Explanation:
The Constitution: The South African Constitution explicitly prohibits discrimination on the basis of gender. The Constitution sets out the rights of all citizens, including the right to equality, human dignity, and freedom from discrimination. The Bill of Rights, which is included in the Constitution, specifically states that everyone is equal before the law and has the right to equal protection and benefit of the law.
Legislation: There are several pieces of legislation in South Africa that prohibit discrimination on the basis of gender. These include the Employment Equity Act, the Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act, and the Constitution. These laws require employers to create equal opportunities for men and women, and prohibit any form of discrimination based on gender.
International Obligations: South Africa is also a signatory to several international agreements and conventions that require it to take action to prevent discrimination on the basis of gender. These include the United Nations Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which South Africa ratified in 1995. As a signatory, South Africa is required to take steps to eliminate discrimination against women and promote gender equality.
Overall, discrimination against gender is illegal in South Africa because it goes against the principles of equality, human dignity, and freedom from discrimination that are enshrined in the Constitution. Additionally, legislation and international agreements require the government to take action to prevent gender-based discrimination and promote gender equality.
Explanation:
Gender norms and family responsibilities play a role, and women also have less access to resources and information than men to inform these decisions.
Which statement about the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is accurate?
The statement accurate about ACE inhibitors is ACE inhibitors may interrupt the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to reduce renal vasoconstriction.
What is an ACE inhibitor?An ACE inhibitor is a type of medication used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and heart failure. ACE stands for angiotensin-converting enzyme, which is an enzyme that plays a role in regulating blood pressure by converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, which means that it causes blood vessels to narrow, leading to an increase in blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the action of ACE, which reduces the production of angiotensin II and causes blood vessels to relax, lowering blood pressure.
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TRUE/FALSE. When glucose is broken down in a cell, all of the energy it stores is released simultaneously, not in a stepwise process.
When glucose is broken down in a cell, the energy it stores is released in a stepwise process through a series of enzymatic reactions. So, the statement is FALSE.
When glucose is broken down in a cell, the energy it stores is released in a stepwise process through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process is known as cellular respiration. The stepwise release of energy allows the cell to capture the energy in a usable form (ATP) and to use it to power cellular processes as needed. The steps are:
Glycolysis is the process by which glucose is partially broken down to produce pyruvate and energy is then transferred to ATP and reduced electron carriers.In the process of being oxidised, pyruvate transforms into the molecule acetyl-coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA), which generates reduced electron carriers and releases carbon dioxide.the Krebs cycle, commonly known as the citric acid cycle or the tricarboxylic (TCA) cycle. The acetyl group is entirely oxidised to carbon dioxide in this series of chemical events, and energy is transferred to ATP and reduced electron carriers. This stage involves the conversion of approximately twice as much energy to ATP and decreased electron carriers as stages 1 and 2.Aerobic phosphorylation. In this set of events, significant amounts of ATP are produced while reduced electron carriers created in steps 1-3 contribute electrons to the electron transport chain.In some bacteria, these reactions take place in the cytoplasm, and the electron transport chain is located in the plasma membrane.
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please select the word from the list that best fits the definition the physical maturing that makes an individual capable of sexual reproduction.Puberty is the physical maturing that makes an individual capable of sexual reproduction.
The physical growing that renders an individual capable of sexual reproduction is puberty. Depending on genetic and environmental variables, sexual maturation or puberty can start at various ages.
When a person reaches puberty, their bodies start to alter and develop more. This is seen in men through the development of pubic hair, bigger testicles, a deeper voice, and sperm production. Girls often have monthly menstrual periods, pubic hair development, and broadening of the hips as a result of this. Humans are able to reproduce sexually once they have gone through this procedure. While women can produce fertile eggs that can lead to pregnancy, men can only produce semen.
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Complete Question:
What is the physical maturing that makes an individual capable of sexual reproduction?
Answer:puberty
Explanation:
good luck on exam
TRUE/FALSE. A characteristic of addiction is loss of control, which typically leads directly to negative consequences.
True. A key characteristic of addiction is loss of control over the substance or behavior, which can lead to negative consequences.
People with addiction may find that they are unable to stop using or engaging in the addictive behavior, even if they want to or if it causes problems in their life.
This loss of control can lead to a range of negative consequences, including physical and mental health problems, relationship issues, financial difficulties, and legal problems. People with addiction may continue to use or engage in the addictive behavior despite these negative consequences, which can make it difficult to break the cycle of addiction.
Overall, loss of control is a hallmark characteristic of addiction, and is often a key factor in the negative outcomes associated with this condition.
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List four (4) legal and professional obligations you have as an EN, when caring for a restrained client.
Using what you have learned about the adolescent brain and social development, answer the questions in this case study assignment. Your goals are to help Monica understand why her son makes the choices he does and recommend some strategies that may help solve the problem.
For each question, you should write a paragraph-length response (5–7 sentences) to receive credit for this assignment. You may use your Sophia tutorials as a resource.
Question 3: What advice would you give Jordan’s mother, Monica, that would teach him how to make better choices and decisions? Discuss a specific strategy that Monica may implement to help her son make better decisions.
Answer:
One strategy that Monica could implement to help her son make better decisions is to encourage him to develop better impulse control. Adolescents' brains are still developing, and they are more likely to make impulsive decisions that prioritize immediate rewards over long-term consequences. Monica can encourage Jordan to take a step back and think through the potential outcomes of his decisions before acting on them. She can also help him identify situations that may trigger impulsive behavior, such as being around certain friends or feeling stressed, and teach him coping mechanisms to manage those triggers. By helping Jordan develop better impulse control, Monica can equip him with the skills he needs to make better choices and decisions in the future.
Explanation:
sort the following forces as relevant or not relevant to this situation. the symbols are defined as follows: normal force
The relevant forces in this situation are:
Normal force on the car (n_c): This is the force exerted by the ground on the car perpendicular to the ground. It is relevant as it supports the weight of the car and provides the necessary normal force for the car to move forward.
Normal force on the truck (n_t): This is the force exerted by the ground on the truck perpendicular to the ground. It is relevant as it supports the weight of the truck and provides the necessary normal force for the truck to move forward.
Horizontal force of the road on the car (F_rc): This is the force exerted by the road on the car in the horizontal direction. It is relevant as it provides the necessary force to move the car forward.
Horizontal force of the road on the truck (F_rt): This is the force exerted by the road on the truck in the horizontal direction. It is relevant as it provides the necessary force to move the truck forward.
Force of the car pushing on the truck (F_ct): This is the force exerted by the car on the truck in the horizontal direction. It is relevant as it provides the necessary force to push the truck forward.
Force of the truck pushing on the car (F_tc): This is the force exerted by the truck on the car in the horizontal direction. It is relevant as it opposes the force of the car pushing on the truck, and affects the acceleration of the car-truck system.
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Full Question:
A 1200-kg car pushes a 2100-kg truck that has a dead battery to the right. When the driver steps on the accelerator, the drive wheels of the car push against the ground with a force of 4500 N. Sort the following forces as relevant or not relevant to this situation. The symbols are defined as follows: normal force = n, tension force = T, horizontal force of the road on the car = Frc, horizontal force of the road on the truck = F rt, weight = w, force of the car pushing on the truck = F ct, and force of the truck pushing on the car = F tc.Which are relevant?
Mr. Miles, a 65-year-old man, is visiting his health care pro-
vider for an annual checkup. He tells you that he has been
experiencing difficulty with urination, including increased fre-
quency, urinating more at night, difficulty starting his urine
stream, and dribbling after urination. He states that after urina-
tion, he feels like his bladder is not emptied.
1. What diagnosis is suggested by Mr. Miles's symptoms?
2. What classes of drugs do you expect will be prescribed
for Mr. Miles, and how will these drugs work?
3. What important teaching points will you include regarding
the diagnosis and its treatment?
Mr. Miles is diagnosed with urinary incontinence as he is experiencing difficulty with urination, including increased frequency, urinating at night, difficulty starting urine.
DisorderDrugs include: Trospium, Oxybutynin, Tolterodine (Detrol), and Oxybutynin (Oxytrol), which can be applied topically as a gel, patch, or tablet (Ditropan XL).Overactive bladder, commonly known as OAB, results in a frequent, urgent urge to urinate that may be challenging to control'. Throughout the day and night, you might feel the urge to urinate frequently. You might also lose urine accidentally (urgency incontinence).You can feel ashamed, withdraw, or restrict your work and social life if you have an overactive bladder. The good news is that your overactive bladder symptoms may have a particular reason that can be identified with a quick evaluation.For more information on urinary incontinence kindly visit to
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TRUE/FALSE. Concern about weight gain as a result of quitting smoking is an example of the construct perceived barriers.
The given statement, Concern about weight gain as a result of quitting smoking is an example of the construct perceived barriers is true because perceived barriers refer to the perceived or anticipated obstacles or difficulties that may prevent someone from engaging in a behavior.
Perceived barriers are one of the constructs of the Health Belief Model, a psychological framework used to understand health behaviors. According to this model, individuals consider several factors when making decisions about engaging in a particular behavior, including perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, perceived barriers, and cues to action.
Perceived barriers refer to the obstacles or difficulties that people anticipate when trying to engage in a particular health behavior. These can be physical or psychological, and can include things like financial concerns, lack of time or resources, social pressures, or concerns about side effects. In the context of smoking cessation, a common perceived barrier is the concern about weight gain that may occur after quitting smoking. People who smoke often worry that quitting will lead to weight gain, which can deter them from attempting to quit.
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describe the following concept in the context of the topic : the development of self in society .
1.LIFE SKILLS
2.QUALITY OF LIFE
Answer:
1: LIFE SKILLS: Development of the self in society: This includes the development of skills to enable students to make decisions for personal, social, intellectual, physical, emotional, and spiritual health.
Explanation:
2: QUALITY OF LIFE: Therefore the development of self in the quality of life in the society enables an individual to make decisions about standard indicators of the quality of life which include wealth, employment, the environment, physical and mental health, education, recreation and leisure time, social belonging, religious beliefs, safety, security and freedom.
A lack of similarity between what is stated and what is found; for instance, the computer inventory count is different than the physical count.a. Errorb. Discrepancyc. Outsourced. Circumvention
A discrepancy refers to a difference or lack of similarity between two or more things.
What is Circumvention?
Circumvention refers to the act of bypassing or finding a way around a rule, law, or restriction. It can involve finding loopholes or alternative methods to achieve a desired outcome without directly violating the established guidelines. Circumvention can be used for various purposes, including avoiding legal or regulatory consequences, gaining unauthorized access to systems or information, or achieving an unfair advantage.
In the context of the given question, a discrepancy can occur when what is stated or expected is not the same as what is found or observed. For example, if the computer inventory count is different from the physical count, there is a discrepancy between the two counts. Discrepancies can arise due to various reasons such as errors in counting or recording, theft, or mismanagement. It is important to identify and resolve discrepancies to ensure accuracy and reliability of information and data.
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How is Caleb's dietary fiber intake?
Answer:
The question is confusing.
Explanation:
an article states that people who drank alcohol frequently wer 2.4 times more likely to develop
An article states that people who drank alcohol frequently were 2.4 times more likely to develop liver cirrhosis.
Liver cirrhosis is a chronic and progressive disease characterized by the scarring and damage of the liver tissue. The liver is a vital organ responsible for filtering toxins from the blood, synthesizing proteins, and producing bile that helps in digestion. In liver cirrhosis, the healthy liver tissue is replaced by scar tissue, which affects the liver's ability to function properly.
Liver cirrhosis is typically caused by long-term liver damage due to various factors, including chronic alcohol abuse, chronic viral hepatitis B or C infections, autoimmune diseases, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and inherited metabolic disorders.
Symptoms of liver cirrhosis may include fatigue, weakness, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, jaundice, swelling in the legs and abdomen, and mental confusion. However, in the early stages, liver cirrhosis may not cause any symptoms.
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the neurologist prescribes an antiparkinsonian drug, sinemet, and instructs mitchell on which of the following?
The neurologist prescribes an antiparkinsonian drug, Sinemet, and instructs Mitchell that she expect to see the benefits of the drug in three to five days. The correct answer is d.
The neurologist's instruction to Mitchell indicates that Sinemet is a drug that takes time to produce its effects, and that he should not stop taking it abruptly. Additionally, the instruction implies that the drug is meant for long-term therapy, rather than short-term use, as it may take several days to see any benefit from the drug. The neurologist did not mention increased agitation as a side effect, but if Mitchell experiences any side effects, he should consult with the doctor before discontinuing the drug. Hence d is correct choice.
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--The complete question is, The neurologist prescribes an antiparkinsonian drug, Sinemet, and instructs Mitchell on which of the following?
a. Stop taking the drug immediately if feeling side effects
b. The drug may cause increased agitation
c. This treatment is only to be used for short term therapy
d. Expect to see the benefits of the drug in three to five days--
which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?
"I will take the medication only when I need it." statement indicates the nursees that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents
Oral hypoglycemic agents are medications used to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes. It is essential to take these medications as prescribed to maintain appropriate blood sugar levels and avoid complications.
The statement "I will take the medication only when I need it" suggests that the patient may not understand the importance of taking the medication regularly and consistently. This statement could lead to missed doses, uncontrolled blood sugar levels, and potential complications.
The other statements demonstrate appropriate knowledge of oral hypoglycemic agents. Limiting alcohol consumption can help prevent fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Reporting symptoms of fatigue and loss of appetite can indicate the need for adjustments in medication dosage or timing. Monitoring blood sugar levels daily is an essential aspect of diabetes management.
Therefore, the nurse should provide additional education to the patient on the importance of taking oral hypoglycemic agents regularly and consistently as prescribed.
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The full question was here:
Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?
I will limit my alcohol consumption."
"I will report symptoms of fatigue and loss of appetite."
"I will take the medication only when I need it."
"I will monitor my blood sugar daily."
Be against the motion of world health organization definition and explain your point with examples
Some may argue against the WHO definition of health on the grounds that it places too much emphasis on a state of complete well-being, which may be unrealistic or unattainable for many individuals, and that it is more important to focus on improving health outcomes and reducing health disparities.
How do you oppose the motion?The WHO defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." Some individuals may argue that this definition is unrealistic or unattainable for most people and that it places too much emphasis on being in a perfect state of health, which is difficult to achieve.
Critics may argue that this definition places an unreasonable burden on individuals to achieve a state of perfect health, and that it is more important to focus on improving overall health outcomes and reducing health disparities, rather than striving for an unattainable ideal.
For example, individuals with chronic health conditions or disabilities may find it challenging to achieve a state of complete physical and mental well-being, and this definition could potentially be discouraging for them. Furthermore, societal and environmental factors, such as poverty, inequality, and lack of access to healthcare, can also hinder individuals from achieving a state of complete well-being.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the atmosphere is____when the environmental lapse rate is equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rates for the unsaturated air.
The atmosphere is said to be conditionally unstable when the environmental lapse rate (ELR) is equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) for the unsaturated air.
This means that a parcel of unsaturated air that is lifted from the surface will cool at the same rate as the surrounding air. If the air parcel is lifted high enough to become saturated, it will cool at the slower rate of the moist adiabatic lapse rate (MALR).
In a conditionally unstable atmosphere, the rising air parcel will be cooler than the surrounding air at first and will tend to sink back down to its original position. However, if the air parcel is lifted further and becomes saturated, it will continue to rise due to its lower density. This can result in the formation of clouds and the potential for precipitation.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. in one year hospitals around the country ran out of 180 different drugs. the pharmaceutical companies are ____ to hospitals.
Pharmaceutical companies are suppliers of drugs to hospitals and other healthcare facilities.
When hospitals run out of certain drugs, it can be due to a variety of factors, including shortages in the supply chain, manufacturing issues, or increased demand for certain drugs. In some cases, hospitals may need to rely on alternative treatments or drugs, which may not be as effective or may have more side effects.
Pharmaceutical companies play a critical role in ensuring a consistent and reliable supply of drugs to hospitals and healthcare providers. They are responsible for manufacturing, distributing, and supplying drugs to various healthcare facilities. However, it is important to note that the relationship between pharmaceutical companies and hospitals can be complex, and issues such as drug pricing and access to new drugs can be contentious topics.
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Peter does not exercise regularly. When he does exercise, he does not use a warm-up or cool down period. Predict what may happen to Peters muscles as a result of these habits.
Peter's muscles may experience several negative effects as a result of his lack of regular exercise and his failure to warm up and cool down properly.
Without regular exercise, Peter's muscles may become weak and lose their tone, leading to reduced flexibility and mobility. Additionally, he may experience muscle atrophy (loss of muscle tissue) due to disuse, which can further decrease his muscle strength and size. This can lead to difficulty performing daily tasks and a decreased quality of life.
Skipping warm-up and cool-down periods can also have negative effects on Peter's muscles. Without a warm-up, Peter's muscles will not be properly prepared for the demands of exercise, increasing his risk of injury. Without a cool-down, Peter's muscles will not have the opportunity to properly recover after exercise, leading to soreness, stiffness, and an increased risk of injury in subsequent workouts.
Overall, Peter's lack of regular exercise and failure to properly warm up and cool down may lead to weakened and atrophied muscles, reduced mobility and flexibility, and an increased risk of injury. It is important for Peter to establish a regular exercise routine and to properly warm up and cool down to maintain his muscle health and overall physical wellbeing.
Answer:
Peter's muscles may become tight and prone to injury due to his lack of regular exercise and absence of a warm-up or cool down period. Without regular exercise, his muscles may become weak and atrophy over time. Additionally, not using a warm-up or cool down period can lead to muscle strains or other injuries, as the muscles are not properly prepared or stretched before exercise and are not given time to recover and relax after exercise. Over time, this can result in chronic pain and decreased mobility.
TRUE OR FALSE quickly pulling your hand away after touching a very hot surface would be an example of a stretch reflex at work.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
A somatic reflex is an involuntary response to a stimulus, such as pulling one's hand away after touching a hot stove.
Green Release Company is an external company providing services. Do you think Delaney Hospital and other hospitals using their services should verify that Green Release Company's systems and processes are in compliance with HIPAA?
Yes, Delaney Hospital and other hospitals using Green Release Company's services should verify that their systems and processes are in compliance with HIPAA regulations.
Which law of HIPAA applies?The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a federal law that sets standards for protecting the privacy and security of patients' protected health information (PHI). Covered entities, such as healthcare providers and their business associates (e.g. external companies providing services), are required to comply with HIPAA regulations to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of PHI.
As a business associate of Delaney Hospital and other hospitals, Green Release Company is required by law to comply with HIPAA regulations. This includes implementing appropriate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to protect PHI, as well as conducting regular risk assessments to identify and address potential security risks.
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Explain the importance of data backup:
Answer:The Importance of Backups
Making backups of collected data is critically important in data management. Backups protect against human errors, hardware failure, virus attacks, power failure, and natural disasters. Backups can help save time and money if these failures occur.
Explanation:
one of the easiest ways to determine appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance exercise intensity involves measuring
Answer:
the easiest way for you to endurance is
Explanation:
the easiest way is measuring the intensity in appropriate
FILL IN THE BLANK Iron is a component of the protein, ________, that binds and transports oxygen in the bloodstream
Answer:
hemoglobin
Explanation:
barriers to providing safe, efficient, high-quality health care include which of the following? select all that apply.
Barriers to providing safe, efficient, high-quality health care include environmental barriers, work environment, and complex work processes. Hence, option B, C, and D are correct.
Lack of cost, restricted access to nourishing food, unsafe and uncomfortable transportation, poor environmental quality, and inadequate housing are some of the obstacles to providing safe, effective, high-quality healthcare.
There are also more obstacles to putting quality improvement efforts into action in addition to these structural ones, such as a lack of financing, a lack of human resources and training, and a lack of support.
In order to develop health care systems and advance towards effective universal health coverage (UHC) in accordance with Sustainable Development Goals, patients' safety throughout the provision of health services that are safe and of high quality is a must.
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Complete question is:
Barriers to providing safe, efficient, high-quality health care include which of the following? Select all that apply:
High-quality resources
Environmental barriers
Work environment
Complex work processes
Which of the following is the correct ICD-10-CM code for this diagnostic statement; localized skin infection at surgical site? a. L02.91 b. L03.90 c. L04.8 d. L08.9
The correct ICD-10-CM code for localized skin infection at surgical site would be:
b. L03.90
What is the localized skin infection?
ICD-10-CM code L03.90 is used for "cellulitis, unspecified," which can include localized skin infections at surgical sites. This code would be appropriate for a patient with a localized skin infection at a surgical site that has not been specified as being due to a specific organism.
Code L02.91 is used for "cutaneous abscess, unspecified," which may be used for a localized skin infection that has progressed to form an abscess. Code L04.8 is used for "other specified localized infection of skin and subcutaneous tissue," but would be less appropriate in this scenario as the location (surgical site) is not specified.
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a nurse collects nutritional information on a client. which statement by the client needs to be validated by careful objective data?
If a nurse is collecting nutritional information on a client, they must be able to distinguish between subjective and objective data.
Subjective data is based on the client's personal experience, opinions, and feelings, while objective data is measurable and observable.
One statement that would need to be validated by careful objective data is if the client claims to have a "healthy" diet. This is because the definition of a healthy diet may vary from person to person, and the client's perception of what is healthy may not align with objective nutritional guidelines. Therefore, the nurse should gather objective data on the client's actual food intake, including the types and amounts of foods consumed, to evaluate whether their diet is truly healthy or not. This objective data may come from food logs, diet recalls, or dietary assessments, which can provide more accurate information on the client's nutritional status.
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fill the blank
2.______ provides a way for a microorganism to leave the reservoir. For example, the microorganism may leave the reservoir through the nose or mouth when someone sneezes or coughs.
3. ______ in the mode of transmission, is the method by which the organism moves from one host to another. The mode of transmission is contact, droplet, air-borne, foodborne/water-borne, Vector-borne (usually insect).
4 ____ membranes, or breaks in the skin. Tubes o placed in body cavities, such as urinary catheters, or from punctures produced by invasive procedures such as intravenous fluid replacement can also serve as portal of entry.
5. ____ are organisms that are considered intermediate, that is, somewhere between a virus and a bacterium
Answer:
2. Portal of exit provides a way for a microorganism to leave the reservoir. For example, the microorganism may leave the reservoir through the nose or mouth when someone sneezes or coughs.
3. Route of transmission in the mode of transmission is the method by which the organism moves from one host to another. The mode of transmission is contact, droplet, air-borne, foodborne/water-borne, Vector-borne (usually insect).
4. Portal of entry are membranes, or breaks in the skin. Tubes placed in body cavities, such as urinary catheters, or from punctures produced by invasive procedures such as intravenous fluid replacement can also serve as portal of entry.
5. Prions are organisms that are considered intermediate, that is, somewhere between a virus and a bacterium.
the morning-after pill is not considered an abortogenic agent, as it does not cause the termination of an established pregnancy.
The morning-after pill, also known as emergency contraception, is not considered an abortogenic agent as it does not cause the termination of an established pregnancy.
The morning-after pill works by preventing ovulation or fertilization from occurring, which means that it can prevent pregnancy before it starts. If fertilization has already occurred, the morning-after pill can also prevent the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus. However, once implantation has occurred and a pregnancy has been established, the morning-after pill is not effective in terminating the pregnancy. Therefore, the morning-after pill is not considered an abortifacient and is often used as a form of contraception to prevent unintended pregnancy.
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identify two priority nursing actions to implement in the post operative period after a cleft palate repair of a client
Nursing interventions that are required in postoperative care include prompt pain control, assessment of the surgical site and drainage tubes,
Just what is meant by pain?Pain is a bothersome indicator that something is painful. Even among people with identical injuries and/or illnesses, it is a difficult process that varies widely from person to person. Very minor, barely perceptible pain can also be explosive.
By what standards is pain measured?The Select committee on Taxonomy made the recommendation that the IASP Council adopt the current definition of hurt as An unbearable emotional and sensory embedment with actual or prospective cell damage, and described in the context of that harm. This definition was approved by the IASP Commission in 1979.
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