A 5.2 cm diameter circular loop of wire is in a 1.35 T magnetic field. The loop is removed from the field in 0.29 sec. Assume that the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. What is the average induced emf?

Answer:

Explanation:

C. The temperature of the coffee will decrease while the temperature of the table increases.

Answer:

1.1micro meter

Explanation:

Given that

Constructive interference is

ma = alpha x sin theta

Alpha = 1 x 594 x10^ -9/ sin 32.8°

= 1.1 x 10^ -6m

Explanation:

Answer:

A. Using displacement =Ut + 1/2gt²

=> 0 + 1/2 (-9.8)t²

= -4.9t²

So

h(t) = 50+ displacement

= 50 - 4.9t²

B. To reach the ground

h(t) = 0

So

50-4.9t²= 0

t = √ (50/4.9)

= 3.2s

C. Using

V = u+ gt

U= 0

V= - 9.8(3.2)

= 31.4m/s

D. If u = -9m/s

Then s = ut + 1/2gt²

5t- 1/2gt²

But distance from the ground is

=.> 50-5t- 4.8t²= 0

So t solving the quadratic equation

t= 3.58s

(a) The distance of the stone above the ground level at time t is [tex]h(t) = 50 - 4.9t^2[/tex]

(b) The time taken for the stone to strike the ground is 3.19 s.

(c) The velocity of the stone when it strikes the ground is 31.4 m/s.

(d) The time taken for the stone to reach the ground when thrown at the given speed is 2.41 s.

The given parameters;

The distance of the stone above the ground level at time t is calculated as;

[tex]h(t) = h_0 - ut - \frac{1}{2} gt^2\\\\h(t) = 50 - 0 -0.5\times 9.8t^2\\\\h(t) = 50 - 4.9t^2[/tex]

The time taken for the stone to strike the ground is calculated as;

[tex]t = \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g} } \\\\t = \sqrt{\frac{2\times 50}{9.8} } \\\\t = 3.19 \ s[/tex]

The velocity of the stone when it strikes the ground is calculated as;

[tex]v =u + gt\\\\v = 0 + 3.2 \times 9.8\\\\v = 31.4 \ m/s[/tex]

The time taken for the stone to reach the ground when thrown at speed of 9 m/s is calculated as;

[tex]50 = 9t + \frac{1}{2} (9.8)t^2\\\\50 = 9t + 4.9t^2\\\\4.9t^2 + 9t - 50 = 0\\\\a = 4.9 \, \ b = 9, \ \ c = -50\\\\solve \ the \ quadratic \ equation\ using \ formula \ method\\\\t = \frac{-b \ \ + /- \ \ \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac} }{2a} \\\\t = \frac{-9 \ \ + /- \ \ \sqrt{(9)^2 - 4(4.9 \times -50)} }{2(4.9)} \\\\t = 2.41 \ s \ \ or \ \ - 4.24 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time taken for the stone to reach the ground when thrown at the given speed is 2.41 s.

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Answer:

Hey there!

PE=mgh, so as height decreases, so does the potential energy.

KE=mv^2, so as velocity increases, kinetic energy increases.

Thus, the correct answer would be Decreases, Increases.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

e. The torque is the same for all cases.

Explanation:

The formula for torque is:

τ = Fr

where,

τ = Torque

F = Force = Weight (in this case) = mg

r = perpendicular distance between force an axis of rotation

Therefore,

τ = mgr

a)

Here,

m = 200 kg

r = 2.5 m

Therefore,

τ = (200 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(2.5 m)

τ = 4900 N.m

b)

Here,

m = 20 kg

r = 25 m

Therefore,

τ = (20 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(25 m)

τ = 4900 N.m

c)

Here,

m = 8 kg

r = 62.5 m

Therefore,

τ = (8 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(62.5 m)

τ = 4900 N.m

Hence, the correct answer will be:

e. The torque is the same for all cases.

Answer:

Explanation:

We can conclude that the forces of the two teams are equal and opposite and hence they cancel each other. Therefore none of the teams won as the rope did not move.

hope this helps

plz mark as brainliest!!!!!!!

Answer: Only Tech B is correct.

Explanation:

First, tech A is wrong.

The circuits that can be compared with links in a chain are the series circuit, and it can be related to the links in a chain because if one of the elements breaks, the current can not flow furthermore (because the elements in the circuit are connected in series) while in a parallel circuit if one of the branches breaks, the current still can flow by other branches.

Also in a parallel circuit, the sum of the currents of each path is equal to the current that comes from the source, so Tech B is correct, the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing in each branch of the circuit.

Answer:

C. 450v

Explanation:

Using

Voltage= B*distance of separation*velocity

3mm x 0.3T x 5E5m/s

= 450v

Answer:

The period of the motion will still be equal to T.

Explanation:

for a system with mass = M

attached to a massless spring.

If the system is set in motion with an amplitude (distance from equilibrium position) A

and has period T

The equation for the period T is given as

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{M}{k} }[/tex]

where k is the spring constant

If the amplitude is doubled, the distance from equilibrium position to the displacement is doubled.

Increasing the amplitude also increases the restoring force. An increase in the restoring force means the mass is now accelerated to cover more distance in the same period, so the restoring force cancels the effect of the increase in amplitude. Hence, increasing the amplitude has no effect on the period of the mass and spring system.

Answer:

a)   Δt = 24.96 s , b)  τ = 0.078 N m

Explanation:

This is a rotational kinematics exercise

        θ = w₀ t - ½ α t²

Let's reduce the magnitudes the SI system

       θ = 60 rev (2π rad / 1 rev) = 376.99 rad

       w₀ = 7.0 rot / s (2π rad / 1 rpt) = 43.98 rad / s

      α = (w₀ t - θ) 2 / t²

let's calculate the annular acceleration

      α = (43.98 10 - 376.99) 2/10²

      α = 1,258 rad / s²

Let's find the time it takes to reach zero angular velocity (w = 0)

        w = w₀ - alf t

         t = (w₀ - 0) / α

         t = 43.98 / 1.258

         t = 34.96 s

this is the total time, the time remaining is

         Δt = t-10

         Δt = 24.96 s

To find the braking torque, we use Newton's law for angular motion

        τ = I α

the moment of inertia of a circular ring is

       I = M r²

we substitute

         τ = M r² α

we calculate

        τ = 0.625  0.315²  1.258

        τ = 0.078 N m

The total time taken by the wheel to come to rest is 25.18 s and the magnitude of the frictional torque is 25.18 N-m.

Given data:

The initial angular speed of wheel is, [tex]\omega = 7.0 \;\rm rps[/tex]   (rps means rotation per second).

The time interval is, t' = 10.0 s.

The number of rotations made by wheel is, n = 60.0.

The mass of bike wheel is, m = 0.625 kg.

The radius of wheel is, r = 0.315 m.

The problem is based on rotational kinematics. So, apply the second rotational equation of motion as,

[tex]\theta = \omega t-\dfrac{1}{2} \alpha t'^{2}[/tex]

Here, [tex]\theta[/tex] is the angular displacement, and its value is,

[tex]\theta =2\pi \times 60\\\\\theta = 376.99 \;\rm rad[/tex]

And, angular speed is,

[tex]\omega = 2\pi n\\\omega = 2\pi \times 7\\\omega = 43.98 \;\rm rad/s[/tex]

Solving as,

[tex]376.99 = 43.98 \times 10-\dfrac{1}{2} \alpha \times 10^{2}\\\\\alpha = 1.25 \;\rm rad/s^{2}[/tex]

Apply the first rotational equation of motion to obtain the value of time to reach zero final velocity.

[tex]\omega' = \omega - \alpha t\\\\0 = 43.98 - 1.25 \times t\\\\t = 35.18 \;\rm s[/tex]

Then total time is,

T = t - t'

T = 35.18 - 10

T = 25.18 s

Now, use the standard formula to obtain the value of braking torque as,

[tex]T = m r^{2} \alpha\\\\T = 0.625 \times (0.315)^{2} \times 1.25\\\\T = 0.0775 \;\rm Nm[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the total time taken by the wheel to come to rest is 25.18 s and the magnitude of the frictional torque is 25.18 N-m.

Learn more about the rotational motion here:

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Answer:

D) True. In this case the thumb goes up the page, the fingers are extended out of the page and the palm points to the left

Explanation:

The magnetic force on a conductor is given by

        F = i L x B

bold letters indicate vectors. We can write this expression in the form of magnitudes

         F = i L B sin θ

The direction of the force can be found by the rule of the right hand, the thumb points in the direction of the current, the fingers extended in the direction of the magnetic field and the palm gives the direction of the force

Let's apply this expression to the case presented.

A) False. In this case the force is out of the page and is in contradiction with the real force

B) False. In this case the force is zero since the displacement of the current and the field would be parallel

C) False. In this case the force is to the left

D) True. In this case the thumb goes up the page, the fingers are extended out of the page and the palm points to the left

Answer:

[tex]1.0\times 10^{-6}[/tex] atmospheres are equivalent to [tex]7.6\times 10^{-4}[/tex] millimeters of mercury.

Explanation:

According to current SI unit conversions, 1 atmosphere is equal to 760 millimeters of mercury. The current pressure is determined by simple rule of three:

[tex]p = \frac{760\,mm\,Hg}{1\,atm} \times (1\times 10^{-6}\,atm)[/tex]

[tex]p = 7.6\times 10^{-4}\,mm\,Hg[/tex]

[tex]1.0\times 10^{-6}[/tex] atmospheres are equivalent to [tex]7.6\times 10^{-4}[/tex] millimeters of mercury.

Answer:

The question is not clear enough. So i have attached a copy of the correct question.

A) B = V/c

B) c = Lv

Explanation:

A) we know that formula for magnetic flux is;

Φ = BA

Where B is magnetic field and A is area

Now,

Let's differentiate with B being a constant;

dΦ/dt = B•dA/dt

From faradays law, the EMF induced is given as;

E = -dΦ/dt

However, we want to express it in terms of V and E.M.F is also known as potential difference or Voltage.

Thus, V = -dΦ/dt

Thus, we can now say that;

-V = B•dA/dt

Now from the question, we are told that dA/dt = - c

Thus;

-V = B•-c

So, V = Bc

Thus, B = V/c

B) according to Faraday's Law or Lorentz Force Law, an electromotive force, emf, will be induced between the two ends of the sidelength:

Thus;

E =LvB or can be written as; V = LvB

Where;

V is EMF

L is length of bar

v is velocity

From the first solution, we saw that;

V = Bc

Thus, equating both of the equations, we have;

Bc = LvB

B will cancel out to give;

c = Lv

Explanation:

Answer:

The current is  [tex]I = 1420 \ A[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  diameter of the wire is  [tex]d = 5.68 \ mm = 0.00568 \ m[/tex]

    The  magnetic field is  [tex]B = 0.100 \ T[/tex]

Generally the radius of the wire is mathematically evaluated as

       [tex]r = \frac{d}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{ 0.00568}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]r = 0.00284 \ m[/tex]

Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * I}{ 2 \pi r }[/tex]

=>    [tex]I =\frac{ B * 2 \pi r }{\mu_o}[/tex]

Here [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space  with value [tex]\mu_o = 4 \pi *10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

substituting values

=>     [tex]I =\frac{ 0.100 * 2 * 3.142 * 0.00284 }{ 4 \pi * 10^{-7}}[/tex]

=>     [tex]I = 1420 \ A[/tex]

Answer:

a) 60000 N

b) 35000 N

Explanation:

Force from locomotive = 100000 N

mass of first car = 80000 kg

mass of second car = 50000 kg

mass of third car = 70000 kg

friction is neglected in this system

Total mass of the cars = 80000 + 50000 + 70000  = 200000 kg

All the car in the system will accelerate at the same rate since they are pulled by the same force

We know that force F = ma

where

a is the acceleration of the cars

m is the total mass in the system

from this we can say that

a = F/m

a = 100000/200000 = 0.5 m/s^2

a) The total mass involved in this case = mass of the last two cars after the 80000 kg car =  50000 + 70000 = 120000 kg

therefore force exerted F = ma

F = 0.5 x 120000 = 60000 N

b) The total mass in this case = mass of the third car only = 70000 kg

F = ma

F = 70000 x 0.5 = 35000 N

Answer: 156.02 metre.

Explanation:

Give that a certain car traveling 33.0mph skids to a stop in 39m from the point where the brakes were applied.

Let us use third equation of motion,

V^2 = U^2 + 2as

Since the car is decelerating, V = 0

And acceleration a will be negative.

U = 33 mph

S = 39 m

Substitute both into the formula

0 = 33^2 - 2 × a × 39

0 = 1089 - 78a

78a = 1089

a = 1089 / 78

a = 13.96 m/h^2

If we assume that the car decelerate at the same rate.

the distance the car will stop had it been going 66.0mph will be achieved by using the same formula

V^2 = U^2 + 2as

0 = 66^2 - 2 × 13.96 × S

4356 = 27.92S

S = 4356 / 27.92

S = 156.02 m

Therefore, the car would stop at

156.02 m

Answer: no u

Explanation: no u

Answer:

The width of Center bright fringe is 10.2mm

Explanation:

Given that if

Y/ L << 1 then

Sin theta will be approx Y/L

So sin theta approx Y/L = lamda/a

Y= a x lambda/a

By substituting

1.9x 10^ -3m x 550*10^-9/ 0.2 x 10^-3m

= 5.2mm

But

Change in y = 2y = 10.4mm

Answer:

196 nm

Explanation:

Given that

Value of wavelength, = 490 nm

Time spent in air, t(a) = 17.5 ns

Thickness of glass, th = 0.8 m

Time spent in glass, t(g) = 21.5 ns

Speed of light in a vacuum, c = 3*10^8 m/s

To start with, we find the difference between the two time spent

Time spent on glass - Time spent in air

21.5 - 17.5 = 4 ns

0.8/(c/n) - 0.8/c = 4 ns

Note, light travels with c/n speed in media that has index of refraction

(n - 1) * 0.8/c = 4 ns

n - 1 = (4 ns * c) / 0.8

n - 1 = (4*10^-9 * 3*10^8) / 0.8

n - 1 = 1.2/0.8

n - 1 = 1.5

n = 1.5 + 1

n = 2.5

As a result, the wavelength of light in a medium with index of refraction would then be

490 / 2.5 = 196 nm

Therefore, our answer is 196 nm

Answer:

9.82 × [tex]10^{-35}[/tex] Hz

Explanation:

De Broglie equation is used to determine the wavelength of a particle (e.g electron) in motion. It is given as:

λ = [tex]\frac{h}{mv}[/tex]

where: λ is the required wavelength of the moving electron, h is the Planck's constant, m is the mass of the particle, v is its speed.

Given that: h = 6.63 ×[tex]10^{-34}[/tex] Js, m = 2.50 kg, v = 2.70 m/s, the wavelength, λ, can be determined as follows;

λ = [tex]\frac{h}{mv}[/tex]

  = [tex]\frac{6.63*10^{-34} }{2.5*2.7}[/tex]

 = [tex]\frac{6.63 * 10^{-34} }{6.75}[/tex]

 = 9.8222 × [tex]10^{-35}[/tex]

The wavelength of the object is 9.82 × [tex]10^{-35}[/tex] Hz.

Answer:

C. planetary accretion

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sf C. \ planetary \ accretion }[/tex]

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust and gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Planetary accretion is a process in which huge masses of solid rock or metal clump together to produce planets.

Answer:

μ = 1

F = P√2

Explanation:

The parabola equation is: y = ½ x².

The slope of the tangent is dy/dx = x.

The angle between the tangent and the x-axis is θ = tan⁻¹(x).

At x = 1, θ = 45°.

Draw a free body diagram of the block.  There are three forces:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N pushing perpendicular to the surface,

and friction force Nμ pushing up tangential to the surface.

Sum of forces in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N − P cos 45° = 0

N = P cos 45°

Sum of forces in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

Nμ − P sin 45° = 0

Nμ = P sin 45°

μ = P sin 45° / N

μ = tan 45°

μ = 1

Draw a new free body diagram.  This time, friction force points down tangential to the surface, and applied force F pushes up tangential to the surface.

Sum of forces in the tangential direction:

∑F = ma

F − Nμ − P sin 45° = 0

F = Nμ + P sin 45°

F = (P cos 45°) μ + P sin 45°

F = P√2

Answer:

352 seconds are needed for the radioisotope to decay to one-sixteenth of its original mass.

Explanation:

The decay of radioisotopes are represented by the following ordinary differential equation:

[tex]\frac{dm}{dt} = -\frac{t}{\tau}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in seconds.

[tex]\tau[/tex] - Time constant, measured in seconds.

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass of the radioisotope, measured in grams.

The solution of this expression is:

[tex]m(t) = m_{o}\cdot e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }[/tex]

Where [tex]m_{o}[/tex] is the initial mass of the radioisotope, measured in kilograms.

The ratio of current mass to initial mass is:

[tex]\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}} = e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }[/tex]

The time constant is now calculated in terms of half-life:

[tex]\tau = \frac{t_{1/2}}{\ln2}[/tex]

Where [tex]t_{1/2}[/tex] is the half-life of the radioisotope, measured in seconds.

Given that [tex]t_{1/2} = 88\,s[/tex], the time constant of the radioisotope is:

[tex]\tau = \frac{88\,s}{\ln 2}[/tex]

[tex]\tau \approx 126.957\,s[/tex]

Now, if [tex]\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}(t)} = \frac{1}{16}[/tex] and [tex]\tau \approx 126.957\,s[/tex], the time is:

[tex]t = -\tau \cdot \ln\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}}[/tex]

[tex]t = -(126.957\,s)\cdot \ln \frac{1}{16}[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 352\,s[/tex]

352 seconds are needed for the radioisotope to decay to one-sixteenth of its original mass.

Answer:

The number of  fringe pattern shift is   m  = 40

Explanation:

 From the question we are told that

      The  Michelson interferometer is moved 20 wavelengths i.e  [tex]20 \lambda[/tex]

Generally the distance which the  Michelson interferometer is moved is mathematically represented as

         [tex]d = \frac{m * \lambda}{2}[/tex]

Here [tex]m[/tex] is the number of  fringe pattern shift

     So

         [tex]20 \lambda = \frac{m * \lambda}{2}[/tex]

         [tex]40 \lambda = m * \lambda[/tex]

        m  = 40

Answer:

Distance= 4 miles

Time = 36.3 seconds

Explanation:

80 mph = 178.95 m/s

90 mph = 201.32 m/s

V = u +at

201.32= 0+a(4.5)

201.32/4.5= a

44.738 m/s² = a

Acceleration of the cop car

= 44.738 m/s²

Distance traveled at 4.5seconds

For the cop car

S= ut + ½at²

S= 0(4.5) + ½*44.738*4.5

S= 100.66 meters

Distance traveled at 4.5seconds

For the speeding car

4.5*178.95=805.275

The cop car will still cover 704.675 +x distance while the speeding car covers for their distance to be equal

X/178.95= (704.675+x)/201.32

X-0.89x= 626.37

0.11x= 626.37

X= 5694.3 meters

The time = 5694.3/178.95

Time =31.8 seconds

So the distance they meet

= 5694.3+805.275

= 6499.575 meters

= 4.0 miles

The Time = 4.5+31.8

Time = 36.3 seconds

Answer:

2035

Explanation:

The doctor does not travel with the woman, and therefore, he won't experience any relativistic effect on his time. The doctor will judge time by the time here on earth. Technically, the last new year's day the doctor, who is here on earth, would expect the woman to celebrate will be in 2020 + 15 years = 2035

Answer:

Explanation:

The lens equation is expressed as;

1/f = 1/u+1/v where;

f is the focal length of the lens

u is the object distance

v is the image distance

Since the near sighted person wants focus the starts at nigt, the stars at night are the images located that infinity. Hence the image distance v = ∞.

The object distance u = 130cm

Substituting the given parameters in the formula to get the focal length f

[tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{\infty} + \frac{1}{130} \\\\As \ x \ tends \ to \ \infty, \, \frac{a}{x} \ tends \ to \ 0 \ where\ 'a' \ is \ a\ constant \\\\} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{f} = 0+ \frac{1}{130}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{f} =\frac{1}{130}\\cross\ multiply\\\\f = 130*1\\\\f = 130cm[/tex]

Hence the focal length of contact lenses that would allow a nearsighted person with a 130 cm far point to focus on the stars at night is 130cm

Answer:

d²x/dt² = - 4dx/dt - 4x is the required differential equation.

Explanation:

Since the spring force F = kx where k is the spring constant and x its extension = 2.45 equals the weight of the 4 kg mass,

F = mg

kx = mg

k = mg/x

= 4 kg × 9.8 m/s²/2.45 m

= 39.2 kgm/s²/2.45 m

= 16 N/m

Now the drag force f = 16v where v is the velocity of the mass.

We now write an equation of motion for the forces on the mass. So,

F + f = ma (since both the drag force and spring force are in the same direction)where a = the acceleration of the mass

-kx - 16v = 4a

-16x - 16v = 4a

16x + 16v = -4a

4x + 4v = -a where v = dx/dt and a = d²x/dt²

4x + 4dx/dt = -d²x/dt²

d²x/dt² = - 4dx/dt - 4x which is the required differential equation

Answer:

D. evacuated tube collector due to reduced heat loss

Explanation:

Evacuated tube collectors has vacuum which reduces the loss of heat and increase the efficiency of the collector. It has a major application in solar collector, and converts solar energy to heat energy. It can also be used for heating of a definite volume of water majorly for domestic purpose.

During cold weather, the conservation and efficient use of heat is required. Therefore, evacuated tube collector is preferred so as to reduce heat loss and ensure the maximum use of heat energy.