A city of Punjab has a 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day. What is the probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days? Also find its Standard Deviation

Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

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Answer:

8.65x10^3m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

Explanation:

The e.m.f induced in the coil depend on the following :

(a) No. of turns in the coil

(b) Cross-sectional Area of the coil

(c) Magnitude of Magnetic field

(d) Angular velocity of the coil

Answer:

A. 990v/m

B.330x10^-8T

C.2.19x10^-6J/m³

D.1.45x10^-11J

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of sound in air (v) = 343 m/s

Speed of car (v1) 36 m/s

Frequency(f) = 500 Hz

Find:

Change in the frequency (in Hz)

Computation:

Frequency hear by the observer(before)(f1) = [f(v+v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = [500(343+36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = 552.48 Hz

Frequency hear by the observer(after)(f2) = [f(v-v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = [500(343-36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = f1 - f2

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 552.48 Hz - 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Answer:

a)  A = 1.99 μm , b) λ = 0.4134 m , c)  v = 57.2 m / s , d)   s = - 1,946 nm ,

e)      v_max = 1,739 mm / s

Explanation:

A sound wave has the general expression

           s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

where s is the displacement, s₀ the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector and w the angular velocity, in this exercise the expression given is

           s = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) the amplitude of the wave is

        A = s₀

        A = 1.99 μm

b) wave spectrum is

      k = 2π /λ

in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

      λ = 2π / k

      λ = 2π / 15.2

     λ = 0.4134 m

c) the speed of the wave is given by the relation

       v = λ f

angular velocity and frequency are related

       w = 2π f

        f = w / 2π

        f = 869 / 2π

        f = 138.3 Hz

        v = 0.4134 138.3

         v = 57.2 m / s

d) To find the instantaneous velocity, we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

       s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

       s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

       s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

       s = - 1,946 nm

The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) the speed of the oscillating part is

           v = ds / dt)

           v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

           v_maximo = s₀w

           v_maximum = 1.99 869

           v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

let's reduce to mm / s

          v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

          v_max = 1,739 mm / s

a) A is = 1.99 μm , b) λ is = 0.4134 m , c) v is = 57.2 m / s , d) s is = - 1,946 nm, e) v_max is = 1,739 mm / s

When A sound wave has the general expression is:

Then, s = s₀ sin (kx - wt)

Now, where s is the displacement, Then, s₀ is the amplitude of the wave, k the wave vector, and w the angular velocity, Now, in this exercise the expression given is

s is = 1.99 sin (15.2 x - 869 t)

a) When the amplitude of the wave is

A is = s₀

Thus, A = 1.99 μm

b) When the wave spectrum is

k is = 2π /λ

Now, in the equation k = 15.2 m⁻¹

Then, λ = 2π / k

After that, λ = 2π / 15.2

Thus, λ = 0.4134 m

c) When the speed of the wave is given by the relation is:

Then, v = λ f

Now, the angular velocity and frequency are related is:

w is = 2π f

Then, f = w / 2π

After that, f = 869 / 2π

Now, f = 138.3 Hz

Then, v = 0.4134 138.3

Thus, v = 57.2 m / s

d) Now, To find the instantaneous velocity, When we substitute the given distance and time into the equation

Then, s = 1.99 sin (15.2 0.0509 - 869 2.94 10⁻³)

After that, s = 1.99 sin (0.77368 - 2.55486)

Then remember that trigonometry functions must be in radians

After that, s = 1.99 (-0.98895)

Thus, s = - 1,946 nm

When The negative sign indicates that it shifts to the left

e) When the speed of the oscillating part is

Then, v = ds / dt)

Now, v = - s₀(-w) cos (kx -wt)

When the maximum speed occurs when the cosines is 1

Then, v_maximo = s₀w

After that, v_maximum = 1.99 869

v_maximo = 1739.31 μm / s

Now, let's reduce to mm / s

Then, v_maxio = 1739.31 miuy / s (1 mm / 103 mu)

Therefore, v_max = 1,739 mm / s

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Answer:

50 cm long

When 35cm long wrench is compared to 50cm long wrench, we find that the 50cm long wrench produces more turning effect of force because it has longer distance between fulcrum and line of action of force. At conclusion, the more the turning effect of force the more it is easy to unscrew bolts.

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the voltage across an inductor is expressed as

[tex]V_l = IX_l\\\\Since\ X_l = 2\pi fL\\V_l = I(2\pi fL)[/tex]

Given parameters

current amplitude I = 1.50mA = 1.5*10⁻³A

inductance L = 0.450mH = 0.450*10⁻³H

Voltage across the inductor [tex]V_l[/tex] = 13.0V

Required

frequency f

Substituting the given parametres into the formula, we have;

[tex]V_l = I(2\pi fL)\\\\13 = 1.50*10^{-3}(2*3.14*f*0.450*10^{-3})\\\\13 = 4.239*10^{-6}f\\\\f = \frac{13}{4.239*10^{-6}} \\\\f = 3,066,761 Hertz\\\\f = 3.067MHz[/tex]

Hence, the frequency required is 3.067MHz

Answer:

The potential will be Va/b

Explanation:

So Let sphere A charged Q to potential V.

so, V= KQ/a. ....(1

Thus, spherical shell B is connected to the sphere A by a wire, so all charge always reside on the outer surface.

therefore, potential will be ,

V ′ = KQ/b = Va/b... That is from .....(1), KQ=Va]

Answer:

The wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 419 \ nm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  distance of separation is   [tex]d = 3.34 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

   The  distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 3.30 \ m[/tex]

      The  order of the fringe is  n =  7

     The distance of separation of  fringes is y =  29.0 cm = 0.29 m

Generally the wavelength of the light is mathematically represented as

          [tex]\lambda = \frac{y * d }{ n * D}[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]\lambda = \frac{0.29 * 3.34*10^{-5} }{ 7 * 3.30}[/tex]

        [tex]\lambda = 4.19*10^{-7}\ m[/tex]

        [tex]\lambda = 419 \ nm[/tex]

....................

Answer:

The current is  [tex]I = 8.9 *10^{-5} \ A[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  radius is [tex]r = 3.17 \ mm = 3.17 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

      The current density is  [tex]J = c\cdot r^2 = 9.00*10^{6} \ A/m^4 \cdot r^2[/tex]

      The distance we are considering is  [tex]r = 0.5 R = 0.001585[/tex]

Generally current density is mathematically represented as

          [tex]J = \frac{I}{A }[/tex]

Where A is the cross-sectional area represented as

         [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

=>      [tex]J = \frac{I}{\pi r^2 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]I = J * (\pi r^2 )[/tex]

Now the change in current per unit length is mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]dI = 2 J * \pi r dr[/tex]

Now to obtain the current (in A) through the inner section of the wire from the center to r = 0.5R we integrate dI from the 0 (center) to point 0.5R as follows

         [tex]I = 2\pi \int\limits^{0.5 R}_{0} {( 9.0*10^6A/m^4) * r^2 * r} \, dr[/tex]

         [tex]I = 2\pi * 9.0*10^{6} \int\limits^{0.001585}_{0} {r^3} \, dr[/tex]

        [tex]I = 2\pi *(9.0*10^{6}) [\frac{r^4}{4} ] | \left 0.001585} \atop 0}} \right.[/tex]

        [tex]I = 2\pi *(9.0*10^{6}) [ \frac{0.001585^4}{4} ][/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]I = 2 * 3.142 * 9.00 *10^6 * [ \frac{0.001585^4}{4} ][/tex]

        [tex]I = 8.9 *10^{-5} \ A[/tex]

Answer:

A) it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Explanation:

The hydraulic lever works based on Pascal's law of transmission of pressure through a fluid. In the hydraulic lever, the pressure transmitted is the same.

Pressure transmitted P = F/A

where F is the force applied

and A is the area over which the force is applied.

This pressure can be manipulated on the input end as a small force applied over a small area, and then be transmitted to the output end as a large force over a large area.

F/A = f/a

where the left side of the equation is for the output, and the right side is for the input.

The volume of the displaced fluid will be the same on both ends of the hydraulic lever. Since we know that

volume V = (area A) x (distance d)

this means that the the piston on the input smaller area of the hydraulic lever will travel a greater distance, while the piston on the larger output area of the lever will travel a small distance.

From all these, we can see that the advantage of a hydraulic lever is that it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Answer:

A)     K / K₀ = 4   b)     v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

in the problem it indicates that the displacement was doubled (x = 2xo)

starting point. At the position of maximum displacement

      Em₀ = Ke = ½ k (2x₀)²

final point. In the equilibrium position

      [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = K = ½ m v²

        Em₀ = Em_{f}

        ½ k 4 x₀² = K

        (½ K x₀²) = K₀

         K = 4 K₀

          K / K₀ = 4

B) the speed value

          ½ k 4 x₀² = ½ m v²

          v = 4 (k / m) x₀

if we call

           v₀ = k / m x₀

          v = 4 v₀

         v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

Change in Velocity = final velocity - initial velocity

Change in velocity = 30km/h - (- 45km/h )

= 75 km/h due west

Answer:

The direction of net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is in the positive y-axis

The net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is 3.74 N

Explanation:

The magnetic field strength [tex]B[/tex] = 1.7 T

the current [tex]I[/tex] = 0.7 A

The diameter of the loop = 2 m

the length of the circular section of the semi-circular loop [tex]l[/tex] = πd/2

==> [tex]l[/tex] = (3.142 x 2)/2 = 3.142 m

The force on the semi-circular is given as

F = [tex]BIl[/tex] sin ∅

but the loop is perpendicular to the field, therefore

sin ∅ = sin 90° = 1

F = 1.7 x 0.7 x 3.142 x 1 = 3.74 N

The right hand rule states that "if the fingers of the right hand are held parallel to each other in the direction of the magnetic field, and the thumb is held at right angle to the other fingers in the direction of the flow of current. The palm will push in the direction of the magnetic force on the conductor".

According to the right hand rule, the direction of net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is in the positive y-axis

Explanation:

EE = ½ kx²

EE = ½ (800 N/m) (6 m)²

EE = 14,400 J

Answer:

14,400 J

Explanation:

Its the answer

Answer:

The AC generator has one unbroken slip ring

Explanation:

In physics, the application of electromagnetic induction can be seen in generators and dynamos. Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating electricity using magnets. It found applications in generators and the types of generator they found application is in AC and DC generator.

An AC generator is also called a Dynamo. A DC generator contains what is called a SPLIT RING fixed to the end of the coil which can be separated and coupled back according to the name "split". An AC generator also called a Dynamo makes use of a SLIP ring which cannot be divided into two. It comes as an entity. The presence of this rings is what differentiates a DC generator from an AC generator.

We can replace split rings with slip rings when converting a DC generator to an AC generator and vice versa.

It can therefore be concluded that the difference between a DC and an AC generator is that the AC generator has one unbroken slip ring.

Answer:

1.94cm³/s

Explanation:

1L = 1000cm³

Ihr = 3600s

So

Using

Average flow rate

Fr= 1L/100Km x 700Km/1hr x 1hr/3600s x 1000cm³/ 1L

= 1.94cm³/s

Answer:

Explanation:

Given data:

power rating of the heater P= 1010 W

voltage of the heater V= 115 volts

current taken by the heater I= ?

We can apply the power formula to solve for the current in the heater

i.e P= IV

Making I the current subject of formula we have

I= P/V

Substituting our given data into the expression for I we have

I=1010/115= 8.78 A

Answer:

0.35 m³/s

Explanation:

When the pipe's depth is 0.4 m, the area of the circular segment is:

A = ½ R² (θ − sin θ)

The depth of the water is:

h = R (1 − cos(θ/2))

Solving for θ:

0.4 = 0.5 (1 − cos(θ/2))

0.8 = 1 − cos(θ/2)

cos(θ/2) = 0.2

θ/2 = acos(0.2)

θ = 2 acos(0.2)

θ ≈ 2.74 rad

The area is therefore:

A = ½ (0.5 m)² (2.74 − sin 2.74)

A = 0.338 m²

The cross-sectional area when the pipe is full is:

A = π (0.5 m)²

A = 0.785 m²

The flow velocity is constant:

v = v

Q / A = Q / A

(0.15 m³/s) / (0.338 m²) = Q / (0.785 m²)

Q = 0.35 m³/s

Answer:

433

Explanation:

Each electron winds up with kinetic energy of

(270 keV)

plus

(whatever KE it had when it started accelerating).

Answer:

The charge is  [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The electric potential is  [tex]V = 25.0 \ kV = 25.0 *10^{3}\ V[/tex]

     The  mass of the drop is  [tex]m = 0.168 \ m g = 0.168 *10^{-3} \ g = 0.168 *10^{-6}\ kg[/tex]

      The  speed is  [tex]v = 18.8 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the charge on the paint drop due to the electric potential which will give it the speed stated in the question  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]Q = \frac{m v^2 }{ 2 * V }[/tex]

Substituting values

      [tex]Q = \frac{0.168 *10^{-6} (18)^2 }{ 2 * 25*10^3 }[/tex]

       [tex]Q = 2.177 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

y ’= y / 2

thus when the slit width is doubled the pattern width is halved

Explanation:

The diffraction of a slit is given by the expressions

          a sin θ = m λ

where a is the width of the slit, λ is the wavelength and m is an integer that determines the order of diffraction.

          sin θ = m λ / a

If this equation

          a ’= 2 a

we substitute

          2 a sin θ'= m λ

          sin θ'= (m λ / a)  1/2

          sin θ ’= sin θ / 2

We can use trigonometry to find the width

         tan θ = y / L

as the angle is small

         tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

         sin θ = y / L  

we substitute

        y ’/ L = y/L   1/2

        y ’= y / 2

thus when the slit width is doubled the pattern width is halved

Answer:

T = 80√3 N ≈ 139 N

W = 160 N

Explanation:

Sum of forces on B in the x direction:

∑F = ma

80 N sin 60° − T sin 30° = 0

T = 80 N sin 60° / sin 30°

T = 80√3 N

T ≈ 139 N

Sum of forces on B in the y direction:

∑F = ma

80 N cos 60° + T cos 30° − W = 0

W = 80 N cos 60° + T cos 30°

W = 40 N + 120 N

W = 160 N

Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m

Answer:

E. None of these statements are true.

Explanation:

We can't say the exact or approximate amount of tension on the rope, since we do know for sure from the statement who is winning.

for A, the tension on the rope does not depend on if both teams pull are in equilibrium.

for B, the 49ers would be pulling with a force more than 5000 N, if they were winning. The problem is that we can't say with all confidence that they'd be winning.

for C, we don't know how much tension exists on the rope, and its direction, so we can't work out how much tension the 49ers are pulling the rope with.

for D,  just as for C above, we can't work out how much tension there is on the rope, since we do not know how much force the 49ers are pulling with.

we go with option E.

B. A chemical change

Explanation:

I'm guessing ?