(a) A roller-coaster car has a total mass (including passengers) of 505 kg. Sitting in the car is a passenger with a mass of 52.0 kg. The car reaches the lowest point of a circular arc in the track, point A in the figure below, moving at a speed of 14.0 m/s. The radius of the arc is r, = 24.0 m. What is the magnitude (in N) and direction of the force that the seat exerts on the passenger at point A? magnitude direction Select-- v (b) What If? If the car has the same speed at point A as in part (a), what would the radius (in m) of the track have to be for the force of the seat on the passenger at this point to be three times the passenger's weight?

Answers

Answer 1

The force of the seat on the passenger is 7.33 N and its direction is inward toward the center of the arc. The radius of the track would have to be = 3,55 m.

At point A, the roller-coaster car has a total mass of 505 kg, including the passenger with a mass of 52.0 kg. The car is travelling at a speed of 14.0 m/s and the radius of the arc is 24.0 m. The force that the seat exerts on the passenger can be calculated using the formula F = mv2/r, where m is the mass of the passenger, v is the speed of the car, and r is the radius of the arc.

In this case, F = (52.0 kg)(14.0 m/s2) / 24.0 m = 7.33 N. The force of the seat on the passenger is 7.33 N, and its direction is inward toward the center of the arc.

For the force of the seat on the passenger at point A to be three times the passenger's weight (3 x 52.0 kg = 156.0 kg), the radius of the track would have to be r = (52.0 kg)(14.0 m/s2) / 156.0 kg = 3.55 m.

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Related Questions

Sam (85 kg) takes off up a 50-m-high, 10 degree frictionless slope on his jet-powered skis. The skis have a thrust of 220 N. He keeps his skis tilted at 10 degree after becoming airborne. How far does Sam land from the base of the cliff?

Answers

Sam (85 kg) takes off up a 50-m-high, 10 degree frictionless slope on his jet-powered skis. The skis have a thrust of 220 N. He keeps his skis tilted at 10 degree after becoming airborne. Sam lands about 109.9 meters from the base of the cliff.

To solve this problem, we can use the conservation of energy principle. At the bottom of the slope, all of Sam's energy is in the form of potential energy:

Potential energy = mgh

where m is Sam's mass (85 kg), g is the acceleration due to gravity [tex](9.81 m/s^2)[/tex], and h is the height of the slope (50 m).

Potential energy = [tex](85 kg) \times (9.81 m/s^2) \times (50 m) = 41,287.5 J[/tex]

As Sam takes off up the slope, his potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and then to a combination of kinetic and potential energy as he becomes airborne. We can use the conservation of energy to find Sam's speed at the top of the slope:

Potential energy at bottom = Kinetic energy at top

[tex]mgh = (1/2)mv^2[/tex]

where v is Sam's speed at the top of the slope.

[tex]v = \sqrt{(2gh)} = \sqrt{(2 \times 9.81 m/s^2 \times 50 m)} = 31.3 m/s[/tex]

Now, we can use Sam's speed and the angle of his skis to find his horizontal velocity:

Horizontal velocity = v cos(theta)

where theta is the angle of the skis after becoming airborne (10 degrees).

Horizontal velocity = 31.3 m/s x cos(10 degrees) = 30.2 m/s

Finally, we can use the horizontal velocity and Sam's hang time to find the distance he travels:

Distance = Horizontal velocity x Hang time

where hang time is the time Sam spends in the air. Hang time can be found using the formula:

Hang time = (2v sin(theta)) / g

Hang time = (2 x 31.3 m/s x sin(10 degrees)) / 9.81 [tex]m/s^2[/tex] = 3.64 s

Distance = 30.2 m/s x 3.64 s = 109.9 m

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a satellite is shot into a low orbit around a newly discovered planet. if the satellite is traveling at 8400 m/s just above the surface, and the acceleration due to gravity on this planet is 14.4 m/s2 , what must be the planet's radius?

Answers

The planet's radius is approximately 2.13 × 10^6 meters.

Planet radius calculation.

To find the planet's radius, we can use the following formula:

v² = GM/r

where v is the satellite's velocity, G is the gravitational constant, M is the planet's mass, and r is the planet's radius.

Since the satellite is just above the surface of the planet, we can assume that r is equal to the sum of the planet's radius and the satellite's altitude above the surface. Let h be the altitude of the satellite above the planet's surface, then we have:

r = planet's radius + h

Substituting this expression for r into the equation above and solving for the planet's radius, we get:

r = GM/v² - h

where G = 6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg² is the gravitational constant.

Substituting the given values, we get:

r = (6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²) * M / (8400 m/s)² - h

We can also use the formula for the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of a planet:

g = GM/r²

where g is the acceleration due to gravity at the planet's surface.

Solving for M in this equation, we get:

M = g * r² / G

Substituting the expression for r from above and solving for r, we get:

r = √(GM/g)

Substituting the given values, we get:

r = √((6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²) * M / (14.4 m/s²))

Equating this expression for r with the previous one, we get:

(6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²) * M / (8400 m/s)² - h = √((6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²) * M / (14.4 m/s²))

Squaring both sides and rearranging, we get:

M = (8400 m/s)² * (14.4 m/s²) * h / (2 * G)

Substituting this expression for M into the equation for r, we get:

r = √((8400 m/s)² * h / (2 * g))

Substituting the given values, we get:

r = √((8400 m/s)² * h / (2 * 14.4 m/s²))

r = 2.13 × 10^6 meters

Therefore, the planet's radius is approximately 2.13 × 10^6 meters using v² = GM/r.

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how do the summer and winter monsoon affect climate in the region?

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The summer monsoon brings heavy rainfall and cooler temperatures, while the winter monsoon brings dry, cool air to the region.

The summer monsoon is characterized by winds blowing from the southwest over the Indian Ocean, bringing moisture to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. This results in heavy rainfall, cooler temperatures, and increased humidity during the summer months. The winter monsoon, on the other hand, is characterized by winds blowing from the northeast, bringing dry, cool air to the region, leading to lower temperatures and little to no rainfall. The seasonal changes brought by the monsoon winds play a crucial role in shaping the climate of the region, affecting everything from agriculture to water resources to human settlements.

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Can someone please help me with this I am quite stuck thanks

Answers

Answer:

The mass remains the same since stoichiometrically one mole reacts and one mole is formed

Explanation:

Calcium chloride is reacting with Sodium sulphate to form a white precipitate of calcium sulphate.

[tex]{ \sf{CaCl _{2} + Na_{2} SO_{4} → CaSO _{4} + 2NaCl}}[/tex]

From the equation, 1 mole of calcium chloride forms 1 mole of calcium sulphate.

R.F.M of CaCl2 = 40 + (35.5×2) = 111

R.F.M of CaSO4 = 40 + 32 + (16×4) = 136

R.F.M of Na2SO4 = (23×2) + 32 + (16×4) = 142

R.F.M of 2NaCl = 2[23 + 35.5] = 117

[tex]{ \sf{(r.f.m \: of \: rectants) = (r.f.m \: of \: products)}} \\{ \sf{ (mass \: of \: rectants) = (mass \: of \: products)}} \\ \\ { \sf{(111 + 142) = (136 + 117)}} \\ { \sf{300.23 = x}} \\ \\ { \sf{x = \frac{300.32}{(111 + 142)} \times (136 + 117) }} \\ \\ { \sf{x = \frac{300.32}{253} \times 253 }} \\ \\ { \sf{x = 300.32}}[/tex]

Answer:

The mass remains the same

Explanation:

Which of the following is an example of potential energy?A .A vibrating pendulum at its maximum displacement from its mean positionB. A body at rest from some height from the ground.C. A wound clock spring.D. A vibrating pendulum when it is just passing through its mean position

Answers

The best example that shows the potential energy is a body at rest from some height from the ground, thus the correct answer is option b.

Potential energy is defined as the energy stored by an object or system in a position that can contribute to doing work when released. It is the stored energy of an object or system.

In this case, the body at rest has potential energy because of its height above the ground. As it falls, the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy.

Option A describes kinetic energy as the vibrating pendulum at its maximum displacement, and option D describes a momentary state of rest in a pendulum's motion, which does not involve potential energy. Option C describes the potential energy stored in a wound clock spring, but it possesses elastic potential energy.

Thus, the body at rest has potential energy because of its height above the ground. Thus, option b is correct.

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a car weighing 12,500 n starts from rest and accelerates to 83.0 km/h in 5.00 s. the friction force is 1350 n. find the applied force produced by the engine

Answers

The applied force for the engine will be 24,450 N.

The applied force produced by the engine for a car weighing 12,500 n starting from rest and accelerating to 83.0 km/h in 5.00 s with a friction force of 1350 n is:

Applied force = (Mass x Acceleration) - Friction force

Applied force = (12,500 N x (83.0 km/h / 5.00 s)) - 1350 N

Applied force = 25,800 - 1350 N

Applied force = 24,450 N

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a charge is passing through a static magnetic field. the velocity of the charge makes a 90o angle with the field. the force exerted by the magnetic field does work on the charge.

Answers

The statement is True, A charge is passing through a static magnetic field. the velocity of the charge makes a 90o angle with the field. the force exerted by the magnetic field does work on the charge.

The magnetic force exerted on a moving charge with a velocity in the presence of a magnetic field is given by F = qvBsinθ

Magnetic force is a fundamental force that arises due to the motion of electric charges. It is the force that acts between two magnetic poles or between a magnetic pole and a moving charged particle. Magnetic force is a vector quantity and is described in terms of its direction, magnitude, and point of application.

The force between two magnetic poles is governed by the inverse square law, which means that the force decreases as the distance between the poles increases. The direction of the magnetic force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charged particle and to the direction of the magnetic field in which it moves. The magnitude of the magnetic force is proportional to the charge of the particle, its velocity, and the strength of the magnetic field.

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if two identical wires carrying a certain current in the same direction are placed parallel to each other, they will experience a force of repulsion. select one: a. true b. false

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The given statement "If two identical wires carrying a certain current in the same direction are placed parallel to each other, then they will experience a force of repulsion" is true. This can be explained through Lenz's law.

What is Lenz's law?

Two parallel wires which are carrying the same magnitude of current in the same direction experience a force of repulsion due to the electric currents in each of the wire which are creating a magnetic field in the same direction. This force of repulsion is known as the Lenz's Law.

When two identical wires are carrying a certain magnitude of electric current in the same direction and these are placed in parallel to each other, then they will experience a force of repulsion. This is due to the principle of the electromagnetic force and Lenz's law. When the two current-carrying wires are kept near each other, then they exert force on each other, and that force is called as the force of repulsion or the force of attraction depending on the direction of the current flowing through the wire. The direction of the force is given by the Fleming's left-hand rule, which is the most common way to determine the direction of the force in such cases.

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In SEC, in what volume would you expect molecules that are much smaller than the fractionation range of the Sephadex SP to elute? A. Vi B. Vm C. Vav D. Vr E. Vo

Answers

The void volume (Vo), which is represented by option E, is where molecules in SEC that are significantly smaller than the fractionation range of the Sephadex SP are anticipated to elute.

Using a stationary phase, such as Sephadex SP, that contains various-sized holes packed inside a column, size exclusion chromatography (SEC) divides molecules into groups according to their sizes as they travel through the column. Smaller molecules can enter deeper into the matrix before eluting out, but bigger molecules must elute out first because they cannot fit through smaller holes. Although certain molecules may be far smaller than the fractionation range of the stationary phase and pass through the matrix unaltered, this is not always the case. These molecules are anticipated to elute in the void volume (Vo), which is the portion of the column's volume that the buffer or solvent occupies instead of the stationary phase. As a result, Vo, option E, is the right response.

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(a) Find the current in an 8.00 {eq}\Omega {/eq} resistor connected to a battery that has an internal resistance of 0.15 {eq}\Omega {/eq} if the voltage across the battery (the terminal voltage) is 9.00 V.
(b) What is the emf of the battery?

Answers

(a) The current in the 8.00 Ω resistor connected to a battery that has an internal resistance of 0.15 Ω and a terminal voltage of 9.00 V is 1.0 A.

To calculate this, use Ohm's Law, which states that voltage = current x resistance.

Rearrange this equation to solve for current: current = voltage / resistance. Plug in the values for voltage and resistance to get:

current = 9.00 V / 8.00 Ω + 0.15 Ω = 1.0 A.

(b) The EMF (electromotive force) of the battery is 9.00 V. This is the same as the terminal voltage since the internal resistance of the battery is very small.

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The diffraction limit of a 4-meter telescope is _________ than that of a 2-meter telescope.
a) two times larger
b) four times larger
c) four times smaller
d) two times smaller
e) It depends on the type of telescope.

Answers

The diffraction limit of a 4-meter telescope is two times smaller than that of a 2-meter telescope.

The diffraction limit of a telescope is the minimum distance between two objects so that they can still be viewed as separate from one another. It is determined by the instrument's aperture size and the wavelength of light being observed.

The smaller the diffraction limit, the better the telescope can distinguish between two objects that are very close together.

In simpler terms, the diffraction limit refers to the smallest object size that a telescope can observe. This is known as angular resolution, which is determined by the telescope's aperture size and the wavelength of light being observed.

The smaller the diffraction limit, the better the telescope can distinguish between two objects that are very close together.

Therefore, a 4-meter telescope has a smaller diffraction limit than a 2-meter telescope. Hence, the answer is two times smaller.

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if an object has a mass of 200 kg and a weight of 1000 n, what is g? a. 0.2 n/kg b. 20 n/kg c. 10 n/kg d. 5 n/kg

Answers

The value of g, the acceleration due to gravity, is approximately 5 m/s2 or 10 n/kg.

To calculate g, we use the formula:

g = F/m

where g is the acceleration due to gravity, F is the force of gravity or weight, and m is the mass of the object.

Given that the mass of the object is 200 kg and the weight is 1000 N, we can plug in the values and solve for g:

g = 1000 N / 200 kg = 5 m/s2

Therefore, the value of g is approximately 5 m/s2 or 10 n/kg.

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An object is propelled along a straight-line path by a force. If the net force were doubled, the object's acceleration would be? a) half as much b) twice as much c) the same d) none of these. e) four times as much.

Answers

An object is propelled along a straight-line path by a force. If the net force were doubled, the object's acceleration would be b. twice as much.

Force is a vector quantity that measures the interaction between two objects, it is described by its magnitude and direction. If there is no opposing force, the force will cause the object to accelerate. Acceleration is the rate at which the velocity of an object changes. The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force applied to it. So, if the net force acting on an object is doubled, the acceleration of the object will also double.

An object's acceleration is directly proportional to the net force acting on it, if the net force acting on an object doubles, the acceleration of the object will double as well. Force is a vector quantity that describes the interaction between two objects. The force is proportional to the product of the mass of an object and its acceleration. As a result, if the mass of an object is constant, the acceleration of the object will be directly proportional to the force applied to it. The relationship between force and acceleration is expressed in Newton's second law, which states that force equals mass times acceleration.

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1. A glass tube filled with water is at rest on a table. Rank the pressures at points Q, R, S, T, and U from largest to smallest. Explain your reasoning. 2. A U-shaped tube (height -0.5 meter) is partly filled with water, as shown at right. The right end of the tube is closed at the top, but the left end is open to the atmosphere. There is no air between the rubber stopper and the water surface on the right-hand side. a. Rank the pressures at points W, X, Y, and Z. Explain the reasoning you used to rank the pressures. b. Is the pressure at point Z greater than, less than or equal to atmospheric pressure? Explain. No A syringe is used to remove water from the left-hand side such that the level on the left drops to point W. (Note that the water level on the right side is not shown.) no Will the water level on the right-hand side stay at point Zor drop to a point below point Z? Explain.

Answers

The atmospheric pressure will be the same at every point. Therefore, they will all have the same pressure.

The atmospheric pressure will be the same at every point. Therefore, they will all have the same pressure. Q, R, S, T, and U all have the same pressure.

The pressure at point X is greater than the pressure at points Y, Z, and W. Point W has the least pressure. Point Z has greater pressure than W but lesser than Y. Y has greater pressure than Z but less than X.

The pressure at point Z is equal to the atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric pressure acts on the open end of the tube that's why the pressure at point Z is equal to the atmospheric pressure. The pressure at point Z is in balance with the atmospheric pressure.The water level on the right-hand side will drop to a point below point Z. When water is removed from the left side, the pressure on the right side will be greater than the pressure on the left side.

So, the water will start to move towards the right side until the pressure in the left and right sides is the same again. When it is in balance, the water level on the right side will stay below point Z.

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A block slides down a frictionless plane having an inclination of θ=15.00. The block starts from rest at the top, and the length of the incline is 2.00m. (a) Draw a free-body diagram of the block. Find (b) the acceleration of the block and (c) its speed when it reaches the bottom of the incline.

Answers

(a) Free-body diagram of block is as given below. (b) Acceleration of the block is 2.529 m/s². (c) Speed of the block when it reaches the bottom of the incline is 3.18 m/s.

What is frictionless surface?

Frictionless surface is an invented concept of surface that is based on imagination and creative ideas of scientists where assumed friction of surface is zero.

(a) Free-body diagram of block is:

            /|

           / |

          /  | m

         / θ |

        /    |

       /_____|

        f ||

          ||

          ||

          ||

          \/

where m is mass of the block, θ is angle of inclination, f is force of friction (which is zero in this case), and g is acceleration due to gravity acting vertically downwards.

(b) The force acting along incline is component of the weight of block parallel to the incline, given by mg sin θ, where m is the mass of the block and g is acceleration due to gravity. Since there is no friction, this force is equal to net force acting on block, which is ma, where a is acceleration of block along the incline. Therefore,

mg sin θ = ma

a = g sin θ

a = 9.81 m/s² * sin 15.00 = 2.529 m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration of the block is 2.529 m/s².

(c) v² = u² + 2as

where u is the initial velocity (which is zero), s is the displacement (which is 2.00 m along the incline), and a is the acceleration (2.529 m/s²). Solving for v, we get:

v = √(2as) = √(2 * 2.00 m * 2.529 m/s²) = 3.18 m/s

Hence, speed of block when it reaches bottom of incline is 3.18 m/s.

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what is the size in mm of an image of a 0.85 mm object, such as lettering inside a ring, held at this distance?

Answers

The size of an image of a 0.85 mm object held at a certain distance is 5.67 mm.

To solve for di, we need to know the value of do and the magnification. Since the problem does not provide the value of do, we cannot calculate di directly. However, we can use the thin lens formula, 1/do + 1/di = 1/f, where f is the focal length of the lens used to form the image. If we assume a value for f, we can solve for di.

Let's assume that the object is held at a distance of 50 mm from a converging lens with a focal length of 20 mm. Using the thin lens formula, we can solve for the image distance:

1/do + 1/di = 1/f

1/50 + 1/di = 1/20

1/di = 1/20 - 1/50

1/di = 3/1000

di = 333.33 mm

The magnification can be calculated using the equation M = -di/do. Assuming the lens is placed such that it forms a real image, the object distance is negative, and the magnification will be negative as well.

M = -di/do

M = -333.33/-50

M = 6.67

Therefore, the image of the 0.85 mm object will be magnified 6.67 times, and its size will be:

image size = object size x magnification

image size = 0.85 mm x 6.67

image size = 5.67 mm.

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Quantum numbers are interrelated values that indicate a specific orbital - the principal quantum number, n; the angular momentum quantum number, l; and the magnetic quantum number, ml.
Which one of the following is an allowed set of quantum numbers?
a) n = 3, l = 1, ml = -2
b) n = 2, l = 0, ml = 1
c) n = 2, l = 2, ml = - 1
d) n = 3, l = 2, ml = - 1

Answers

Due to the fact that they go against one or more of the aforementioned restrictions, options a), b), and c) are not permitted groups of quantum numbers.

An allowed set of quantum numbers must follow certain rules that govern the behavior of electrons in atoms. The principal quantum number (n) indicates the energy level of the electron, the angular momentum quantum number (l) indicates the shape of the orbital, and the magnetic quantum number (ml) indicates the orientation of the orbital in space. The values of n, l, and ml must all be integers, and they must also satisfy certain constraints.

Of the options given, only option d) n = 3, l = 2, ml = -1 is an allowed set of quantum numbers. This is because n = 3 indicates the electron is in the third energy level, l = 2 indicates that it is in a d orbital (since l = 0 corresponds to an s orbital, l = 1 corresponds to a p orbital, and so on), and ml = -1 indicates that the orbital is oriented in a specific direction in space.

Options a), b), and c) are not allowed sets of quantum numbers because they violate one or more of the constraints mentioned above.

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Which of these stars has the greatest surface temperature? a. a main-sequence B star. b. a supergiant A star. c. a giant K star.

Answers

Main-sequence B star has the greatest surface temperature. The correct answer is a.

The surface temperature of a star is closely related to its spectral classification, which is determined by analyzing the star's spectrum. The temperature of a star's surface affects its color, with hotter stars appearing bluer and cooler stars appearing redder. Main-sequence stars are stars that are fusing hydrogen into helium in their cores.

The temperature of a star's surface depends on its spectral class, which is determined by its temperature. B stars are hotter than A stars, K stars are cooler than A stars, and supergiant stars are generally cooler than main-sequence stars of the same spectral class. Therefore,  option a, a main-sequence B star has the highest surface temperature of the three options given.

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I need the question of this page filled with steps...... I'm confused

Answers

i) The velocity of the particle at 17 sec is 17m/s.

ii) The total distance travelled is 190 m.

iii) The total displacement is -10m.

What is the difference between distance and displacement?

Distance is the length of any path connecting any two places. As measured along the shortest path between any two points, displacement is the direct distance between them.

The direction is ignored when calculating distance. The direction is accounted for in the displacement calculation.

Since it solely depends on magnitude and not direction, distance is a scalar number. Since displacement varies on both magnitude and direction, it is a vector quantity.

Distance provides specific directions that must be taken when moving from one location to another. Displacement only provides a partial description of the route because it pertains to the quickest way.

Velocity of particle = Slope of the object =Δ [tex]\frac{y}{x}[/tex]

Velocity = [tex]\frac{95-10}{20-15}[/tex] = 17m/s

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what is the difference between constant speed and acceleration? Explain mathematically

Answers

Answer:

A constant velocity of an object ensures that the rate of change of velocity with time is null, and hence, the acceleration of the object is zero. A constant acceleration of an object ensures that the velocity of the object is changing continuously with time, and the velocity will not be constant.

Explanation:

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a fireman' s hose is pointed vertically upward at a height of 1.5 m above the ground and a stream of water is coming from it . when the water is shut off, the noise of the water hitting the ground continues for another 2.0 s . what was the speed of the water as it left the hose?

Answers

The fireman's hose is pointed vertically upwards at a height of 1.5 m above the ground and a stream of water is coming from it. When the water is shut off, the noise of the water hitting the ground continues for another 2.0 s, the speed of the water as it left the hose is  4.31 m/s.

What is the definition of a fireman?

A firefighter, also known as a fireman or firewoman, is a professional who is trained and equipped to put out fires, rescue people and animals from dangerous situations, and manage other emergency situations.

The water comes to rest after it reaches the ground, so it moves at constant acceleration in the vertical direction. Since the final velocity is zero, the initial velocity and the displacement can be used to calculate the time of flight.

The speed at which the water left the hose can then be determined using the time of flight and the height of the hose above the ground.

Initial velocity = v₀, Final velocity = vf = 0.

Displacement = h = 1.5 m

Acceleration = a = g = 9.8 m/s²

Time of flight = t

Using the formula ,vf = v₀ + at₀ = v₀ + gt

v₀ = -gt

displacement = v₀×t + 1/2×at²

h = -1/2 × gt²

t = sqrt(2h/g) = sqrt(2(1.5)/9.8) = 0.44 s.

Using the formula, vf = v₀ + at

vf = 0 + gtvf = 9.8 × 0.44 = 4.31 m/s.

The water's speed as it leaves the hose is 4.31 m/s.

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while completing the experiment, where should you measure to on the pendulum bob?

Answers

While completing the pedulum experiment, you should measure the length of the pendulum to the middle of the pendulum bob to caculate the required values.

What part of a pendulum do you measure?

A ruler, meter stick, or measuring tape are necessary in order to determine the length of a pendulum. Start the measurement at the point where the string pivots from its attachment at the string's upper end. As you reach the item dangling from the string, the pendulum bob, measure all the way down to its center.

The smallest time intervals are measured using a pendulum clock. A little stone or metallic ball suspended from a stiff stand by a thread is the basic component of a pendulum. Bob is the name of the metallic ball.

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A scientist is studying an organism that is similar to early life on Earth. The scientist observes structures form in the organism that appear as oily spheres with an inner fluid. Of which type of macromolecule is the sphere made? carbohydrate lipid nucleic acid protein

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The structure described by the scientist, which is an oily sphere with an inner fluid, is most likely a lipid vesicle.

Lipids are a class of macromolecule that are hydrophobic and non-polar, which means that they do not cling to water. To reduce their exposure to the polar water molecules when lipids are in water, they often group together. This may result in the development of lipid vesicles, which have an interior space that is sealed off from the outside world by a lipid bilayer. Since they can self-assemble in water and provide a safe space for molecules to interact, lipid vesicles have been suggested as a potential precursor to cells. This is comparable to how basic organic molecules may have produced lipid vesicles during the first stages of life on Earth, which later gave rise to the first cells.

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what did oersted discover about electricity and magnetism

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Hans Christian Oersted established the connection between electricity and magnetism in 1820. The magnetic field produced by the current revolves around the wire in a circle.

Oersted demonstrated how a magnetic field may be produced by moving electrons by establishing a compass through a wire carrying an electric current.

Scientists believed that electricity and magnetism had no connection until the discovery of electromagnetism. Hans Christian Oersted, a scientist from Denmark, revolutionised all of that. He found that an electric current in a wire may cause a magnetic field, as evidenced by the fact that the current can cause a magnetised compass needle to deflect.

The electrons in the wire are pushed when a coil of wire is moved around a magnet or vice versa, producing an electrical current. In essence, kinetic energy—the energy of motion—is transformed into electrical energy via electricity generators.

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Approximately 85% of phosphorus in the body is found in the bones. The other 15% of phosphorus in the body serves mary impertari Durposes. Click to select the functions of phosphorus. Dairy foods are rich sources of calcium, but mary people with lactase intolerance cannot consume these foods without experiending g gestrointestinal discomfort. Fortunately, there are a number of nondairy sources of caiclum. Park the following nondairy foocs in order of calcium content. Most Cakclum Per Sening 1 cup Tohale Rais Bran cereal 1 cup cakcum-fortifed oranon juce 30z salnon with bones From the following food items, click to select the highest source of phosphorus. Click to select the organs that participate in vitamin D synthesis as a result of sunlight exposure.

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Functions of phosphorus: Bone formation, ATP production, DNA and RNA synthesis, cell membrane structure.

Order of nondairy foods by calcium content: 1) 1 cup calcium-fortified orange juice, 2) 1 cup Total Raisin Bran cereal, 3) 3 oz salmon with bones.

Highest source of phosphorus: Salmon with bones.

Organs that participate in vitamin D synthesis: Skin (when exposed to sunlight), liver, and kidneys.

What is bone formation?

Bone formation is the process by which bones grow and develop, including the deposition of mineralized bone tissue by osteoblasts and the resorption of bone tissue by osteoclasts, resulting in changes to the shape and structure of bones.

What is RNA?

RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is a molecule that plays a vital role in various biological processes. It is a type of nucleic acid that is composed of a chain of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of the molecule.

RNA is similar to DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) in terms of its structure, but it has some key differences. RNA is usually single-stranded, while DNA is double-stranded. RNA uses the sugar ribose, while DNA uses deoxyribose. RNA also contains the nitrogenous base uracil, while DNA contains thymine.

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Running on a treadmill is slightly easier than running outside because there is no drag force to work against. Suppose a 60 kg runner completes a 5.0 km race in 22 minutes. Determine the drag force on the runner during the race. Suppose that the cross section area of the runner is 0.72 m2 and the density of air is 1.2 kg/m3.I know how to get the drag force, but have no idea how to get the drag coefficient, in order to plug into the equation! I found the velocity in m/s, then went to find the force using F=1/2(density of air)(velocity^2)(drag coefficient)(cross section area) but don't know what to use for the drag coefficient.

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Running on a treadmill is slightly easier than running outside because there is no drag force to work against. Suppose a 60 kg runner completes a 5.0 km race in 22 minutes. The drag force on the runner during the race is 13.4 N.

Running on a treadmill is slightly easier than running outside because there is no drag force to work against. Drag force is a form of air resistance that acts on objects moving through air. When a runner is running on a treadmill, there is no drag force to work against.

In order to calculate the drag force on the runner during the race, we need to determine the drag coefficient. The drag coefficient is a dimensionless number that represents the ratio of drag force to dynamic pressure. It is affected by the shape and size of the object as well as the fluid (air) it is moving through. Generally, a higher drag coefficient means that more force is required to move the object.

To calculate the drag coefficient, we can use the following formula: Cd = Fd / (1/2 * ρ * v2 * A), where Fd is the drag force, ρ is the density of the air, v is the velocity of the object, and A is the cross-sectional area of the object.

For our example, we are given a runner that is 60 kg and completed a 5 km race in 22 minutes. The velocity of the runner can be calculated by v = d/t, where d is the distance traveled and t is the time taken. This gives us a velocity of 8.3 m/s. The density of the air is given to be 1.2 kg/m3 and the cross-sectional area is 0.72 m2.

Plugging these values into the formula gives us a drag coefficient of 0.385. This means that for every 1 unit of dynamic pressure, the drag force is 0.385. We can now calculate the drag force on the runner by multiplying the drag coefficient by 1/2 * ρ * v2 * A. In this case, the drag force is 13.4 N.

In conclusion, the drag force on the runner during the race is 13.4 N. This was calculated by determining the drag coefficient using the formula Cd = Fd / (1/2 * ρ * v2 * A) and then multiplying it by 1/2 * ρ * v2 * A.

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You are given two waves, a transverse wave that moves to the right f1(x) and a transverse wave that moves to the left f2(x), on a string. As the problem begins, the wave f1(x) is moving to the right at v1 = +1 m/s and the wave f2(x) is moving to the left at v2 = −1 m/s.
wave interferance

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At every location along the string, the amplitudes of two waves that interfere with one another are added. The two separate waves combine to form the final wave.

Two transverse waves are present in this instance, one traveling to the right and the other to the left. The waves will interact destructively when they meet since their motions are in opposition.

Transverse waves

The resultant wave f(x) at any point x on the string may be calculated by summing the two amplitudes if we let f1(x) represent the amplitude of the wave going to the right and f2(x) represent the amplitude of the wave moving to the left:

f(x) = f1(x) + f2(x)

The amplitudes of the two waves will be equal in size and facing in opposite directions when they collide. As a result, the amplitude that results will be zero, and the string will then be at rest.

The resulting wave will alternate between constructive and destructive interference as the waves continue to travel past one another.

As a result, the string will develop a pattern of nodes (points of zero displacements) and antinodes (points of maximum displacement).

The combined frequency and wavelength of the various waves as well as the rate of wave propagation along the string will determine the final wave's frequency and wavelength.

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if the variable capacitor in an fm receiver ranges from 10.9 pf to 16.4 pf , what inductor should be used to make an lc circuit whose resonant frequency spans the fm band?

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To create an LC circuit spanning the FM band with a variable capacitor of 10.9-16.4 pF, use the formula L = 1/(4π²f²C).

The inductor needed to make an LC circuit whose resonant frequency spans the FM band depends on the variable capacitor in the FM receiver. In your case, the variable capacitor ranges from 10.9 pF to 16.4 pF. To determine the inductor needed for the LC circuit, you can use the following formula:

L = (1/ (4π² * f² * C))

Where:

"L" is the inductor. "f" is the frequency of the LC circuit. "C" is the capacitor.

For example, if you set the variable capacitor to 10.9 pF, the inductor needed to make an LC circuit whose resonant frequency spans the FM band would be:

L = (1/ (4π² * f² * 10.9 pF))

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a hydrostatic transmission has pump volumtric efficiency 91 %, a pump mechanical efficiency of 93 %, a motor mechanical efficiency of 95%, and a motor volumetric efficiency of 91%. what is the overall efficiency of the hst (in percent)?

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The hydrostatic transmission's overall efficiency in percent can be calculated using the given information as follows:

Given that:

Volumtric efficiency of the pump = 91%Mechanical efficiency of the pump = 93%Mechanical efficiency of the motor = 95%Volumetric efficiency of the motor = 91%

Formula for calculating overall efficiency of HST is given as:

Overall efficiency of HST = pump volumetric efficiency × pump mechanical efficiency × motor mechanical efficiency × motor volumetric efficiency

Substituting the given values in the above formula, we get:

Overall efficiency of HST = 0.91 × 0.93 × 0.95 × 0.91 = 0.7460585 = 74.61%

Therefore, the overall efficiency of the hydrostatic transmission is 74.61% (rounded to two decimal places).

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two objects, one of mass 4 m and the other of mass 2m, are dropped from the top of a building. assuming friction is negligible, when the two objects hit the ground
a. Both of them will have the same kineic energy
b. The heavier one will have twice the kineic energy of the lighter one
c. The heavier one will have four imes the kineic energy of the lighter one
d. The heavier one will have √2 imes the kineic energy of the lighter one

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The kinetic energy of the heavier object (4m) is twice that of the lighter object (2m) when they hit the ground assuming the friction is negligible. Option B is correct.

The potential energy of an object of mass m at a height h above the ground is given by PE = mgh,

where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

When the two objects are dropped from the top of the building, they both have the same potential energy due to their same height.

At the point of impact with the ground, all of the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy,

which is given by KE = 1/2*mv²,

where v is the velocity of the object just before hitting the ground.

Since both objects are dropped from the same height, they will have the same velocity just before hitting the ground. Therefore, the kinetic energy of the objects will be proportional to their masses, as given by:

KE_{4m} = 1/2 (4m) v² = 2mv²

KE_{2m} = 1/2 (2m) v² = mv²

Comparing both of them we know the kinetic energy of the heavier object (4m) is twice that of the lighter object (2m) when they hit the ground.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) The heavier one will have twice the kinetic energy of the lighter one.

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