the health care provider prescribes 0.5 mg benztropine for a client diagnosed with glaucoma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. which action does the nurse take first
There are oral tablets and injectable solutions of benztropine available for type 2 diabetes. Both intravenous (IV) and intramuscular (IM) injections of the injectable solution are available.
A healthcare professional administers both kinds of injections. All varieties of parkinsonism are treatable with benztropine. Some types of drug-induced movement problems can also be managed with it. These are the kinds of disorders that neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drug use may cause.
Most anticholinergic medications are typically avoided in closed-angle glaucoma and diabetes. Due to its potential to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia, benztropine is contraindicated in those with closed-angle glaucoma. Additionally, it may indirectly result in a sizable rise in intraocular pressure.
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a nurse is caring for a client with alzheimer disease who was admitted to the hospital from a nursing home. the hospital staff is having difficulty managing the client's urinary incontinence because the client wanders around the unit all day. what is the most appropriate action by the nurse to assist with elimination?
The most appropriate action by the nurse to assist with elimination is incorporate the client's toileting schedule into the pattern of his wandering. Hence option C is correct.
What is Alzheimer disease?Alzheimer disease is defined as a brain condition that gradually robs people of their memory, thinking, and, finally, their ability to perform even the most basic tasks. Memory loss and other cognitive problems get worse as Alzheimer's gets worse.
Help the patient take care of themselves by assisting with routine tasks like eating, exercising, and taking care of their hygiene. For individuals with severe cognitive impairment or motor functioning issues, assist them with these daily tasks.
Thus, the most appropriate action by the nurse to assist with elimination is incorporate the client's toileting schedule into the pattern of his wandering. Hence option C is correct.
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two phenomena that are difficult to demonstrate in evaluative conditioning are occasion-setting and...
Two phenomena that are difficult to demonstrate in evaluative conditioning are occasion-setting and extinction.
Evaluative conditioning is a term that refers to a change in attitude or behavior when paired with stimuli that (naturally) evoke positive or negative emotions about an object. Some examples of evaluative conditioning are present in:
Marketing and advertisingAssociation with celebrityThere are two forms of stimuli that are hard to demonstrate for evaluative conditioning tests. The first one is occasion setting, which is the ability of a stimulus to modulate the efficacy of association between stimulus(es) or between stimulus and reinforcer. The second one is extinction. It's hard to demonstrate because unintentionally unlearning a behavior and eventually stops doing it altogether is difficult with conscience.
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news and views 29 november 2022 a viral cocktail calms gut inflammation abnormalities in gut bacteria can contribute to hard-to-treat illnesses, such as inflammatory bowel diseases. efforts to harness bacterium-targeting viruses reveal a promising way to tackle these conditions. alice bertocchi
According to the gut microbiota research, the probiotic cocktail's positive effects were brought about by an increase in the anti-inflammatory bacteria Akkermansia, Bifidobacterium, and Blautia and a decrease in the pro-inflammatory bacteria Parasutterella.
The mice were given the probiotic cocktail, faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) from a healthy mouse donor, or 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) during dextran sulphate sodium (DSS)-induced colitis, respectively. Serum inflammatory markers, histological scoring, and symptoms were used to evaluate the inflammatory responses. By looking for tight junction proteins, the effectiveness of the intestinal barrier was evaluated. Using liquid chromatography mass spectrometry (LC-MS/MS) and 16S rDNA sequencing, the gut microbiota and its metabolites were further identified. The probiotic combo outperformed FMT and 5-ASA treatment in terms of reducing colitis symptoms, disease activity score, and mucosal inflammation. Additionally, the probiotic cocktail significantly raised JAM-1 expression in the colon and lowered serum IL-17 levels.To know more about inflammatory check the below link:
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the client is prescribed the beta-blocker, metoprolo| (lopressor). which assessment data would make the nurse question administering this medication?
The client is prescribed the beta-blocker, metoprolo| (lopressor). The assessment data would make the nurse question administering this medication is the client's apical pulse is 56.
Cardiovascular illnesses and other conditions are the main conditions that beta-blockers, a class of medications, are used to treat. For the treatment of tachycardia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, hyperthyroidism, essential tremor, aortic dissection, portal hypertension, glaucoma, migraine prophylaxis, and other disorders, beta-blockers are recommended and have FDA approval. Additionally, they are employed in the management of uncommonr diseases such long QT syndrome and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.
Both musicians and athletes may use beta-blockers for their anxiolytic and sympathetic nervous system-inhibiting effects. They have a strong anxiolytic impact even though they are not FDA approved for the treatment of anxiety-related diseases. They might result in better stage performance when combined with a decrease in tremors. Propranolol is an illustration of a beta blocker that is frequently used for anxiety or stage fright; it may lessen some peripheral signs of anxiety, such as tachycardia, perspiration, and general tension.
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a nurse is assessing a patient's risk for pressure ulcers using the braden scale. which area would the nurse address?
Answer:
Moisture
Explanation:
Describe the common payment methods that medical practices use today
a positive tinel's test can be used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome. what other tests can be used to assess for this?
A positive tinel's test can be used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and the other tests which can be used to assess for this are cubital tunnel syndrome, or radial neuropathy.
Radial neuropathy happens once the nerve is broken or pinched thanks to trauma, sure prolonged repetitive motions, or different conditions . To treat a nerve injury, your doctor could recommend a splint or over-the-counter pain drugs. In some cases, you'll want physiotherapy or a nerve block, an injection to reduce the pain.
Cubital tunnel syndrome happens once the nervus ulnaris, that passes through the ginglymoid joint tunnel (a tunnel of muscle, ligament, and bone) on the within of the elbow, is disjointed and becomes inflamed, swollen, and irritated.
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a school-aged child is being admitted for probable viral meningitis. what arrangement does the nurse need to make in order to prepare for this client?
The arrangement the nurse needs to make in order to prepare for this client Needs standard precautions only.
Viral meningitis is caused by a group of enteroviruses, such as those that also cause mumps or measles. School-aged clients generally fare better than very young children or infants. The Centers for Disease has determined that standard precautions are adequate for older children and adults.
Deep breathing can be used as a relaxation strategy to reduce perceived pain. For example, a doctor can tell a child to take a deep breath and breathe out slowly practice the technique with the child and use prompts to help with the procedure. increase.
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which information should the nurse include in the teaching session when preparing a client for arthrocentesis? select all that apply.
Answer:
"A local anesthetic agent may be injected into the joint site for your comfort."
"A syringe and needle will be used to withdraw fluid from your joint."
"You will need to wear a compression bandage for several days after the procedure."
Explanation:
the school nurse is speaking with the parent of a fourth grade student about a bed bug that was found on the child's sweater. the parent confirms that their home is infested but that the issue is being resolved. which is the best action by the nurse?
The school nurse is speaking with the parent of a fourth grade student about a bed bug that was found on the child's sweater. The parent confirms that their home is infested but that the issue is being resolved. the best action by the nurse isiInstruct the teacher of the child's classroom to use an insecticide spray.
Insects from the genus Cimex known as bed bugs feast on blood, typically at night.Skin rashes, emotional affects, and allergy symptoms are just a few of the detrimental health effects that their bites can cause.Small spots of redness to pronounced blisters are possible skin changes brought on by bed bug bites.
They may originate from previously used furniture or other contaminated sites. They can ride along in bags, backpacks, purses, and other things placed on plush or upholstered surfaces.They are able to move between rooms in multi-unit buildings like hotels and apartment complexes.
Complete question:
The school nurse is speaking with the parent of a fourth grade student about a bed bug that was found on the child's sweater. The parent confirms that their home is infested but that the issue is being resolved. Which is the best action by the nurse?
1 . Instruct the parent to launder the child's clothing and store it in tightly sealed plastic bags
2. Instruct the teacher of the child's classroom to use an insecticide spray
3. Send letters home to all of the children's parents informing them about the finding
4. Send the child home and prohibit school attendance until the infestation has been resolved
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among nurses who reported little personal control over their environment, the greater their workload, the higher their level of
Among nurses who reported little personal control over their environment, the greater their workload, their level of cortisol increases as their effort increases.
Consider cortisol as the body's natural alarm system. It is the primary stress hormone in your body. It interacts with specific brain regions to regulate your emotions, drive, and fear.
Your kidneys' triangular-shaped adrenal glands are what produce cortisol.
Your body uses cortisol to regulate a variety of processes. For instance, it:
Controls how your body consumes protein, lipids, and carbsReduces inflammation; 3. Controls blood pressureRaises blood sugar levels (glucose)Regulates your sleep and wake cyclesGives you more energy so you can deal with stress and then regain your equilibrium.To learn more about the cortisol. Please visit the below link.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. When assessing the client, the nurse notes that the client's arm seems swollen above the PICC insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?A. Measure the circumference of both upper arms.B. Notify the provider who inserted the PICC line.C. Remove the PICC line.D. Apply a cold pack to the client's upper arm.
The actions that the nurse should take first is to measure the circumference of both upper arms. That is option A.
What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is defined as the process by which an individual that is incapable of taking in food through the mouth into the gastrointestinal tract is fed through a parenteral route.
The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must include the following to provide an adequate diet for the affected individual:
protein, carbohydrates (in the form of glucose), glucose, fat, vitamins, and minerals.One of the ways to achieve the total parenteral nutrition is feeding through the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
It is one of the responsibility of a nurse in duty to monitor the insertion site of the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
If the site is swollen, the first action the nurse should take is to measure the circumference of both upper arms.
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there is a multiple vehicle collision on the freeway. you arrive after the fire department and law enforcement have closed the freeway and secured the scene. you notice multiple patients that are lying on the ground with massive wounds and blood pooling. a few patients are sitting on the barrier, talking and appear to have minimal injuries. lastly, there are a few patients still in their vehicles, and you notice firefighters working on extricating them. you are the only emergency medical staff available at this moment and are assigned to triage the scene. you decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of?
You decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of 3.
Triage is a practice used in medicine when acute care cannot be provided due to a lack of resources. The process prioritizes care for those who are most in need of it and will benefit the most from it. More broadly, it refers to the prioritization of all medical care. It is most often required in its acute form on the battlefield, during a pandemic, or during peacetime when an accident results in a mass casualty that overwhelms nearby healthcare facilities' capacity.
Triage always adheres to the modern interpretation of the Hippocratic oath, but there is plenty of room for interpretation, leading to more than one concurrent idea of its nature. The best established theories and practical scoring systems used in this article come from the field of acute physical trauma in an emergency room setting; obviously, a broken bone counts for less than uncontrolled arterial bleeding, which is likely to result in death. However, no current principle applies to mental health, reproductive health (including abortion), chronic medical conditions, geriatrics, or palliative care (including euthanasia).
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if a patient is coughing uncontrollably and there is considerable spray, what ppe should the medical assistant put on before entering the examination room?
The medical assistant may put gloves, gown, goggles, and masks. Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee as protection against infectious materials is known as personal protective equipment.
PPE guards the medical assistant against coming into contact with an infectious substance or bodily fluid that could be contaminated. Gloves, outfits, head coverings, shoe covers, respirators, eye protection, face shields, and goggles are all included. When touching objects or contaminated surfaces that could be contagious, gloves can protect you. You are protected by gowns from the taint of potentially infectious particles on garments. Only your eyes are protected by goggles from splatters. Face skin, eyes, noses, and mouth are shielded from splashes by a face shield. While respirators filter the air before you breathe it in, surgical masks assist shield your mouth and nose from bodily fluid splashes.
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on the patient's rhythm strip, you note there are pacemaker spikes that are not followed by a p wave or a qrs. what type of pacemaker malfunction is this called?
On the patient's rhythm strip, you note there are pacemaker spikes that are not followed by a p wave or a qrs. This malfunction is called asynchronous pacing.
Failure to capture is the term used when the pacemaker produces an electrical impulse (pacer spike) but no depolarization is seen. An atrial pacemaker spike is seen on the ECG, however it is not followed by a P wave or a QRS complex (ventricular pacemaker). This is not how a pacemaker normally works. When the pacemaker fails to start an electrical stimulus when it should, this is known as failure to pace or fire. Absence of pacer spikes on the rhythm strip indicates a problem. Failure to perceive is the term used when a pacemaker initiates an electrical impulse despite not sensing the patient's own heart rhythm. Pacer spikes that fall too near to the patient's own rhythm and earlier than normal are signs of failure to perceive.
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the nurse is admitting an older adult to a skilled nursing facility. what assessment parameters will the nurse expect to find with the musculoskeletal assessment? select all that apply.
The assessment parameters that the nurse expects to find with the musculoskeletal assessment are:
decreased endurancejoint stiffnessdecreased range of motionThe musculoskeletal exam assists in identifying the functional anatomy associated with clinical conditions, thereby differentiating the underlying system involved and potentially pointing to the condition, assisting in early diagnosis and intervention.
Inspection, palpation, and observing the range of motion of the joints are techniques for assessing the musculoskeletal system. The musculoskeletal exam assists in identifying the functional anatomy associated with clinical conditions, thereby differentiating the underlying system involved and potentially pointing to the condition, assisting in early diagnosis and intervention. The 5 P's acronym is used systematically in a neurovascular assessment to determine the presence of compartment syndrome. The letters P stand for pain, pallor, pulse, paresthesia, and paralysis.
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A client is taking low-dose corticosteroids on a long-term basis for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse assesses this client knowing prolonged use of corticosteroids puts the client at risk for what?
A. Adrenal storm
B. Adrenal atrophy
C. Stunted growth
D. Hypothalamic insufficiency
Adrenal atrophy. A lack of ACTH and trophic support for the adrenal cortex is a sign of adrenal atrophy, which may also cause a functional impairment in the cortex's ability to manufacture glucocorticoids.
Direct injury or the gland's lack of stimulation are the two main causes of adrenal atrophy. Consequently, the illness might be classified as primary or secondary. Direct injury to the adrenal gland is the primary cause of atrophy. Losses in the functional ability of the cortex to manufacture glucocorticoids may come from the secondary atrophy, which is primarily caused by the loss of ACTH and trophic support of the adrenal cortex. Instances of this condition arise in individuals receiving protracted doses of glucocorticoids, which results in protracted inhibition of natural pituitary ACTH release.
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enrique is a medical assistant who is greeting two patients. one is an established patient, and one is a new patient. which statement is enrique most likely to make to a new patient but not to an established patient? (1 point)
Distinction between visits from new patient and those from returning patients used to be clear. A new patient you had never met before or possibly someone for whom you did not have a recent medical record.
Differentiating between new and existing patients and categorising your services accordingly has gotten increasingly difficult over time, just like so many other elements of health care delivery. A new patient is defined by the CPT as "one who has not previously received professional services from the physician, or another physician of the same specialty who is a member of the same group practise, within the preceding three years." In contrast, a patient who has been treated by the doctor or another doctor in the same group and speciality in the past is considered to be an established patient.
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Answer: Distinction between visits from new patient and those from returning patients used to be clear. A new patient you had never met before or possibly someone for whom you did not have a recent medical record.
Explanation: Differentiating between new and existing patients and categorising your services accordingly has gotten increasingly difficult over time, just like so many other elements of health care delivery. A new patient is defined by the CPT as "one who has not previously received professional services from the physician, or another physician of the same specialty who is a member of the same group practise, within the preceding three years." In contrast, a patient who has been treated by the doctor or another doctor in the same group and speciality in the past is considered to be an established patient.
the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) records a capillary blood glucose of 253 mg/dl (14.04 mmol/l) and the nurse administered insulin for coverage to the client. the uap reports to the nurse that the blood glucose was incorrect. what actions should the nurse take? select all that apply.
The nurse should take these actions:
Complete an incident report.Obtain a current blood glucose level.Observe the client for hypoglycemia.Report the incident to the healthcare provider.The nurse should obtain a current blood glucose level to determine whether it is higher or lower than the amount stated, which will help the nurse correct the error. Because the nurse administered insulin to the client, the client's blood glucose level may drop dramatically. Report the incident to the healthcare provider so that an order can be issued, and fill out an incident report detailing what happened. Reprimanding the UAP for the incorrect blood glucose level will not resolve the situation.
Nursing assistant, nursing auxiliary, auxiliary nurse, patient care technician, home health aide/assistant, geriatric aide/assistant, psychiatric aide, nurse aide, and nurse tech are all common titles for UAPs.
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which of the following statements is true? question 5 options: dietitians use daily values to determine the nutritional adequacy of americans' diets. if you do not consume 100% of the rda for vitamin c each day, you have a high risk of developing the vitamin's deficiency disease. dietitians use myplate as the standard for assessing a population's nutrient adequacy. the rda for vitamin e meets the needs of nearly all healthy persons.
D. The RDA for vitamin E meets the needs of nearly all healthy persons is true.
For males and females aged 14 and older, including pregnant women, the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for vitamin E is 15 mg daily (or 22 international units, IU). The daily need for lactating women is 19 mg (28 IU).
When consumed in sufficient amounts, vitamin E strengthens the immune system, prevents oxidation of cell membranes, and promotes vitamin A absorption. For both men and women, the RDA for vitamin E is 15 mg of alpha-tocopherol daily. Vegetable oils and nuts are where you'll mostly find vitamin E. Although toxicity is rare, ingesting too high amounts can lead to severe bleeding. Anemia and impairments in vision, speech, and movement are among the indications of a true deficiency, which is uncommon.
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Correct Question:
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Dietitians use daily values to determine the nutritional adequacy of americans' diets.
B. If you do not consume 100% of the rda for vitamin c each day, you have a high risk of developing the vitamin's deficiency disease.
C. Dietitians use myplate as the standard for assessing a population's nutrient adequacy.
D. The RDA for vitamin e meets the needs of nearly all healthy persons.
true or false? there is no physiological cutoff point that defines clinical hypertension, but the threshold used to define people as having high blood pressure has been lowered over time.
There is no physiological cutoff point that defines clinical hypertension, but the threshold used to define people as having high blood pressure has been lowered over time. This statement is True.
Hypertension, also known as high or raised blood pressure, is a condition characterized by persistently elevated blood vessel pressure. The vessels transport blood from the heart to all parts of the body. Every time the heart beats, blood is pumped into the vessels.
Diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are among the first-line medications used to treat hypertension (CCBs). Some patients will need two or more antihypertensive medications to achieve their blood pressure goal. A hypertensive crisis is characterized by an abrupt and severe rise in blood pressure. A hypertensive crisis is a life-threatening medical condition.
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a client accidentally splashes chemicals into one eye. the nurse knows that eye irrigation with plain tap water should begin immediately and continue for 15 to 20 minutes. what is the primary purpose of this first aid treatment?
One eye gets chemicals splashed into it by a client. The nurse is aware that immediate and 15–20 minute tap water irrigation of the eyes is required. The primary purpose of this first-aid treatment is to prevent vision loss.
What is the ailment that leads to eyesight issues?Vitamin A, Maintaining the photoreceptors—the light-sensing cells—in the eyes requires vitamin A. Without this vitamin, severe ocular disorders such as dry eyes, night blindness, and others may emerge. One of the most frequent causes of blindness is a lack of vitamin A.
What signs and symptoms indicate sight loss?Dual perceptionFuzzy visionObserving light flashes.Seeing "spider webs" or floatersNoticing rainbows or halos surrounding lights.Observing what appears to be a curtain descending over one eye.An abrupt loss of visionSudden light and glare sensitivity.To know more about eye vision click:
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helga is in her fifth month of a healthy pregnancy and sometimes she can feel the fetus moving, a common experience called
This feutus moving experience is called quickening. Although some women may experience it earlier or later, quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Quickening is the term for when a pregnant woman begins to feel the movement of her unborn child (womb). It resembles flutters, bubbles, or little pulses. Pregnancy quickening is when you detect your unborn child's initial movements. The first time you feel your baby move within your uterus (womb), it could seem unusual. When you begin to notice these minute "quickening" movements, it might be comforting to know that your developing baby (foetus) is healthy and developing. It might strengthen the connection and bond you have with your unborn child to feel their movements.
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Nikki has a disease that interferes with the production of lipase in her pancreas. Based on this information, a sign of this disease is
O lack of saliva in the mouth.
O low C-reactive protein in blood.
O high amounts of fat in the stools.
O ulcer formation in the stomach.
Answer:
High amounts of fat in the stools.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided, a sign of Nikki's disease is high amounts of fat in the stools. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps to digest fats in the body. If the production of lipase is impaired, this can lead to undigested fats being present in the stools. This can be observed through the presence of fatty or greasy stools, which may have a pale or light-colored appearance. The other options listed, such as lack of saliva in the mouth, low C-reactive protein in blood, and ulcer formation in the stomach, are not directly related to the impaired production of lipase in the pancreas.
a patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. the nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that:
The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). TB bacteria typically attack the lungs, but they can attack any part of the body, including the kidney, spine, and brain. Not everyone infected with tuberculosis becomes ill. Tuberculosis bacteria spread from person to person via tiny droplets released into the air by coughs and sneezes.
When an infected person coughs or sneezes, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis spread. The majority of people who are infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis do not have symptoms. When symptoms do appear, they are typically accompanied by a cough, weight loss, night sweats, and fever. Those who are asymptomatic do not always require treatment. Patients experiencing active symptoms will require a lengthy course of antibiotics.
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a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) has an opportunistic respiratory fungal infection and is prescribed intravenous amphotericin b. the nurse assisting in caring for the client would primarily monitor for which sign that indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
The sign that indicates an adverse effect of the medication is Decreased urine output.
Patients receiving amphotericin B on an outpatient basis should be monitored 2-3 times weekly due to the high incidence of side effects. Parameters that should be monitored include CBC counts with deltas. electrolyte assessment of serum magnesium BUN and serum creatinine levels.
A complete metabolic panel and a complete blood count should be monitored regularly. Zidovudine should be closely monitored if other drugs that cause myelosuppression are being used. A disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. People with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome have an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer and infections that usually occur only in people with a weakened immune system.
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a client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (cpp) of 40 mm hg. how should the nurse interpret the cpp value?
The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and neurological status and report any changes to the healthcare provider.
What is CPP value?A client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is at risk for decreased cerebral perfusion, which is the flow of blood to the brain. The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is a measure of the perfusion of blood to the brain and is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). A normal CPP is around 70-100 mm Hg.
A CPP of 40 mm Hg in a client with increased ICP is a cause for concern, as it indicates a potentially insufficient perfusion of blood to the brain. The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and neurological status and report any changes to the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider may need to take measures to increase the CPP, such as administering medications to lower the ICP or increasing the MAP through the use of fluids or vasopressor drugs.
It is important to maintain an adequate CPP in clients with increased ICP to ensure sufficient blood flow to the brain and prevent further damage to the brain tissue. The nurse should follow the healthcare provider's orders and closely monitor the client's CPP to ensure that it remains within the normal range.
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Which of the following is most appropriate of the medical assistant in
responding to an emergency situation?
O Act when transportation is available.
O Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation.
O Act after the provider tells you to do so.
O Act only in emergency situations in the medical office.
Question 5
2 pts
A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client the unit of blood on hand is type O negative and the client is type a positive blood. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the blood as ordered
B. Contact the provider for further orders
C. Notify the blood bank
D. Complete an incident report
The following action should the nurse take Administer the blood as ordered. Option A.
The nurse first reviews the physician's instructions regarding blood transfusions and ensures that the client has been informed of the procedure and has signed an informed consent form. Once this is done, the nurse should ensure that at least an 18 or 19-gauge IV needle is inserted into the patient.
For emergency transfusions, O-negative blood is the blood type with the lowest risk of causing serious reactions in most transfusion recipients. For this reason, it is sometimes called the universal blood donor type. To give blood a healthcare practitioner inserts a thin needle usually into a vein in the arm or hand.
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