Since steroids weaken the immune system and purulent sputum is a sign of infection, this symptom should be taken seriously.
so the correct answer is option C.
Glucocorticoids (GCs, "steroids") are routinely administered to individuals with autoimmune disorders or transplant recipients to suppress the immune system. However, after using steroids, the measured white blood cell (WBC) count often increases. Steroids (corticosteroids) may help with the symptoms of the common cold since they have been shown to lessen inflammation of the nose and throat's lining when treating other types of upper respiratory tract infections. By trapping CD4+ T-lymphocytes inside the reticuloendothelial system and limiting cytokine synthesis, corticosteroids significantly suppress the immune system.
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select the true statement about centenarians: a. in developed countries, the number of centenarians is decreasing at a rate of approximately 7 percent each year. b. chronic high-mortality diseases are markedly delayed for many years in centenarians. c. the level of education is unrelated to the life span of centenarians. d. china has the most centenarians, followed by brazil, canada, and australia.
The true statement about centenarians is that chronic high-mortality diseases are markedly delayed for many years in centenarians which is therefore denoted as option B.
Who is a Centenarian?
This is referred to as an individual that is one hundred years old or older and is often characterized by slow metabolism etc.
According to the cellular clock theory of aging,aging is a result of cells hitting their programmed reproductive limit which results in the wearing out of different cells in the body and we are aware that they are involved in in our daily activities and functioning.
This is therefore the reason why centenarians are most likely to have a chronic high-mortality diseases which are markedly delayed for many years there by making it the correct choice.
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according to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. in addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
The nurse should consider improving the staff's use of restraint procedures. That is option D.
Who is a restrained client?A restrained client is the client that is placed in a confined environment that limits their movement without being supervised. Some of the client's that may require being restrained include the following:
when the patient is exhibiting a harmful behaviourduring a surgical procedurewhen a patient is agitating beyond controla psychotic patient that is uncooperative.The long-term goal of the debriefing after restraining a client is to improve aggression management procedures so that prevention of aggression improves and the frequency of restraint use decreases.
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Complete question:
According to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. In addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
a) deciding when to release the client from restraints
b) comparing the perceptions of the various staff members
c) providing feedback to each other on how procedures were handled
d) improving the staff's use of restraint procedures
you are giving morning medications to a patient who refuses to take an oral dose of docusate (colace). what is your best response?
The best response said by the nurse is can you tell me why you do not want to take the docusate.
The anion bis(2-ethylhexyl) sulfosuccinate, also known as dioctyl sulfosuccinate, is known chemically and pharmaceutically as docusate. It is included in the WHO's list of essential medications. In medicine, salts of this anion, particularly docusate sodium, are frequently used as laxatives and stool softeners, either orally or rectally. With more over 3 million prescriptions written, it was the 163rd most frequently prescribed drug in the US in 2020. According to some research, docusate is not any more helpful at treating constipation than a placebo. There are additional docusate salts with medical applications, such as calcium and potassium.
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According to the Dietary Guidelines, the goal is to reduce consumption of added sugars to less than ____% of total calories.
Answer: 10%
Explanation: The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars to no more than 10% each day.
the nurse provides care for a toddler age client after a bronchoscopy and removal of an aspirated peanut. which assessment requires an immediate intervention by the nurse
The assessment necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse for a toddler-age client who is "sitting forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles contracted" following a bronchoscopy. Hence, the correct answer is D.
The toddler-age client who sat forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles tensed after a bronchoscopy and the extraction of an aspirated peanut is displaying an indication of stress that demands an immediate intervention by the nurse.
Weak coughing attempts with minimal sputum output and drowsiness but still being awake are anticipated symptoms following the bronchoscopy procedure. The bronchoscopy procedure enables medical professionals to view the lungs and airways. Usually, a lung disease specialist does it called a pulmonologist.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. BP 90/60 mm Hg, apical heart rate 110 beats/min with a sinus arrhythmia. B. Weak cough effort with scant production of sputum, drowsy but arousable. C. Abdominal muscles contract during inspiration, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min. D. Sits forward with the neck extended, contraction of supraclavicular muscles.The correct answer is D.
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you are called to a private home where a 92-year-old man is experiencing severe squeezing chest pain on the left side that radiates to his left jaw and shoulder. he is prescribed nitroglycerin but has not taken any. he is also on a daily aspirin regimen, which he just took with his morning medications. his pulse is 90, bp is 88/64, respirations are 26, and his skin is pink, warm, and dry. after giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining opqrst and sample history, what should you do next?
After giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining OPQRST and SAMPLE history, you should next Transport immediately.
Nitroglycerin is used to treat coronary artery disease-related angina (chest pain). This medication can also be used to treat an existing angina attack. Nitroglycerin belongs to the class of medications known as vasodilators. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, allowing the heart to work less hard and thus require less oxygen.
Nitroglycerin is a type of medicine known as a nitrate. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and increasing blood and oxygen supply to the heart while decreasing its workload. Nitroglycerin is not recommended for patients who have experienced allergic reactions to the medication.
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strike through bookmark user note feedback acute medically supervised withdrawal (for 5 or more days) in the treatment of opioid use disorders:
Acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) in the management of opioid use disorders is not likely to lead to sustained abstinence.
Quitting drugs is painful, and adjusting to new situations can be frustrating. This means that while withdrawing from nearly any substance, anxiety, impatience, and frustration are frequent.
Drug dependence is accompanied by challenging withdrawal symptoms that can be both physical and psychological in character, and occasionally even life-threatening. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists like clonidine and lofexidine, as well as opioid agonists like methadone and buprenorphine (partial agonist), are medications used to alleviate withdrawal symptoms.
In order to manage opioid use disorders, acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) is not likely to result in prolonged abstinence.
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you have been a carrier of hsv-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. you are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. what does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?
Doctor will suggest cesarean section. Neonatal herpes is most likely to affect newborns if the mother contracts it late in pregnancy.
This is because a pregnant mother who has recently contracted the virus does not yet have antibodies against it, so the baby is not naturally protected during birth. The likelihood of the virus being present in the birth canal during delivery is also increased because a new herpes infection is frequently active. The risk of passing the virus to the foetus in women who have genital herpes prior to conception is extremely low. The reason for this is that their immune systems produce antibodies that are momentarily transferred to the foetus through the placenta. The antibodies aid in the baby's protection even if herpes is present in the birth canal during delivery.
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when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical replacement in a patient, the physician may utilize an artificial intraocular lens. the correct abbreviation for this type of implant is:
The doctor may use an artificial intraocular lens when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical repair in a patient. IOL is the appropriate abbreviation for this kind of implant.
An intraocular lens implant is a man-made, artificial lens that is implanted inside the eye to take the place of a natural lens that has been surgically removed, typically during cataract surgery. An expandable intraocular lens is put into the eye. The most typical lens used during cataract surgery, according to the AAO, is a monofocal medicine. You can see clearly and precisely at a specific distance with this kind of lens. A lens implanted in the eye to treat myopia or cataracts is known as an intraocular lens (IOL).
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Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at.
Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at an increased risk of injury (option B).
Why do hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance?Hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance because they alter the perception of reality in the brain by affecting neuronal networks responsible to communicate signals from the surrounding environment, thereby changes in the brain are able to produce these effects.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance and therefore they can cause injury due to the faulty perception of the surrounding environmental conditions, it is for that reason that these types of drugs are legally forbidden in many countries because it may cause harm to one or third persons.
Complete question:
Choose the correct option. Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance, they are at...
A. a decreased risk of injury.
B. an increased risk of injury.
C. no risk of injury.
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A 50-year-old woman has had easy fatigability and noted a dragging sensation in her abdomen for the past 5 months. Physical examination reveals that she is afebrile. She has marked splenomegaly, but no lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show her total WBC count is 250,000/mm3 with WBC differential count showing 64% segmented neutrophils, 11% band neutrophils, 7% metamyelocytes, 5% myelocytes, 4% myeloblasts, 3% lymphocytes, 2% basophils, 2% eosinophils, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, and karyotypic analysis of the cells reveals a t(9;22) translocation. Medical treatment with a drug having which of the following modes of action is most likely to produce a complete remission in this patient?
Note that in the above scenario, involving Chronic Myeloid Leukemia(CML) the medical treatment with a drug having the above-described modes of action that is likely to produce a complete remission in this patient are:
Inhibiting tyrosine Kinase activityChronic myelogenous leukemia; translocation causes uncontrolled nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity of BCR-ABL fusion of gene.What is Translocation?Chromosomal translocation is a genetic condition that causes atypical chromosome rearrangement. Balanced and unbalanced translocation are included, with two primary types: reciprocal- and Robertsonian translocation.
Translocations can be discovered with high sensitivity and specificity by targeted hybrid-capture-based DNA sequencing panels, although this needs intron sequencing. By utilizing off-target coverage, capture-based targeted sequencing may detect all translocation partners of a captured gene.
Note that while these drugs do not cure CML, they can induce complete remission in a significant proportion of patients and have significantly improved the outlook for individuals with this cancer.
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the chandra x-ray observatory has detected x rays from a star system that contains a main-sequence star of spectral type b6. the x-ray emission is strong and fairly steady, and no sudden bursts have been observed. which of the following statements are reasonable conclusions about this system?
Both a neutron star and a black hole are orbited by the main-sequence star. An accretion disc is created around another object by the main-sequence star's gas.
(Since the pair of main-sequence stars in the system is an X-ray binary, they might either be neutron stars or black holes as companions. The heated accretion disc of gas, which the compact object's gravity is pushing away from the main-sequence star, is where the X rays originate.) A neutron star is the collapsing core of a large supergiant star with a total mass of 10 to 25 solar masses, possibly even more if the star was particularly metal-rich. Other than black holes and certain fictitious items (e.g. white holes, quark stars, and strange stars).
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The complete question is -
The Chandra X-Ray Observatory has detected X rays from a star system that contains a main-sequence star of spectral type B6. The X-ray emission is strong and fairly steady, and no sudden bursts have been observed. Which of the following statements are reasonable conclusions about this system? The main-sequence star orbits either a white dwarf or a neutron star. Some time in the next few decades, this system will undergo a nova explosion. The main-sequence star must orbit a neutron star.
healthy people 2020 includes a goal of increasing the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. disabled adolescents may not have access to exercise programs adapted for their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. the parish nurse can provide an accepting environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and share time with their peers. studies have shown that faith communities have been successful in targeting specific national health objectives dealing with nutrition; physical activity; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs; immunization status; environmental health; and injury and violence. faith communities are effective settings in which to address health promotion related to overweight, obesity, and sedentary lifestyles. an example of this is developing exercise programs for working community. group of answer choices true false
In the context of Healthy People 2020 initiatives, the most appropriate intervention for adolescent congregants with disabilities is Exercise program integrating movements from a sitting or standing position.
One of the goals of Healthy People 2020 is to increase the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. Adolescents with disabilities may not have access to exercise programs that are tailored to their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. The parish nurse can provide a welcoming environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and socialize.
According to studies, faith communities have been successful in focusing on specific national health objectives such as nutrition, physical activity, alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use, immunization status, environmental health, and injury and violence. Faith communities are effective settings for addressing health promotion issues such as obesity, overweight, and sedentary lifestyles.
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the nurse responds to the call light of a client who has had a cervical discectomy earlier in the day. the client states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
The most appropriate action for the nurse to do to treat a client that is experiencing severe pain after having a cervical discectomy is to call the patient's surgeon to report the patient's experience of pain.
Cervical discectomy is a surgical procedure that is done to remove a damaged intervertebral disc from the spine in the neck or damaged tissue in that area. This surgery took the pressure off the nerves. When one just got this surgery performed on them, they must get enough rest and avoid lifting heavy things, as well as follow other instructions that were given by their doctor.
If one feels pain that doesn't get better even after taking pain medicine or experiencing numbness, tingling, shortness of breath, and other worrying symptoms, they must contact their medical provider immediately. In the case in the question above, the nurse should report the patient's condition to her surgeon as soon as possible, so the surgeon can figure out what is happening and treat her accordingly.
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a nurse is preparing to suction a patient. the pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?
Pulse oximetry reads 94% and the pulse is 65. Which discovery will prompt the nurse to halt suctioning? When oxygen saturation reaches 88%, stop.
A technique called pulse oximetry is performed to determine the blood's oxygen saturation level. It is a simple, painless test to determine how well oxygen is being delivered to the body parts that are farthest from the heart, such the arms and legs.A typical oximetry reading is what?
95% or more oxygen is considered to be a normal level. 90% of patients with sleep apnea or chronic lung illness may have normal levels. The "SpO2" value on a pulse oximeter displays the blood's oxygen content as a percentage. Call your healthcare practitioner if the SpO2 level you take at home is less than 95%.
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which of the following exercises may be added to a pregnant women's exercise program to ease delivery and pregnancy?
To make labour and pregnancy easier, pregnant women should include Kegel Exercises in their workout regimen.
You can strengthen the muscles in your pelvic floor by performing basic clench-and-release movements known as kegels. Your pelvis is where your reproductive organs are located, between your hips.
At the base of your pelvis, a sling-like structure called the pelvic floor is actually made up of a number of muscles and tissues. Your organs are secured with this sling. Instabilities like losing control of your bowels or bladder might result from a weak pelvic floor.
Once you get a grasp on the Kegel exercises, you may perform them anytime, anyplace, whether you're at home alone or in line at the bank.
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the healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen elixir (tylenol elixir) 600 mg po every 6 hours for an adult client experiencing pain associated with maxillofacial surgery. the bottle is labeled 500 mg/15 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer?
The healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen elixir (tylenol elixir) 600 mg po every 6 hours for an adult client experiencing pain associated with maxillofacial surgery. the bottle is labeled 500 mg/15 ml. The nurse should administer 18ml
Using the formula D/H x Q
= 600 mg/500mg x 15 ml
= 18 ml
This cocktail of drugs is used to treat mild to moderate pain. It includes both a non-opioid painkiller and an opioid painkiller (codeine) (acetaminophen). Codeine alters how your body perceives and reacts to pain by acting on the brain. A fever can also be lowered with acetaminophen.
Dentistry has a unique branch known as maxillofacial surgery. It entails surgical procedures to fix conditions, wounds, and mouth, jaw, or face deformities. Maxillofacial surgeons are highly trained specialists who identify and address disorders with: The bones, muscles, and tissues in your lower face and jaw (maxillofacial area).
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Paul experiences severe anxiety, which makes it hard for him to engage in daily activities. His medication provider prescribes a benzodiazepine medication but cautions Paul to take the medication only as prescribed. What is the best reason for this?a) It takes a long time for the medication to start working.b) There is potential for addiction if the medication is taken too often.c) The medication will not work if taken with other medications.d) All of the above
The answer is d. All of the above
true or false? cms does not have billing codes for remote patient monitoring, which is a barrier to major adoption of this technology.
Despite the fact that CMS does provide billing codes for remote patient monitoring, this technology has not been widely adopted. It is untrue what is being asked.
Informally, CMS is known as the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), which administers Medicare, Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and the Health Insurance Marketplace, offer health insurance to more than 100 million people.
Medicare is distinct from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), which is a part of the Health and Human Services department (HHS). Medicare, a publicly funded health insurance program with federal funding, is managed by CMS.
In its function as a government payer, CMS also reimburses healthcare providers for services rendered to beneficiaries of the Medicare program.
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is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is a term wont to describe a gaggle of symptoms moving memory, thinking and social talents severely enough to interfere along with your existence. It is not a selected sickness, however many diseases will cause insanity. Tho' insanity typically involves state of mind, state of mind has completely different causes. Medication and therapies could facilitate manage symptoms. Some causes are reversible.
A behavioral deficit is once a private includes a deficiency or inability to perform an exact behavior. An example would be somebody that cannot multitask with straightforward duties
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an iv seondary infusion of 0.9% normal saline 100 ml with inamrinone (inocor) 0.1 grams/100 ml is prescribed for client with heart failure. the medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute. the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver at 24 ml/hour.
First calculate the number of mcg/hour: 400 mcg x 60 minutes = 24000 mcg/hour. Next calculate the number of ml/hour needed to administer 24,000 mcg/hour: 100,000 mcg: 100ml :: 24,000 mcg : X 100,000/24,000 :: 100/X 100,000X = 2,400,000 X = 24 ml/hour.
Heart failure happens when the heart muscle fails to adequately pump blood. Blood frequently backs up, causing fluid to accumulate in the lungs and legs. Heart failure can occur when the heart cannot adequately pump or fill.
A shortness of breath, fatigue, swollen legs, and a rapid heartbeat are all symptoms. Treatments could include eating less salt, limiting water intake but also taking prescription medication. In the some instances a defibrillator as well as pacemaker may be implanted.
Infusion pumps can deliver large or small amounts of fluids and can be used to deliver nutrients or medications like insulin or other hormones, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, as well as pain relievers. Some infusion pumps are primarily intended for stationary use at the patient's bedside.
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hen conducting a scoliosis screening, what instructions should the nurse provide to the client to ensure proper positioning during the screening? after completing the screening, what findings should the nurse identify as indicators of scoliosi
Findings that indicate scoliosis Uneven shoulders -Uneven waist -Prominent rib cage -Uneven hips -Leaning of the head to one side.
Scoliosis is a condition in which the spine curves to the side, forming an S or C-shaped curve. It is most common in adolescents between the ages of 10 and 18, but can affect people of any age. Mild cases of scoliosis may not require treatment, but more severe cases may require a brace or surgery. The most common cause of scoliosis is unknown, but it can be caused by neuromuscular conditions, such as cerebral palsy or muscular dystrophy, or by vertebral abnormalities. Treatment for scoliosis depends on the severity of the curve, and may include observation, bracing, or surgery.
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a patient needs 0.300 g of a solid drug preparation per day. how many 10.0 mg tablets must be given to the patient per day?
30 tablets must be given to the patient per day for 0.300 g of solid drug preparation. In the realm of medicine, a tablet, often known as a pill, is referred to as an oral solid dosage or solid unit dose form.
A tablet is a solid unit dosage form of a drug or combination of pharmaceuticals that include the appropriate excipients. It is made up of a mixture of excipients and active chemicals, which are frequently in powder form and are crushed or pressed into a solid dosage. Tablets can be made using either compression or molding. For effective tableting, excipients include diluents, binders or granulating agents, glidants (flow aids), and lubricants; disintegrants to assist tablet break-up in the digestive tract; sweeteners or flavors to improve taste; and pigments to make the tablets visually appealing or to help.
The complete question is:
A patient needs 0.300 g of solid drug preparation per day. How many 10.0 mg tablets must be given to the patient per day?
A ) 3 tablets B ) 30 tablets C ) 33 tablets D ) 300 tablets E ) 330 tablets
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Review the CMS-1500 claim with errors to identify each error. Provide a list of each error including the following:
• Block number with the error
• Description of the error
• How would the error be fixed?
The errors on the CMS-1500 are patient control number is absent, diagnosis pointer missing and rendering provider is missing
What is Errors in MedicineErrors in Medicine can be defined as any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medical care, or that results in patient harm. Examples of errors in medicine include medication errors, medical device errors, diagnostic errors, communication errors, medical record errors, and clinical judgment errors.
Error #1: Block 22 (Patient Control Number)
Error Description: Patient control number is missing
How to Fix: The patient control number should be filled out with the patient's medical record number.
Error #2: Block 24B (Diagnosis Pointer)
Error Description: Diagnosis pointer is missing
How to Fix: The diagnosis pointer should be filled out with the appropriate ICD-9 or ICD-10 code for the diagnosis related to the service being billed for.
Error #3: Block 24F (Rendering Provider)
Error Description: Rendering provider is missing
How to Fix: The rendering provider should be filled out with the name, address, and National Provider Identifier (NPI) of the provider who rendered the service being billed for.
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the health care provider prescribed digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, for the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. which is the scientific rationale for administering this medication?
.A nurse should assess the apical pulse for a full minute before administering digoxin due to its positive inotropic action (it increases contractility, stroke volume, and, thus, cardiac output), negative chronotropic action (it decreases heart rate), and negative dromotropic action (it decreases electrical conduction .
The most frequent side effects of cardiac glycosides include unusual tiredness and fatigue, anxiety, and hallucinations. In addition, symptoms of toxicity can include visual disturbances, nausea or vomiting, and cardiac arrhythmias.In patients with heart failure, digoxin exerts its positive inotropic effect by inhibiting sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase). Inhibition of this enzyme in cardiac cells results in an increase in the contractile state of the heartIncreased cardiac output (positive inotropic effect) and slowing of the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect).Digoxin induces an increase in intracellular sodium that will drive an influx of calcium in the heart and cause an increase in contractility. Cardiac output increases with a subsequent decrease in ventricular filling pressures.Cardiac glycosides are medicines for treating heart failure and certain irregular heartbeats. They are one of several classes of drugs used to treat the heart and related conditions. These medicines are a common cause of poisoning
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during prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
There are risks and complications associated with gestational diabetes such as pre-term labor, preeclampsia, hyper/hypoglycemia, macrosomia (large baby), hypoglycemia in baby at birth etc.
A group of metabolic diseases known as diabetes, sometimes known as diabetes mellitus, are characterized by chronically increased blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia). Common symptoms include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased appetite. If untreated, diabetes can cause a variety of health problems. Acute consequences include hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and even death. Serious long-term effects include cardiovascular illness, stroke, chronic kidney disease, foot ulcers, eye damage, nerve damage, and cognitive impairment.
The complete question is:
During prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
1. Still birth
2. Hypertension
3. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
4. Macrosomia
5. Spontaneous abortion
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the nurse is caring for a child whose mother is deaf and untrusting of staff. she frequently cries at the bedside, but refuses intervention from the social worker or the chaplain. which issue is most important for the nurse to address with the mother to promote a trusting relationship?
The most pressing issue that needs immediate attention from the nurse is the communication gap. The situation may be made more stressful overall by fear and ignorance regarding the child's disease.
What constitutes a communication barrier, specifically?Communication hurdles prohibit us from accurately understanding and accepting the messages used by others to convey their knowledge, opinions, and ideas. Information overload, selective perception, workplace gossip, etc. are a few examples of communication difficulties.
Is the technology you use to communicate preventing you from communicating effectively?
Modern organizations rely heavily on communication technology to channel communication, but if firms do not choose and adopt the appropriate technology, it will also serve as a barrier to efficient communication.
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which of the following is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency? a. edema b. diarrhea c. purplish tongue d. constipation e. anemia
(c) Purplish tongue is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency.
Fatigue, a swelling throat, blurred eyesight, and sadness can all result from riboflavin insufficiency. Skin cracking, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth are just a few of the skin's problems it might cause. Along with reproductive difficulties, hyperemia, edoema around the pharynx, liver deterioration, and hair loss can also happen.
The SLC52A3 or SLC52A2 genes, which encode riboflavin transporters, are mutated in the disorder. These patients consequently suffer riboflavin deficiency because they are unable to absorb and transport riboflavin effectively.
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a client is taking nicotinic acid for hyperlipidemia, and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client about the medication. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
The statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions Ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.
Spironolactone is used to treat high blood pressure and control edema in patients with heart failure or liver dysfunction. This drug can cause hyperkalemia. Monitor urine output and report if less than 30 mL per hour. Use with caution in patients with impaired renal function due to increased risk of hyperkalemia.
Before administering a diuretic such as furosemide the nurse will assess the patient's potassium level with recent laboratory results. If the potassium level is below the normal range, the nurse will withhold medication and notify the prescriber. Avoid eating large amounts of leafy greens and certain vegetable oils that are high in vitamin K.
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he nurse is conducting a cancer risk assessment for a middle-aged client. which risk factor is appropriate for motivational interviewing for this client as an approach to risk reduction?
Motivational interviewing is a technique used to guide clients to make changes in their behavior.
A client's diet and nutritional status can be changed. Gender, family hx of cancer and age are risk factors that cant be changed.
The term "independent" refers to a person who does not work for the government. Individual judgements or assessments of risk may be affected by psychological, ideological, religious or otherwise subjective factors, which impact rationality of the process.
A 2017 systematic review of patients and doctors discovered that overstatement of benefits and understatement of risks occurred more frequently than the opposite.
Risk assessment can also be done on a much larger "systems" scale, such as assessing the risks of a nuclear power plant (a mechanical, electronic, nuclear, and human system that interacts) or a hurricane (a complex meteorological and geographical system).
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