Answer:
Abdominal rectus diastasis is a condition where the abdominal muscles are separated by an abnormal distance due to widening of the linea alba causing the abdominal content to bulge. It is commonly acquired in pregnancies and with larger weight gains. Even though many patients suffer from the condition, treatment options are poorly investigated including the effect of physiotherapy and surgical treatment. The symptoms include pain and discomfort in the abdomen, musculoskeletal and urogynecological problems in addition to negative body image and impaired quality of life. The purpose of this review was to give an overview of treatment options for abdominal rectus diastasis.
Results: The first treatment step is physiotherapy. However, evidence is lacking on which regimen to use and success rates are not stated. The next step is surgery, either open or laparoscopic, and both surgical approaches have high success rates. The surgical approach includes different plication techniques. The recurrence and complication rates are low, complications are minor, and repair improves low back pain, urinary incontinence, and quality of life. Robotic assisted surgery might become a possibility in the near future, but data are still lacking.
Conclusions: Evidence on what conservatory treatment to use is sparse, and more research needs to be done. Both open and laparoscopic surgery have shown positive results. Innovative treatment by robotic assisted laparoscopic surgery has potential, however, more research needs to be done in this area as well. An international guideline for the treatment of rectus diastasis could be beneficial for patients and clinicians.
Keywords: rectus diastasis, treatment options, physiotherapy, surgery, abdominoplasty, laparoscopy, robot assisted surgery
The ______ rate of interest is the actual rate charged by the supplier and paid by the demander of fund
Answer:
nominal
Explanation:
There is a nominal rate that is the interest rate stated on a loan without taking into account the inflation or the compounding of interests and a real rate that is the one that is adjusted to reflect the real cost of the loan to the borrower. According to this, the answer is that the nominal rate of interest is the actual rate charged by the supplier and paid by the demander of fund because this is the rate that is stated when taking a loan.
ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
The ratio of sales to invested assets, which is also a factor in the DuPont formula for determining the rate of return on investment, is called
Answer:
Investment turnover
Explanation:
Investment turnover is used to compare the revenue earned by a business to the invested assets (equity or debt). It measures how effectively the business is using investment to generate profit.
The number of times investment is converted to revenue is calculated using this method (that is the turnover).
This metric is used in the Dupont formula.
Dupont formula is a financial ratio that evaluates a company's ability to increase return on equity.
Three main components of the Dupont formula are: profit margin, total asset turnover, and financial leverage.
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?
Answer: $26,282.25
Explanation:
The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.
Cash from tops
= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity
= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300
= $94,600
Cash from jeans
= ( 65 - 36) * 285
= $8,265
Cash from jeans
= (26 - 16) * -420
= -$4,200
As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.
Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000
= $22,665
Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)
= $14,732.25 + 11,550
= $26,282.25
On July 1, 2017, Lopez Company paid $1,400 for six months of insurance coverage. No adjustments have been made to the Prepaid Insurance account, and it is now December 31, 2017. Zim Company has a Supplies account balance of $5,400 on January 1, 2017. During 2017, it purchased $2,200 of supplies. As of December 31, 2017, a supplies inventory shows $900 of supplies available. Prepare the journal entries to reflect expiration of the insurance and correctly report the balance of the Supplies account and the Supplies Expense account as of December 31, 2017.
Answer:
Lopez Company
the journal entries to record prepaid insurance:
July 1, 2017, 6 months of insurance are prepaid
Dr Prepaid insurance 1,400
Cr Cash 1,400
the adjusting entry made on December 31 to record insurance expense:
December 31, 2017, insurance expense
Dr Insurance expense 1,400
Cr prepaid insurance 1,400
Zim Company
supplies account initial balance $5,400
then it purchased $2,200 worth of supplies during the year
final account balance $900
supplies expense = $5,400 + $2,200 - $900 = $6,700
Adjusting journal entry:
December 31, 2017, supplies expense
Dr Supplies expense 6,700
Cr Supplies 6,700
Ending balances:
Supplies expense account $6,700Supplies account $900Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be
Answer:
$152,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory
First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount
Using this formula
Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail
Let plug in the formula
Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000
Beginning Inventory =$120,000
Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount
Using this formula
Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer
Let plug in the formula
Current period purchases=64%*50,000
Current period purchases=$32,000
The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula
Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases
Let plug in the formula
Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000
Ending inventory cost=$152,000
Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000
The classical dichotomy is the separation of real and nominal variables. The following questions test your understanding of this distinction. Eleanor spends all of her money on paperback novels and mandarins. In 2012, she earned $27.00 per hour, the price of a paperback novel was $9.00, and the price of a mandarin was $3.00. Which of the following give the nominal value of a variable? Check all that apply. The price of a mandarin is 0.33 paperback novels in 2012. Eleanor's wage is 3 paperback novels per hour in 2012. The price of a mandarin is $3.00 in 2012. Which of the following give the real value of a variable? Check all that apply. The price of a paperback novel is $9.00 in 2012. Eleanor's wage is $27.00 per hour in 2012. The price of a paperback novel is 3 mandarins in 2012. Suppose that the Fed sharply increases the money supply between 2012 and 2017. In 2017, Eleanor's wage has risen to $54.00 per hour. The price of a paperback novel is $18.00 and the price of a mandarin is $6.00. In 2017, the relative price of a paperback novel is . Between 2012 and 2017, the nominal value of Eleanor's wage , and the real value of her wage . Monetary neutrality is the proposition that a change in the money supply nominal variables and real variables.
Answer:
In 2012, she earned $27.00 per hour, the price of a paperback novel was $9.00, and the price of a mandarin was $3.00. Which of the following give the nominal value of a variable? Check all that apply.
The price of a mandarin is $3.00 in 2012.Nominal values are expressed in terms of current money. real variables are represented in terms of other goods or services.
Which of the following give the real value of a variable? Check all that apply.
The price of a paperback novel is 3 mandarins in 2012.Nominal values are expressed in terms of current money. real variables are represented in terms of other goods or services.
Suppose that the Fed sharply increases the money supply between 2012 and 2017. In 2017, Eleanor's wage has risen to $54.00 per hour. The price of a paperback novel is $18.00 and the price of a mandarin is $6.00. In 2017, the relative price of a paperback novel is still 3 mandarins.
Between 2012 and 2017, the nominal value of Eleanor's wage doubled, and the real value of her wage remained constant.
Monetary neutrality is the proposition that a change in the money supply affects nominal variables and does not affect real variables.
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as: Multiple Choice 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 2 days. 2% discount if paid within 30 days. 30% discount if paid within 10 days. 10% cash discount if the amount is paid within 2 days, or the balance due in 30 days.
Answer:
The credit terms 2/10, n/30 are interpreted as:
2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance due in 30 days.Explanation:
I will explain using an example:
On January 2, the company sells $1,000 worth of goods with credit terms 2/10, n/30.
January 2
Dr Accounts receivable 1,000
Cr Sales revenue
If the client pays within the discount period:
January 11
Dr Cash 980
Dr Sales discounts 20
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
If the client pays after the discount period but before 30 days:
January 31
Dr Cash 1,000
Cr Accounts receivable 1,000
The credit terms 2/10, and n/30 are interpreted as a 2% cash discount if the amount is paid within 10 days, or the balance is due in 30 days. Thus, option A is the correct option.
Trade credits like 2/10 net 30 are frequently provided by suppliers to purchasers. It stands for an agreement that if payment is made within 10 days, the buyer would get a 2% reduction on the net invoice amount. Otherwise, you have 30 days to pay the entire invoice amount.
It's a common way to express an early payment discount. In accounting, the discount amount and the window of availability are typically represented using a formula like 2/10, n/30. This implies that if the invoice is paid in full within ten days, a 2% reduction is applied; otherwise, the full amount is owed.
Learn more about trade credit here:
https://brainly.com/question/28178211
#SPJ6
A firm has current assets of $36,000, cash of $5,000, current liabilities of $20,000, total assets of $80,000 and total liabilities of $45,000. What is its net working capital?
a. $16,000
b. $28,000
c. $35,000
d. $44,000
Answer:
Option A, $16000, is the right answer.
Explanation:
The current assets = $36000
Cash = $5000
Current liabilities = $20000
Total assets = $80000
Total liabilities = $45000
Use the below formula to find the net working capial.
Net working capital = Current assets - Current Liabilities
Net working capital = 36000 – 20000
Net working capital = 16000
Therefore, option A, $16000 is correct.
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
The production budget shows expected unit sales of 40000. Beginning finished goods units are 3800. Required production units are 41600. What are the desired ending finished goods units
Answer:
desired ending inventory= 5,400 units
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sales= 40,000 units
Beginning finished goods= 3,800 units
Production= 41,600 units
To calculate the desired ending inventory, we need to use the following formula:
Production= sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory
41,600= 40,000 + desired ending inventory - 3,800
41,600 + 3,800 - 40,000= desired ending inventory
desired ending inventory= 5,400 units
Solve the consumer’s problem for John’s optimal demand for Germ-X and Purell. (You should find actual numbers representing the quantity of Germ-X chosen and the quantity of
Answer:
Hello your question is incomplete below is the missing part and the needed diagram
suppose John is shopping and has $20 to spend on hand sanitizer. He can go with Germ-X (G) at $1 per fluid ounce (pG=1), or he can purchase purell (P) at $1.25 per fluid ounce (Pp=1.25). His utility function for the two different hand sanitizers is as follows:
U = G +1.1P
where G and P are measured in fluid ounces.
Solve the consumer’s problem for John’s optimal demand for Germ-X and Purell. (You should find actual numbers representing the quantity of Germ-X chosen and the quantity of purell chosen
ANSWER: The solution = (Germ-x,Purell ) = (20,0).
Explanation:
The consumers problem for John's optimal demand for Germ-x and Purell as seen in the diagram can solved by John going maximizing his utility given the constraint of the budget,
that means that John will purchase/spend the constrained budget of ($20) on Germ-x since the unit price of Germ X is at $1 while Purell's unit price is at $1.25 per fluid ounce
Bramble Corp. recorded operating data for its shoe division for the year. Sales$1300000 Contribution margin360000 Controllable fixed costs180000 Average total operating assets720000 How much is controllable margin for the year
Answer:
controllable margin for the year is $180,000.
Explanation:
The Controllable Margin is the Profit that is controllable by the divisional manager.
Calculation of Controllable Margin :
Contribution Margin $360,000
Less Controllable fixed costs ($180,000)
Division Controllable Margin $180,000
Abica Roast Coffee Company produces Columbian coffee in batches of 6,000 pounds. The
standard quantity of materials required in the process is 6,000 pounds, which cost $5.00per pound. Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
Columbian coffee can be sold without further processing for $8.40 per pound.
Columbian coffee can also be processed further to yield Decaf Columbian, which can
be sold for $10.00 per pound. The processing into Decaf Columbian requires additional
processing costs of $9,450 per batch. The additional processing will also cause a 5% loss
of product due to evaporation.
a. Prepare a differential analysis dated August 28, 2012, on whether to sell regular
Columbian (Alternative 1) or process further into Decaf Columbian (Alternative 2).
b. Should Abica Roast sell Columbian coffee or process further and sell Decaf
Columbian?
c. Determine the price of Decaf Columbian that would cause neither an advantage or
disadvantage for processing further and selling Decaf Columbian.
Answer:
A)
no further further differential
processing processing amount
price per pound $8.40 $10.00 $1.60
materials $5 $5.25 ($0.25)
processing costs $0 = $9,450 / ($1.66)
5,700 = $1.66
operating profit per $3.40 $3.09 ($0.31)
pound
B)
The company should sell coffee without any further processing, just sell it as normal Colombian coffee.
C)
In order to eliminate the financial disadvantage of processing further the decaf coffee, the the price should be $10 + $0.31 = $10.31 per pound.
Steel Tariffs Appear to Have Backfired on Bush
President Bush set aside his free-trade principles last year and imposed heavy tariffs on imported steel to help out struggling mills in Pennsylvania and West Virginia. Some economists say the tariffs may have cost more jobs than they saved, by driving up costs for automakers and other steel users.
Source: The Washington Post, September 19, 2003
Explain how a high tariff on steel imports can help domestic steel producers.
Explain how a high tariff on steel imports can harm steel users.
When a high tariff is placed on steel imports, U.S. steel producers produce______steel and they pay a ________price.
A. less; higher
B. more; lower
C. less; lower
D. more; higher
Answer:
Steel industry in the United States of America has had its up and down over the years. this is especially going by the fact that it is cheaper to import steel from outside America than to buy those produced in U.S. However, high tariff on steel import would enable the domestic steel producers to meet their obligation as well as recoup their investments in the steel industry in U.S.
For example, most construction based organisation would prefer to buy from domestic steel producer if the price and tariff of imported ones makes it extremely difficult to purchase.
On the other-hand, the high tariff placed on steel import could also harm steel users due to the fact that, the quality of steel which they buy from outside U.S would no longer be available to them.
Also, they would be forced to buy at whatever price from domestic producers whether they had need for the steel or not due to high tariff on imported ones.
When a high tariff is placed on steel imports, U.S. steel producers produce more steel and they pay a higher price.
Answer: D. more; higher
Explanation:
how will a new front desk manager address a problem of lateness in a hotel.
Answer:
They will have a system like a lot book where they would take in the visitors details and then Mark in or out and time of arrival and leaving
Hope this helps :)
Explanation:
Microsoft online. Which of the following price customization tool is Microson using?
a. Controlling availability
b. Setting prices based upon transaction characteristics
c. Managing product-line offerings
d. Setting prices based upon buyer characteristic
Answer:
Setting prices based upon buyer characteristic
Explanation:
Microson is setting prices based on buyer characteristics. The question says it is giving educational discounts of 10 percent to parents and students. This is value pricing and it mainly involves setting prices with your customers or consumers in focus. Microson based their prices on the worth as perceived by the parents and students. It's discount is characteristic of the people buying it.
When preparing an income statement vertical analysis, each revenue and expense is expressed as a percent of net income.
A. True
B. False
"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"
Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter
Explanation:
The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.
The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.
Lindley Corp.'s stock price at the end of last year was $33.50, and its book value per share was $25.00. What was its market/book ratio
Answer:
1.34
Explanation:
Computation for the market/book ratio
Using this formula
Market/book ratio=Stock price/Book value per share
Let plug in the formula
Market/book ratio=$33.50/$25.00
Market/book ratio=1.34
Therefore the Market/book ratio will be 1.34.
Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now
Answer:
Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000
Explanation:
The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%
The initial margin = $4,000
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20
Increase in the Margin value =$2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000
Refer to the following scenario to answer the following questions.
Five fishermen live in a village and have no other employment or income-earning possibilities besides fishing. They each own a boat that is suitable for fishing but does not have any resale value. Fish are worth $5 per pound, and the marginal cost of operating the boat is $500 per month. They all fish a river next to the village. According to the following schedule, they have determined that when there are more of them out on the river fishing, they each catch fewer fish per month.
Boats Fish Caught per
Boat (pounds)
1 200
2 190
3 175
4 155
5 130
How many fishermen will choose to operate their boats?
Answer:
5 fishermen will choose to operate their boats as each of them will earn a profit of $150
Explanation:
Per boat operating cost = $500 per month.
Price of fish = $5 per pound.
There are 5 fishermen and each fishermen has 1 boat.
For 1 boat
Total revenue = Price * quantity = $5 * 200 = $1,000
Cost = $500
Profit = Total revenue - Cost = 1000 - 500
Profit = $500.
For 2 boats
Total Revenue of each boat = $5 * 190 = $950
Cost of each boat = $500
Profit of each boat = Total revenue - Cost = 950 - 500
Profit of each boat = $450.
For 3 boats
Total Revenue of each boat = 5 * 175 = $875
Cost of each boat = $500
Profit of each boat = TR - Cost = 875 - 500
Profit of each boat = $375
For 4 boats
Total Revenue of each boat = 5 * 155 = $775
Cost of each boat = $500
Profit of each boat = TR - Cost = 775 - 500
Profit of each boat = $275
For 5 boats
Total Revenue of each boat = 5 * 130 = $650
Cost of each boat = $500
Profit of each boat = TR - Cost = 650 - 500
Profit of each boat = $150.
Conclusion: As there are 5 fishermen and if all of them out on the river at the same time then each fisherman earns profit of $150. As all fishermen earns profit hence all of them will choose to operate their boats. Therefore, 5 fishermen will be ready to operate their boats.
You find a zero coupon bond with a par value of $10,000 and 14 years to maturity. The yield to maturity on this bond is 5.1 percent. Assume semiannual compounding periods. What is the price of the bond
Answer:
Bond Price = $4940.8468 rounded off to $4940.85
Explanation:
The price of a zero coupon bond is simply calculated by calculating the present value of the face value of the bond that the bond pays at maturity. The formula for the price of a zero coupon bond is,
Bond Price = Face Value / ( 1 + r )^n
Where,
r is the rate or YTM n is the number of periods left to maturityAssuming that the r or YTM is always stated in annual terms, the semi annual YTM will be 5.1% / 2 = 2.55%
Assuming semi annual compounding periods, the total number of periods or n will be,
n = 14 * 2 = 28
Bond Price = 10000 / (1 + 0.0255)^28
Bond Price = $4940.8468 rounded off to $4940.85
A cash equivalent is: Multiple Choice Another name for cash. Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate changes.
Complete Question:
A cash equivalent is:
Group of answer choices
a) Generally is within 12 months of its maturity date.
b) Another name for cash.
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
d) Is not considered highly liquid.
e) Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate
changes
Answer:
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Explanation:
In Financial accounting, cash equivalents can be defined as any short term and highly liquid investments which can be easily converted or transformed to a known and standard amounts of cash and as such are subjective to little or no risk of changes in value.
This ultimately implies that, a cash equivalent is an investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Under the statements of cash flow, cash equivalents can be classified broadly into three (3) categories and these are;
1. Operating activities.
2. Financing activities.
3. Investing activities.
Answer:
money
Explanation:
Blossom, Inc., manufactures golf clubs in three models. For the year, the Big Bart line has a net loss of $4,700 from sales $201,000, variable costs $175,000, and fixed costs $30,700. If the Big Bart line is eliminated, $19,800 of fixed costs will remain. Prepare an analysis showing whether the Big Bart line should be eliminated. (Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).) g
Answer:
Analysis of the Big Bart line discontinuity
Opportunity Costs :
Sales ($201,000)
Savings :
Variable Costs $175,000
Fixed Costs ($30,700 - $19,800) $10,900
Financial Advantage / (Disadvantage) ($15,100)
Conclusion :
Do not eliminate / discontinue Big Bart line.
Explanation:
The results show that closing Big Bart line results in a contribution towards fixed cost being lost to the amount of $15,100. Therefore leaving the entire company in a worse off position.
Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.
Answer:
a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.
Entry;
DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000
CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000
(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)
b.
DR Cash......................................................................$180,000
CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000
(To record Wayne investment)
Working
The current Capital amount is;
= 200,000 +160,000
= $360,000
If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;
2/3x = 360,000
x = 360,000/2/3
x = $540,000
Wayne's share would be;
= 1/3 * 540,000
= $180,000
The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.
And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.
The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]
[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]
Now the value of x will be calculated as
[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]
[tex]x=180000[/tex]
Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.
To know more about partnership firm, click the link below.
https://brainly.com/question/6346527
Suppose you invested in the Ishares High Yield Fund (HYG) a month ago. It paid a dividend of today and then you sold it for . What was your dividend yield and capital gains yield on the investment?
Complete Question:
Suppose you invested $100 in the Ishares High Yield Fund HYG your dividend yield and capital gains yield on the investment?
It paid a dividend of $2 today and then you sold it for $95. What was Dividend Yield and Capital Gains Yield on the investment?
Answer:
Dividend Yield is 2%
Capital Gains Yield is -5%
Explanation:
Dividend Yield:
We can calculate the Dividend Yield using the following formula:
Dividend Yield = D0 / Initial Stock Price
Here
D1 was Dividend paid just now and is $2 per share
Initial Stock Price before the dividend payment was $100 per share
By putting values, we have:
Dividend Yield = $2 per share / $100 per share = 2%
Capital Gains Yield:
We can find capital gains yield by using following formula:
Capital Gains Yield = (P1 - P0) / P0
Here
P1 is $95
P0 is $100
By putting values we have:
Capital Gains Yield = ($95 - $100) / $100 = -5%
In a concentrated network configuration:
a. firms perform a supply chain activity in one location and serve foreign locations from it
b. firms allow each site on the network to operate with full autonomy
c. firms tightly link operations and supply chain activities to one another
d. firms perform a supply chain activity in various countries
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Here, in this question, we are to select which of the options is best.
The correct answer to this question is that in a concentrated network configuration, firms allow each site on the network to operate with full autonomy.
What this means is that each site in the network operate independently of the other sites.
A site is thus an autonomous entity but still part of the concentrated network
Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were
Answer:
$3,709,000
Explanation:
7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000
9/1 Time weighted amount = $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000
12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000
