Answer: This transaction will not cause a change in cash from operating, investing, or financing activities.
Explanation:
When a company purchased money market funds with cash during the current year, it should be noted that this will transaction will not cause a change in cash from operating, investing, or financing activities. This is because the purchase was made with cash during the current year.
If a company would still have a cash flow item even if they rejected potential new Project A, should this particular cash flow item be included in Project A's cash flow analysis?
Answer: No
Explanation:
When computing a project analysis for a project, only relevant cash flow should be included in the Project's cash flow analysis. Relevant cash-flow are those that will only occur if the project was embarked on.
If the cash flow in question is still going to occur even if the project wasn't initiated as is the case with Project A, it is not a relevant cash-flow and should not be included in the cash-flow analysis.
Fremont Enterprises has an expected return of and Laurelhurst News has an expected return of . If you put of your portfolio in Laurelhurst and in Fremont, what is the expected return of your portfolio?
The question is incomplete as it is missing the figures. The complete question is,
Fremont Enterprises has an expected return of 15% and Laurelhurst News has an expected return of 20%. If you put 70% of your portfolio in Laurelhurst and 30% in Fremont, what is the expected return of your portfolio?
Answer:
Portfolio return = 0.185 or 18.5%
Explanation:
The expected return of a portfolio is a function of the weighted average of the individual stocks returns' that form up the portfolio. The expected return of a portfolio can be calculated using the following formula,
Portfolio return = wA * rA + wB * rB + ... + wN * rN
Where,
w represents weight of each stock in the portfolior represents the return of each stock in the portfolioPortfolio return = 0.3 * 0.15 + 0.7 * 0.2
Portfolio return = 0.185 or 18.5%
A negative supply shock, such as the OPEC oil price increases of the early 1970s, can be illustrated by a shift to the ______________ of the short-run aggregate supply curve and a shift _________________ of the short-run Phillips curve.
Answer: Leftward; upwards.
Explanation: A Supply shock is a term used to describe the sudden and unexpected change in the supply of a given product or commodity usually indicated by the leftward shift if the shock is negative in the aggregate supply curve and an upward change in direction in the Phillips curve both on the short run. Both curves are used to demonstrate graphically the impacts of shifts in supply for a given product or commodity.
All About Animals has two product lines: Cat food and Dog food. Contribution margin income statement data for the most recent year follow:
Total Cat Food Dog Food
Sales revenue $435,000 $350,000 $85,000
Variable expenses $61,000 $21,000 $40,000
Contribution margin $374,000 $329,000 $45,000
Fixed expenses $101.000 $49,000 $52,000
Operating income (loss) $273,000 $280,000 $(7,000)
Assuming the Dog food is discontinued, total fixed costs remain unchanged, and the space formerly used to produce the line is rented for $26,000 per year, how will operating income be affected?
A. Increase $254,000
B. Decrease $19,000
C. Increase $527,000
D. Increase $19,000
Answer:
B. Decrease $19,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount affect the operating income is shown below
But before that first we need to find the new operating income
Total operating income for Cat Food $280,000
Less: Fixed costs for Dog Food ($52000)
Add: rented per year $26000
New net operating income $254000
Now decrease in net operating income is
= operating income - new operating income
= $273,000 - $254,000
= $19,000
Fertile Acres Inc., Growers Farm Co-op, and Harvest Orchards agree to exchange information, conduct an advertising campaign, and set certain regulatory standards to govern their operations. This association is
Answer: a. subject to analysis under the rule of reason.
Explanation:
The Rule of Reason is used to interpret whether he Sherman Act which is an anti-trust law has been breached. This Rule was established so as not to unfairly close down all monopolies and Monopolies are not illegal, price fixing is.
If companies therefore come together as Fertile Acres Inc., Growers Farm Co-op, and Harvest Orchards have done, the Government under the Rule of Reason will check to see if the actions of these firms was done in order for them to go against free trade practices. If it was not then the agreement might be allowed to stand.
Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe. One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater.
a. cost.
b. exports.
c. value.
d. competition.
e. production.
Answer: value
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe.
One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater value.
Value simply means the worth of something. When people realize that the tennis shoes are worth it, it'll command a high value.
Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of , cost of goods sold of , sales and administrative costs of , depreciation expense of , and a tax rate of .
Answer:
$101,960,000
Explanation:
For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-
Step 1
EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation
= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000
= $61,600,000
Step 2
Net income = EBIT - Tax
= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000
= $36,960,000
and finally
Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000
= $101,960,000
g A decrease in the basis will __________ a long hedge and __________ a short hedger. Group of answer choices hurt; hurt hurt; benefit benefit; have no effect upon benefit; benefit benefit; hurt
Answer:
1. hurt
2. benefit
Explanation:
Given that a contract and an asset are to be converted in cash early, this implies that, basis risk exists and futures price and spot price should not move in lockstep before delivery date. However, a reduction in the basis will then hurt the long hedger and benefit the short hedger.
Hence, considering the nature of the hypothetical situation, a decrease in the basis will HURT a long hedge and BENEFIT a short hedge.
A project will reduce costs by $38,500 but increase depreciation by $18,300. What is the operating cash flow if the tax rate is 35 percent?
Answer:
$31,430
Explanation:
A project will reduce costs by $38,500
The project will have an increased depreciation of $18,300
The tax rate is 35%
= 35/100
= 0.35
Therefore, the operating cash flow can be calculated as follows
Operating cash flow= reduction in project cost×(1-tax rate)+(increase in the depreciation amount ×tax rate)
= $38,500×(1-0.35)+($18,300×0.35)
= $38,500×0.65+6,405
= $25,025+$6,405
= $31,430
Hence the operating cash flow is $31,430
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as: Multiple Choice 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 2 days. 2% discount if paid within 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 10 days. 10% cash discount if the amount is paid within 2 days, or the balance due in 30 days.
Answer:
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as:
2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days.Explanation:
I will explain using an example:
On January 2, the company sells $1,000 worth of goods with credit terms 2/10, n/30.
January 2
Dr Accounts receivable 1,000
Cr Sales revenue
If the client pays within the discount period:
January 11
Dr Cash 980
Dr Sales discounts 20
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
If the client pays after the discount period but before 30 days:
January 31
Dr Cash 1,000
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
The credit terms 2/10, and n/30 are interpreted as a 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance is due in 30 days. Thus, option A is the correct option.
Trade credits like 2/10 net 30 are frequently provided by suppliers to purchasers. It stands for an agreement that if payment is made within 10 days, the buyer would get a 2% reduction on the net invoice amount. Otherwise, you have 30 days to pay the entire invoice amount.
It's a common way to express an early payment discount. In accounting, the discount amount and the window of availability are typically represented using a formula like 2/10, n/30. This implies that if the invoice is paid in full within ten days, a 2% reduction is applied; otherwise, the full amount is owed.
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If D = 8,200 per month, S = $44 per order, and H = $2.00 per unit per month, a) What is the economic order quantity? The EOQ is 601601 units (round your response to the nearest whole number). b) How does your answer change if the holding cost doubles? The EOQ is 425425 units (round your response to the nearest whole number). c) What if the holding cost drops in half? The EOQ is nothing units (round your response to the nearest whole number).
Answer: A) The Economic Order Quantity is 601 units.
B)The Economic Order Quantity is 425 units.
C )The Economic Order Quantity is 849 units
Explanation:
EOQ, economic order quantity = [tex]\sqrt{ 2 x Dx S/ H}[/tex]
where D= demand
S = Order cost
H= holding cost.
a)when D = 8,200 per month, S = $44 per order, and H = $2.00
EOQ, economic order quantity = [tex]\sqrt{2x D x S /H}[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 x 8,200 x 44 /2 }[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{360,800}[/tex] = 600.666= 601 units
b) if the holding cost doubles, holding cost = HX 2 = 2 X 2 = 4
EOQ, economic order quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8,200 X 44 / 2 X $2}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{180,400}[/tex] = 424.73 = 425units
C) if the holding cost drops in half, holding cost = H/2 = 2 X 1/2 = 1
EOQ, economic order quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8200 x 44/1}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{721,600}[/tex] = 849.47 = 849units
What is another name for progress monitoring? a. Curriculum-based measurement c. Curriculum-based learning b. Assessment d. None of these
Answer:
Curriculum based measurement
Answer:
a. Curriculum-based measurement
It's correct
Neelon Corporation has two divisions: Southern Division and Northern Division. The following data are for the most recent operating period: Total Company Southern Division Northern Division Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000 Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750 Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000 Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750 The common fixed expenses have been allocated to the divisions on the basis of sales. What is the company's overall net operating income if it operates at the break-even points for its two divisions?
Answer:
Neelon Corporation
Total Company Southern Northern
Division Division
Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000
Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750
Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000
Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750
Net operating income $ 21,700 $200 $21,500
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Total Company Southern Northern
Division Division
Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000
Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750
Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000
Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750
Net operating income $ 21,700 $200 $21,500
Neelon Corporation reaches break-even point when it will make no profit or loss. This implies that its break-even point is reached when sales revenue equals both variable and fixed costs. The excess that Neelon Corporation generates from sales revenue over total costs is regarded as operating income.
Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,200 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,200 units of production reflects sales of $508,800; variable costs of $63,600; and fixed costs of $142,000. Assume that actual sales for the year are $587,200 (26,300 units), actual variable costs for the year are $113,900, and actual fixed costs for the year are $137,000. Prepare a flexible budget performance report for the year.
Answer:
Flexible budget performance report for the year
Flexible budget Actual Variance Fav/Unf
Sales 631,200 587,200 44,000 UNF
Variable cost (78,900) (113,900) 35,000 F
Contribution 416,000 368,000 48,000 UNF
margin
Fixed cost (142,000) (137,000) 5000 UNF
Net operating 274,000 231,000 43,000 UNF
income
Working:
a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200
b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900
Company XYZ, has the following capital structure:Debt $50MCommon $30MPreferred of $20MPrice of 5-year, par value 6% annual coupon Bonds that sell today for $1,050.Preferred dividend in year 1 of $5 and a preferred stock price of $90.Common stock has a required return of 12%Tax rate is 40%Solve for the Company WACC?
Answer:
The Company WACC is 6.1%
Explanation:
WACC is the averge cost of capital that a company bears based on the weights of each financing option available to the company.
First we need to calculate the Market values
Debt = $50 M x $1,050 / $1,000 = $52.5 M
Common Equity = $30 M
Preferred equity = $20 M x $90 / $100 = $18 M
Total Capital = $52.5 M + $30 M + $18 M = $100.5
Now we need to calculte the Cost of each financing option
Cost of Debt
Price of Bond = C x ( 1 - ( 1 + YTM )^-n / r + Face value / ( 1 + YTM )^n
$1,050 = $60 x ( 1 - ( 1 + YTM )^-5 / YTM + $1,000 / ( 1 + YTM )^5
YTM = 4.85%
Cost of Common Equity = 12%
Cost of Preseferred Stock = $5 / $90 = 0.05556 = 5.56%
Now use following fomula to calculte the WACC
WACC = ( Common Equity weight x Cost of Common equity ) + ( Weight of Debt x Cost of Debt x ( 1 - Tax rate ) + ( Weight of Preferred Shares x Cost of Preferred Shares )
Now Place all the valus in the formula
WACC = ( $30 / $100.5 x 12% ) + ( $52.5 / $100.5 x ( 1 - 40% ) x 4.85% ) + ( $18 / $100.5 x 5.56% )
WACC = 3.58% + 1.52% + 1.00% = 6.1%
A customer who has routinely traded securities through your firm has placed an order to buy a security that is only listed on the Malaysian Stock Exchange. To effect the transaction, your firm must use a correspondent broker-dealer located in Malaysia that charges large special handling fees to cover Malaysian securities transfer taxes. Which statement is TRUE
Answer:
the broker-dealer must notify the customer of the additional charges prior to executing the transaction
Explanation:
In such a scenario, the statement that would be completely true is that the broker-dealer must notify the customer of the additional charges prior to executing the transaction. Since the broker is acting on behalf of the customer, then the customer needs to be notified beforehand in order for him/her to be able to analyze and decide whether or not they still want to go ahead with the transaction.
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
The question is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________. A. $150 B. $50 C. $100 D. $200
Answer:
$50
Explanation:
Caribou Gold mining corporation is expected to make a dividend payment of $6 next year
Dividend are expected to decline at a rate of 3%
= 3/100
= 0.03
The risk free rate of return is 5%
= 5/100
= 0.05
The expected return on the market portfolio is 13%
= 13/100
= 0.13
The beta is 0.5
The first step is to calculate the expected rate of return
= 0.05+0.5(0.13-0.05)
= 0.05+0.5(0.08)
= 0.05+0.04
= 0.09
Therefore, the intrinsic value of the stock using the constant growth DDM model can be calculated as follows
Vo= 6/(0.09+0.03)
Vo= 6/0.12
Vo= $50
Hence the intrinsic value of the stock is $50
On December 18, 2017, Stephanie Corporation acquired 100 percent of a Swiss company for 4.0 million Swiss francs (CHF), which is indicative of book and fair value. At the acquisition date, the exchange rate was $1.00 = CHF 1. On December 18, 2017, the book and fair values of the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities were:
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable 2,128,000
Stephanie prepares consolidated financial statements on December 31, 2017. By that date, the Swiss franc has appreciated to $1.10 = CHF 1. Because of the year-end holidays, no transactions took place prior to consolidation.
Required:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
Answer:
a. Translation adjustment = $401,400
b. Remeasurement loss = –$131,400
Explanation:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
This can determined as follows:
Step 1: Calculation of beginning net asset in
Particular Amount (CHF)
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable (2,128,000)
Beginning net asset 4,014,000
Beginning net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Beginning exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1 = $4,014,000
Step 2: Calculation of ending net asset
Ending net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Ending exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1.10 = $4,415,400
Step 3: Calculation translation adjustment
Translation adjustment = Ending net asset in USD - Beginning net asset in USD = $4,415,400 - $4,014,000 = $401,400
Economic relevance of this translation adjustment
The positive translation adjustment implies that the equity of stockholders has increased by $401,000.
We obtained a positive value because the net position of the subsidiary in Switzerland is CHF4,014,000 and there was a Swiss franc appreciation of $0.10 (i.e. $1.10 - $1.00 = $0.10).
The translation adjustment of $401,000 does not however implies that it was made as a dollar cash flow. The only condition that can make to turn to a profit is if this operation is sold at CHF4,014,000 on December 31 and the amount realized as a proceed is changed to dollars at ruling exchange rate of $1.10 to a Swiss franc on December 31, 2017.
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
This can be determined as follows:
Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc = Cash - Note payable = CHF814,000 - CHF2,128,000 = –CHF1,314,000
Beginning net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Beginning exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.00 = –$1,314,000
Ending net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Ending exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.10 = –$1,445,400
Remeasurement loss = Ending net liabilities in USD – Beginning net liabilities in USD = [–$1,445,400] – [–$1,314,000] = –$131,400
Economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss
There is a negative remeasurement or remeasurement lost because the net monetary liability position of the Swiss subsidiary is CHF 1,314,000. The appreciation of the Swiss franc by $0.10 results in a loss of $131,400] that not is unrealized.
The readjustment loss of $131,400 does not however implies that it was a dollar cash outflow. The only condition that can make it to turn to a loss is if this operation is sold on December 31. This will lead to the realization of a transaction gain of $81,400 [i.e. CHF814,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
Also, the Swiss franc note payable will be paid off by using the US dollar. This will bring about the realization of a truncation loss of $212,800 [i.e. CHF2,128,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
Mr. and Mrs. Haley are purchasing beachfront property in an upscale development. The home comes equipped with all furnishings. The Haleys want to get a mortgage that will cover the purchase price plus all the furnishings. What kind of mortgage are they looking for?
Answer: package mortgage
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Mr and Mrs. Haley are purchasing beachfront property in an upscale development and that the home comes equipped with all furnishings.
We are further told that the Haleys want to get a mortgage that will cover the purchase price plus all the furnishings. This shows that they are looking for package mortgage.
A package mortgage is a form of mortgage whereby the personal property and the furniture will have to be included when buying the house.
Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.
Answer:
a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.
Entry;
DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000
CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000
(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)
b.
DR Cash......................................................................$180,000
CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000
(To record Wayne investment)
Working
The current Capital amount is;
= 200,000 +160,000
= $360,000
If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;
2/3x = 360,000
x = 360,000/2/3
x = $540,000
Wayne's share would be;
= 1/3 * 540,000
= $180,000
The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.
And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.
The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]
[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]
Now the value of x will be calculated as
[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]
[tex]x=180000[/tex]
Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.
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Abica Roast Coffee Company produces Columbian coffee in batches of 6,000 pounds. The
standard quantity of materials required in the process is 6,000 pounds, which cost $5.00per pound. Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
a. Prepare a differential analysis dated August 28, 2012, on whether to sell regular
Columbian (Alternative 1) or process further into Decaf Columbian (Alternative 2).
b. Should Abica Roast sell Columbian coffee or process further and sell Decaf
Columbian?
c. Determine the price of Decaf Columbian that would cause neither an advantage or
disadvantage for processing further and selling Decaf Columbian.
Answer:
A)
no further further differential
processing processing amount
price per pound $8.40 $10.00 $1.60
materials $5 $5.25 ($0.25)
processing costs $0 = $9,450 / ($1.66)
5,700 = $1.66
operating profit per $3.40 $3.09 ($0.31)
pound
B)
The company should sell coffee without any further processing, just sell it as normal Colombian coffee.
C)
In order to eliminate the financial disadvantage of processing further the decaf coffee, the the price should be $10 + $0.31 = $10.31 per pound.
ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
The statement "Automobiles manufactured by this brand are the safest" is an example of the _____ component of attitude.
Answer:
cognitions
Explanation:
The cognitions component of attitude refers to the opinion a person has about an object. According to this, the answer is that the statement "Automobiles manufactured by this brand are the safest" is an example of the cognitions component of attitude as the sentence shows the belief the person has about that brand.
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
The following data relate to direct materials costs for February: Materials cost per yard: standard, $1.93; actual, $2.03 Standard yards per unit: standard, 4.68 yards; actual, 4.96 yards Units of production: 9,400 Calculate the direct materials price variance. a.$4,399.20 favorable b.$940.00 unfavorable c.$4,662.40 favorable d.$4,662.40 unfavorable
Answer:
d.$4,662.40 unfavorable
Explanation:
Calculation for direct materials price variance
The first step is to find the Actual quantity variance using the formula
Actual quantity variance =Actual units produced* Actual yard used
Let plug in the formula
Actual quantity variance=9,400*4.96 yards
Actual quantity variance=$46,624
Second step is to calculate for the Direct material price variance using this formula
Direct material price variance= ( Standard price -Actual price)* Actual quantity used
Let plug in the formula
Direct material price variance=($1.93-$2.03)*$46,624
Direct material price variance=(-0.1*46,624)
Direct material price variance=-$4,662.40 Unfavorable
Therefore the Direct material price variance will be $4,662.40 Unfavorable
Which of the following stocks is less risky? Stock Average Return Standard Deviation Coefficient of Variation X 10% 40% 4 Y 20% 40% 2
Answer:
Stock X has a CV of 4 while Stock Y has a CV of 2. As stock Y has a lower CV than Stock X, it is less riskier.
Explanation:
The coefficient of variation is a statistical model which is also used to determine the volatility per unit of a factor. In terms of a stock, the coefficient of variation calculates the volatility of its return. It is calculated by dividing the stock's standard deviation, which is a measure of risk, by the stock's mean return or expected return.
CV = SD / r
Where,
CV is coefficient of variationSD is standard deviationr is expected returnThe CV of a stock tells us the risk per unit of return. The higher the CV, the riskier the stock and vice versa.
Stock X has a CV of 4 while Stock Y has a CV of 2. As stock Y has a lower CV than Stock X, it is less riskier.
The following data relate to the direct materials cost for the production of 50,000 automobile tires: Actual: 725,000 lbs. at $3.00 per lb. Standard: 730,000 lbs. at $2.95 per lb. a. Determine the direct materials price variance, direct materials quantity variance, and total direct materials cost variance. Enter a favorable variance as a negative number using a minus sign and an unfavorable variance as a positive number.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of the material price variance is shown below:
= Actual Quantity × (Standard Price - Actual Price)
= 725,000 × ($2.95- $3)
= 725,000 × $0.5
= $36,250 unfavorable
b. The computation of the material quantity variance is shown below:
= Standard Price × (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)
= $2.95 × (730,000 - 725,000)
= $2.95 × 5,000
= $14,750 favorable
And, the total direct material cost variance is
= Material price variance + material cost variance
= $36,250 unfavorable + 14,750 favorable
= $21,500 unfavorable
Desktop Computer Company would like to calculate their cash conversion cycle. What factors are included in computing this metric?
Answer:
The answer is:
1. Days inventory outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to sell its inventories
2. Days sales outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to collect it receivables
3. Days payables outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to pay its payables.
Explanation:
Cash conversion cycle is the time(number of days) it takes a business to convert its money tied in inventory to cash through sales from customers.
In computing cash conversion cycle, the following are included:
1. Days inventory outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to sell its inventories
2. Days sales outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to collect it receivables
3. Days payables outstanding i.e the number of days it takes to pay its payables.
The formula for cash conversion cycle is Days inventory outstanding + Days sales outstanding - Days payables outstanding
A company is considering a project with a beta of 0.5 while the company’s beta is 2.0. How should the company adjust its WACC to reflect the riskiness of the project? g
Answer: decrease
Explanation:
The weighted average cost of capital is a vital calculation that is used in finance to know whether the return on an investment will meet or exceed exceed a project or an asset.
If a company is considering a project with a beta of 0.5 while the company’s beta is 2.0, to reflect the riskiness of the project, the WACC will be reduced.
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
