 0.00118 rad, 2)  θ = 0.00236 rad , 3) I / I₀ = 0.1738, 4)  I / Io = 0.216

Explanation:

In the double-slit interference phenomenon it is explained for constructive interference by the equation

          d sin θ = m λ

1) the first order maximum occurs for m = 1

           sin θ = λ  / d

           θ = sin⁻¹ λ  / d

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

           λ  = 520 nm = 520 10⁻⁹  θ = 0.00118 radm

           d = 0.440 mm = 0.440 10⁻³ m ³

let's calculate

           θ = sin⁻¹ (520 10⁻⁹ / 0.44 10⁻³)

            θ = sin⁻¹ (1.18 10⁻³)

            θ = 0.00118 rad

2) the second order maximum occurs for m = 2

            θ = sin⁻¹ (m λ  / d)

            θ = sin⁻¹ (2 5¹20 10⁻⁹ / 0.44 10⁻³)

            θ = 0.00236 rad

3) To calculate the intensity of the interference spectrum, the diffraction phenomenon must be included, so the equation remains

          I = I₀ cos² (π d sin θ /λ ) sinc² (pi b sin θ /λ )

where the function sinc = sin x / x

and b is the width of the slits

we caption the values

             x = π 0.310 10⁻³ sin 0.00118 / 520 10⁻⁹)

             x = 2.21

            I / I₀ = cos² (π 0.44 10⁻³ sin 0.00118 / 520 10⁻⁹) (sin (2.21) /2.21)²

remember angles are in radians

            I / I₀ = cos² (3.0945) [0.363] 2

            I / I₀ = 0.9978 0.1318

            I / I₀ = 0.1738

4) the maximum second intensity is

            I / I₀ = cos² (π d sinθ / λ) sinc² (πb sin θ /λ)

            x =π 0.310 10⁻³ sin 0.00236 / 520 10⁻⁹)

            x = 4.41

            I / Io = cos² (π 0.44 10⁻³ sin 0.00236 / 520 10⁻⁹) (sin 4.41 / 4.41)²

            I / Io = cos² 6.273    0.216

            I / Io = 0.216

.

Answer:

a. The reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

b. The inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

Explanation:

PART A

Since the voltage across the inductor V₀ = I₀XL where V₀ = e.m.f of voltage source, I₀ = current amplitude and XL = reactance of the inductor,

XL = V₀/I₀

So, the reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

PART B

The inductance of the inductor is gotten from XL = 2πfL where f = frequency of voltage source and L = inductance of inductor

Since XL = V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

L = V₀/2πfI₀

So the inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

A) The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B) The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  

A) Expressing the Reactance of the inductor

Voltage across the Inductor = V₀ = I₀XL   ---- ( 1 )

Where :  V₀ = emf voltage ,  I₀ = current

from equation ( 1 )

∴ XL ( reactance ) = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B ) Expressing the Inductance of the Inductor

Inductance of an inductor is expressed as : XL = 2πfL

from part A

XL = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex] = 2πfL

∴ The inductance L of the Inductor expressed in terms of V₀, F and I₀

L = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  and The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  .

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Answer:

The length of the longer pipe is L = 2.30 m

Explanation:

Given that:

Two open organ pipes, sounding together, produce a beat frequency of 8.0 Hz . The shorter one is 2.08 m long.

How long is the other pipe?

From above;

The formula for the frequency of open ended pipes can be expressed as:

[tex]f = \dfrac{nv}{2L}[/tex]

where n = 1 ( since half wavelength exist between those two pipes)

v = 343 m/s  and L = 2.08 m

Thus, the shorter pipe produces a frequency of :

[tex]f = \dfrac{1*343}{2*2.08}[/tex]

[tex]f = \dfrac{343}{4.16}[/tex]

[tex]f =82.45 \ Hz[/tex]

Also; we know that the beat frequency was given as 8.0 Hz

Then,

The lower frequency of the longer pipe = ( 82.45 - 8.0 )Hz

The lower frequency of the longer pipe = 74.45 Hz

Finally;

From the above equation; make Length L the subject of the formula. Then,

The length of the longer pipe is L = [tex]\dfrac{nv}{2f}[/tex]

The length of the longer pipe is L = [tex]\dfrac{1*343}{2*74.45}[/tex]

The length of the longer pipe is L = [tex]\dfrac{343}{148.9}[/tex]

The length of the longer pipe is L = 2.30 m

Answer:

2.2nC

Explanation:

Call the amount by which the spring’s unstretched length L,

the amount it stretches while hanging x1

and the amount it stretches while on the table x2.

Combining Hooke’s law with Newton’s second law, given that the stretched spring is not accelerating,

we have mg−kx1 =0, or k = mg /x1 , where k is the spring constant. On the other hand,

applying Coulomb’s law to the second part tells us ke q2/ (L+x2)2 − kx2 = 0 or q2 = kx2(L+x2)2/ke,

where ke is the Coulomb constant. Combining these,

we get q = √(mgx2(L+x2)²/x1ke =2.2nC